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MANCHESTER YEAR 3 > Progress Test > Flashcards

Progress Test Flashcards

1
Q

What do the following symptoms raise suspicion of:

self-mutilating behaviours e.g. headbanging, nail biting in someone with learning difficulties and a PMH of gout?

A

Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome

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2
Q

What are the symptoms of central retinal vein occlusion?

A

Sudden painless loss of vision

Severe retinal haemorrhage on fundoscopy - appearance is compared to a cheese and tomato pizza.

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3
Q

What metabolic derangement does pyloric stenosis cause?

A

Hypocholeraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis

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4
Q

What does a blood film look like post splenectomy?

A

Howell-jolly bodies
Pappenheimer bodies
Target cells
Irregular contracted erythrocytes

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5
Q

What is the definition of chronic insomnia?

A

3 months of trouble falling asleep at least 3 nights per week

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6
Q

In what patient should ovarian cancer be suspected? What is the tumour marker associated?

A

Any older female with new onset nonspecific abdominal pain or bloating
CA125

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7
Q

At what age should a child be competent with a spoon and NOT spill a cup ?

A

2 years old

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8
Q

What are the symptoms of croup? Who does it typically affect and when?

A

Barking cough, worse at night, fever and coryzal symptoms

Presents around 2 years old and more common in autumn months
Parainfluenza is the main cause

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9
Q

What does herpes simplex keratitis show on fluorescein eye stain?

A

Dendritic ulcer

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10
Q

What is duodenal atresia?

A

neonatal bilious vomiting with a double bubble sign on abdominal xray

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11
Q

What is the most common cause of hepatocellular carcinoma (i) worldwide (ii) in europe?

A

(i) hep B

(ii) hep C

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12
Q

What is a common cause of tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Burkitts lymphoma

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13
Q

What is the only method of contraception which has a proven link to weight gain?

A

depo provera

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14
Q

What are the features of SVC obstruction?

A

Dyspnoea, swelling of face neck and arms - conjunctival and periorbital oedema
Headache, often worse in mornings
Visual disturbance
Pulseless jugular venous distension

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15
Q

What are the 4 stagings of ovarian cancer?

A 
I = confined to ovary
II = outside ovary but within pelvis
III = outside pelvis but within abdomen
IV = distant metastasis
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16
Q

What should be offered to woman at 34 weeks pregnancy with pre-eclampsia?

A

Delivery once a course of corticosteroids has been completed

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17
Q

What 2 diseases can exhibit genetic anticipation?

A

Huntington’s and myotonic dystrophy

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18
Q

What disease should be considered in young females who develop AKI after initiation of ACEi?

A

fibromuscular dysplasia

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19
Q

What incision is used for a pancreatectomy?

A

rooftop incision

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20
Q

What causes a subdural haemorrhage?

A

Damage to bridging veins between cortex and venous sinuses

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21
Q

What is the cause of gastroenteritis from rice?

A

bacillus cereus

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22
Q

What are axillary freckles indicative of?

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1

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23
Q

What drug can cause aplastic anaemia? What are the features of aplastic anaemia?

A

Phenytoin

- normocytic anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia

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24
Q

What features are on ECG of a patient with Wolff Parkinson White syndrome?

A

Short PR interval
Wide QRS with delta wave
L or R axis deviation

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25
Q

How do you manage bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia?

A

Spironolactone

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26
Q

What are examples of atypical antipsychotics? What side effects can they cause?

A

Clozapine (agranulocytosis), olanzapine (dyslipidaemia), risperidone etc
- weight gain

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27
Q

What drug can cause (I) yellow green vision (ii) blue tinted vision?

A

(i) digoxin

(ii) sildenafil

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28
Q

What is a monteggia fracture?

A

dislocation of proximal radio-ulnar joint in association with an ulnar fracture. Commonly seen in children aged 4-10 years

Manteggia ulnar = man united

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29
Q

What is a Galeazzi fracture?

A

Fracture of distal radius with associated dislocation of distal radio-ulnar joint

Galeazzi radius = galaxy rangers

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30
Q

What are the 4 stages of the Keith-Wagener classification of hypertensive retinopathy?

A 
I = arteriolar narrowing and tortuosity. Increased light reflex - silver wiring
II = arteriovenous nipping
III = cotton wool exudates, flame and blot haemorrhages
IV = pappiloedema
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31
Q

What is used to reverse heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate

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32
Q

What are side effects of tricyclics?

A

Drowsy, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, lengthening of QT interval

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33
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A
  • otalgia
  • unilateral serous otitis media
  • nasal obstruction, discharge and/or epistaxis
  • cranial nerve palsies
  • cervical lymphadenopathy
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34
Q

What should patients with T1DM or autoimmune thyroid disease be screened for at diagnosis?

A

Coeliac disease

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35
Q

What is the first line surgical intervention for women where uterine atony is main/only cause of haemorrhage?

A

Intrauterine balloon tamponade

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36
Q

If a woman has a small unruptured (<35mm) ectopic pregnancy with no visible heartbeat, a serum B-hCG level of <1500, no intrauterine pregnancy and no pain, what is the first line treatment?

A

Methotrexate

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37
Q

What are the different depths of burns?

