Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Therapeutics > Progression Exam P3 (Mock Exam) > Flashcards

Progression Exam P3 (Mock Exam) Flashcards

1
Q

(SATA) Which of the following are true about methadone?
a. It can cause QT prolongation
b. For addiction, it should be dosed every 4-6 hours
c. For severe pain, it should be dosed every 8-12 hours
d. It can cause respiratory depression

A

a, c, d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why should ketorolac IV use be limited to 5 days?
a. Prolonged use may increase blood pressure
b. Prolonged use may lead to renal toxicity
c. Prolonged use may increase cardiovascular risk
d. Prolonged use may lead to liver toxicity

A

c?
Black box warning: Max duration of use 5 days. Increased risk of thrombotic events, GI effects and bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Jardiance?

A

Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor (-flozin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

(SATA) Which of the following are examples of sulfonylureas?
a. Glimepiride
b. Glipizide
c. Glyburide
d. Sitagliptin

A

a, b, c (sitagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Filgrastim is used in the treatment of which of the following conditions?
a. Hypertension
b. Headache
c. Neutropenia following bone marrow transplant
d. Anemia in patients with chronic renal failure

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following drugs is associated with causing vivid dreams, confusion, and other CNS effects?
a. Ziagen
b. Amoxicillin
c. Efavirenz
d. Lopinavir/ritonavir

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

(SATA) Which of the following are thiazide diuretics?
a. Chlorothiazide
b. Chlorthalidone
c. Hydrochlorothiazide
d. Chlordiazepoxide

A

a, b, c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Memantine is effective in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s dementia via which mechanism?
a. Azetylcholinesterase inhibition
b. Serotonin reuptake inhibition
c. N-methyl D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonism
d. Dopamine receptor agonist

A

c (Namenda)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Prasugrel belongs to which medication class?
a. Antiplatelet, thienopyridines
b. Antihypertensives
c. Anticoagulants
d. Antibiotics

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which medication should be avoided in patients with known serious structural cardiac abnormalities, coronary artery disease […] sudden death?
a. Memantine
b. Methocarbamol
c. Escitalopram
d. Lisdexamfetamine

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cytarabine is commonly used to treat which of the following cancers?
a. Lung cancer
b. Breast cancer
c. Colon cancer
d. Acute myelogenous leukemia

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Tylenol #3?
a. CYP2D6 inhibitors may decrease the efficacy
b. It should not be used in children
c. As a schedule III controlled substance, it cannot be refilled
d. Constipation is uncommon

A

a?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following causes apoptosis in tumor cells by inhibiting cell mitosis?
a. Gemcitabine
b. Gleevec
c. Paraplatin
d. Taxol

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(SATA) Which of the following statements regarding carbidopa/levidopa is/are correct?
a. Therapeutic effects may take weeks to months to achieve
b. Some patients may require QID dosing or use more than one dosage strength for adequate control
c. Use of concurrent MAO inhibitors is contraindicated
d. Parcopa is an extended-release formulation

A

b, c, d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following classes of medications can reduce GI ulcers in high-risk patients?
a. Alpha-1 antagonists
b. Histamine-2 antagonists
c. Antacids
d. Subsalicylates

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of fibrates?
a. Stimulate peroxisome proliferator activated receptors (PPARμ)
b. PPARβ
c. PPARα
d. PPARγ

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following effects is a result of the drug interaction between fentanyl and antipsychotic agents?
a. Increased analgesic effects
b. Enhanced hypotensive effects
c. Serotonin syndrome
d. Increased sedation

A

d?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Milrinone directly produces which of the following effects?
a. Increased heart rate
b. Increased contractility and cardiac output
c. Increased urine output
d. Increased vasoconstriction and blood pressure

A

b (a. would be chronotropic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(SATA) Which of the following medications contain estrogen?
a. Premarin
b. Estraderm
c. Climara
d. Depo-Provera

A

a, b, c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following agents may be used as a prokinetic agent in patients with diabatic gastroparesis and as an [antacid?]
a. Dicyclomine
b. Simethicone
c. Metoclopramide
d. Prochlorperazine

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is a correct counseling point for the fentanyl transdermal patches?
a. They must be cut to size
b. Fever can decrease absorption
c. They should be placed on the same painful area each time
d. They should be worn for 72 hours before replacing

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do Miacalcin and Fosamax have in common?
a. Abdominal pain is the most common adverse reaction of both medications
b. They both have an oral formulation
c. Antacids may decrease the absorption of both medications
d. They are both used for the treatment of osteoporosis

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is the preferred antihistamine to use when needed during pregnancy?
a. Fexofenadine
b. Loratidine
c. Hydroxyzine
d. Promethazine

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

All of the following are brand names for fenofibrate EXCEPT
a. Triglide
b. TriCor
c. Lopid
d. Antara

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is an example of a biguanide?
a. Amaryl
b. Januvia
c. Actos
d. Glucophage

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which drug should not be given to a patient with a sulfonamide allergy?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Septra
c. Augmentin
d. Tetracycline

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Bentyl?
a. Acts peripherally on opioid receptors
b. Blocks the action of acetylcholine at parasympathetic sites
c. Blocks H+/K+ ATP-ase in the gastric parietal cells
d. Competitively inhibits histamine at H2 receptors

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following drugs is a drug of choice for methicillin-resistant S. aureus infections?
a. Neosporin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Rifampin

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

There is an FDA black box warning that states there is an increased risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in children and adolescents for what drugs?
a. Antipsychotic agents, especially the newer ones
b. Antidepressants
c. Anti-anxiety agents, including benzodiazepines
d. None of the above

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following represents the most common adverse reactions seen with donepezil?
a. Weight gain
b. Somnolence
c. Rash
d. Gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is an indication for Neulasta therapy?
a. Hepatitis
b. MI
c. Neutropenia associated with myelosuppressive chemotherapy
d. Anemia associated with chronic renal failure

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the antidote for unfractionated heparin?
a. Vitamin K
b. Potassium
c. Protamine
d. Vitamin B12

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

(SATA) Which of the following are black box warnings for valproate/divalproex medications?
a. Pancreatitis
b. Rash
c. Teratogenicity
d. Hepatotoxicity

A

a, c, d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

(SATA) Which of the following are common adverse reactions of Synthroid?
a. Fatigue
b. Weight gain
c. Heat intolerance
d. Decreased appetite

A

a, c, d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is NOT a Schedule C-II controlled substance
a. Lisdexamfetamine
b. Methylphenidate
c. Amphetamine/dextroamphetamine
d. Modafinil

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which antifungal is a nephrotoxin?
a. Itraconazole
b. Amphotericin B
c. Fluconazole
d. Vorizonazole (oral)

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following medications have been associated with rare cases of osteonecrosis of the jaw?
a. Thyroid replacement therapy
b. High-dose steroids
c. Progestin-only contraceptives
d. Bisphosphonates

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Lubiprostone is the first agent in a new class of drugs used to treat what condition?
a. Gastroesophageal reflux
b. Irritable bowel syndrome with constipation
c. NSAID-induced ulcers
d. Motion sickness

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

(SATA) Which of the following is an indication for bivalirudin therapy?
a. STEMI undergoing PCI
b. HIT
c. UA/NSTEMI
d. None of the above

A

a, b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following is not an essential monitoring parameter of amiodarone?
a. Liver function tests
b. Thyroid
c. Pulmonary function tests
d. Renal function

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sumatriptan is contraindicated for use in patients with:
a. Renal impairment
b. Ischemic heart disease
c. Gout
d. Seizure disorder

42
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the extended release formulation of oxycodone?
a. It should be dosed every 12 hours
b. It has a maximum daily dose of 200 mg
c. It can be crushed if patient cannot swallow the tablets
d. It is a controlled substance schedule III

43
Q

Nifedipine is used for which of the following indications?
a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Heart failure
c. Acute myocardial infarction
d. Chronic stable angina

44
Q

(SATA) Adverse effects of spironolactone include:
a. Lupus-like syndrome
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Gynecomastia
d. Renal dysfunction

45
Q

Use of which of the following drugs is contraindicated during therapy with rituximab?
a. Dexamethasone
b. Attenuated influenza vaccine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Live vaccines

46
Q

(SATA) Which of the following are brand names of metformin?
a. Diabeta
b. Glumetza
c. Riomet
d. Fortamet

47
Q

Which statins are NOT metabolized through the CYP3A4 system?

A

pravastatin, fluvastatin, and rosuvastatin

48
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Percocet?
a. It commonly causes constipation
b. It is a schedule III controlled substance
c. It is indicated for mild pain
d. It contains oxycodone and ibuprofen

49
Q

Which of the following drugs primarily works by decreasing hepatic glucose production?
a. Januvia
b. Glucophage
c. Actos
d. Micronase

50
Q

Which oral antidiabetic agent works primarily by reducing hepatic glucose production?

51
Q

Which of the following antineoplastic agents is also commonly used for rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Purinethol
b. Capecitabine
c. Cytoxan
d. Methotrexate

52
Q

Which of the following is true regarding PCSK9 inhibitors?
a. No study has shown a reduction in cardiovascular morbidity
b. Administered orally
c. Provide an additional 10% reduction in LDL-C
d. Enhance recycling of LDL receptors

A

d? (studies have shown risk reduction, they are SQ only, and more like 60-70% reduction)

53
Q

Which antiretroviral drug is associated with severe hypersensitivity reactions that can be predicted by genetic testing?

54
Q

(SATA) Which of the following medications should not be taken with bisphosphonates?
a. Tums
b. Oral contraceptives
c. NSAIDs
d. Penicillin

55
Q

Which medication is the drug of choice for initial treatment of a newly diagnosed patient with type 2 diabetes and no contraindications?

56
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of rapid withdrawal of high-dose glucocorticosteroids?
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Adrenal insufficiency
c. Weight gain
d. Thrombocytopenia

57
Q

(SATA) Which of the following are associated with infusion reactions?
a. Trastuzumab
b. Methotrexate
c. Rituximab
d. Paclitaxel

58
Q

Which of the following kills tumors by causing strand breaks in DNA resulting in cell death?
a. Capecitabine
b. Docetaxel
c. Mercaptopurine
d. Cyclophosphamide

59
Q

Which of the following should be monitored in patients taking sotalol?
a. TSH
b. SCr
c. PFTs
d. AST/ALT

60
Q

Which of the following is a β-1 selective β-blocker?
a. Labetalol
b. Carvedilol
c. Atenolol
d. Propranolol

A

c (metoprolol, atenolol, bisoprolol, esmolol, nebivolol)

61
Q

A physician calls the pharmacy asking for a recommendation to help treat a patient with mild GERD. While talking to the physician, you learn that the patient [dialysis?] week. Which of the following H2 receptor agonists requires a dosing adjustment?
a. Tagamet
b. Zantac
c. Pepcid
d. All of the above

62
Q

What is the mechanism of action for spironolactone?

A

Aldosterone antagonist

63
Q

How soon after taking Senna should a patient expect to have a bowel movement?
a. 24-48 hours
b. 15-30 minutes
c. 1-2 hours
d. 6-12 hours

64
Q

Which of the following agents can cause rebound congestion if used for more than 3 days?
a. Beconase AQ
b. Nasacort
c. Promethazine
d. Dristan

65
Q

Which of the following inhaled corticosteroids is available in combination with formoterol?
a. Budesonide
b. Fluticasone
c. Beclomethasone
d. Triamcinolone

66
Q

Which lipid parameter do statins have the greatest effect on?
a. LDL
b. VLDL
c. Triglycerides
d. HDL

67
Q

Which class of antibiotics is commonly associated with dizziness, confusion, and other CNS disturbances?

A

fluoroquinolones

68
Q

Which antidiabetic medication should be discontinued immediately and a healthcare provider notified if unexplained myalgia, malaise, or hyperventilation occurs?

A

metformin (lactic acidosis)

69
Q

Which of the following drug class: medication pairs are CORRECT?
a. Rabeprazole: H2 Antagonist
b. Bismuth subsalicylate: Bulk-forming laxative
c. Metoclopramide: Prokinetic agent
d. Cimetidine: Anticholinergic

70
Q

(SATA) Which of the following are appropriate monitoring parameters for digoxin?
a. Renal function
b. Potassium
c. AST/ALT
d. ECG

A

a, b, d (baseline and periodic SCr, electrolyte disturbances [K/Mg], ECG, confusion/depression)

71
Q

Contraindications to fibrate therapy include which of the following?
a. TG > 500 mg/dL
b. Myocardial infarction
c. Severe renal disease
d. Anemia

A

c (or gallbladder disease/severe hepatic dysfunction)

72
Q

One of the major side effects of bile acid sequestrants is:
a. Elevated liver function enzymes
b. Myopathy
c. Constipation
d. Increased glucose levels

73
Q

(SATA) Which of the following are indications for the use of estradiol?
a. Treatment of osteoporosis
b. Treatment of vasomotor symptoms
c. Treatment of abnormal uterine bleeding
d. Prevention of osteoporosis

74
Q

Which of the following agents is an antitussive?
a. Guaifenesin
b. Promethazine
c. Benzonatate
d. Tiotropium

75
Q

The Calvert formula, which estimated the dose needed to achieve a desired AUC target, is frequently used to dose which of the following medications?
a. Cisplatin
b. Doxorubicin
c. Carboplatin
d. Methotrexate

76
Q

Which of the following is NOT a documented adverse effect with warfarin therapy?
a. Purple toe syndrome
b. Headache
c. Skin necrosis
d. Bleeding

77
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to treat hepatitis C virus?
a. Stribild
b. Triumeq
c. Reyataz
d. Harvoni

78
Q

(SATA) Which of the following statements about tamoxifen are true?
a. Hot flashes are a common adverse reaction
b. Tamoxifen increases bone loss in postmenopausal women
c. Tamoxifen is used for the treatment and prevention of breast cancer
d. Tamoxifen has no drug interactions

79
Q

Which of the following has a warning against concomitant use with opioids, as this may result in profound sedation, respiratory depression, coma, and death?
a. Modafinil
b. Amphetamine/dextroamphetamine
c. Lorazepam
d. Phenytoin

80
Q

Vytorin is a combination of which drugs?

A

Simvastatin and ezetimibe

81
Q

Which of the following is not a loop diuretic?
a. Exenatide
b. Torsemide
c. Furosemide
d. Bumetanide

82
Q

Which of the following agents would not require a dosage adjustment in an 86-year-old woman with a CCl < 30 mL/min
a. Zantac
b. Reglan
c. Pepcid
d. Imodium

83
Q

Which of the following counseling points concerning Tums tablets is FALSE?
a. Tablets should be chewed before swallowing
b. Patients should consult their doctors if symptoms persist for longer than 2 weeks
c. Tums may be taken at the same time as ciprofloxacin
d. Patients should not take more than 7,000 mg of calcium carbonate daily

84
Q

In combination with statin, ezetimibe can:
a. Lower TG by an additional 35%
b. Increase HDL by an additional 30%
c. Lower TC by an additional 50%
d. Lower LDL by an additional 25%

85
Q

Which of the following drugs should be avoided with concurrent serotonergic drugs
a. Vfend
b. Zyvox
c. Acyclovir
d. Cleocin

86
Q

Which of the following is an example of a tricyclic antidepressant?
a. Ziprasidone
b. Mirtazipine
c. Nortriptyline
d. Escitalopram

87
Q

(SATA) Which of the following are common adverse reactions of high-dose glucocorticosteroids?
a. Weight loss
b. Glucose intolerance
c. Gastrointestinal irritation
d. Severe rash

88
Q

Which of the following is used to treat breast cancers that specifically overexpress the oncogene HER2/neu
a. Trastuzumab
b. Gemcitabine
c. Imatinib
d. Docetaxel

89
Q

Which of the following drugs causes a major drug interaction when coadministered with warfarin?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Atenolol
c. Amiodarone
d. Amlodipine

90
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sitagliptin?

A

Inhibits di-peptidyl peptidase-4

91
Q

Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) genotyping may identify individuals at high risk for toxicity for which of the following agents?
a. Trastuzumab
b. Methotrexate
c. Mercaptopurine
d. Cytarabine

92
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT considered a reason to discontinue atorvastatin therapy?
a. Developing active liver disease
b. Normal LFT values
c. Development of severe myopathy
d. Becoming pregnant during therapy

93
Q

(SATA) Which of the following are contraindications to the use of estrogen-containing products?
a. Severe liver disease
b. Severe dry skin
c. Active thromboembolic disorders
d. History of diabetes

94
Q

Which drug should not be given simultaneously with calcium carbonate, a divalent cation?
a. Cleocin
b. Z-pak
c. Levaquin
d. Vancomycin

95
Q

Insulin glargine can only be mixed with which of the following insulin in the same syringe?
a. Regular
b. Detemir
c. NPH
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above
Regular or short-acting can be mixed with NPH, but basal insulins cannot be mixed with anything

96
Q

Which of the following antihistamines should you counsel patients to separate from administration of an antacid due to reduced absorption?
a. Hydroxyzine
b. Promethazine
c. Fexofenadine
d. Loratidine

97
Q

Which is the recommended site of injection of an epinephrine auto-injector for the treatment of anaphylaxis?
a. Abdomen
b. Upper arm
c. Chest
d. Mid-thigh

98
Q

Pyridoxine is frequently coadministered with _________ to prevent peripheral neuropathy
a. Itraconazole
b. Zovirax
c. Rifampin
d. Isoniazid

99
Q

(SATA) Which of the following medications may cause weight gain?
a. Insulin detemir
b. Pioglitazone
c. Glyburide
d. Metformin

100
Q

Which of the following inhalers contains a long-acting beta-2 agonist and an anticholinergic?
a. Stiolto Respimat
b. Advair
c. Pulmicort
d. Breo Ellipta

A

a. Stiolto Respimat (tiotropium/olodaterol)

Advair is fluticasone/salmeterol, Pulmicort is budesonide, Breo Ellipta is fluticasone/vilanterol

Therapeutics (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions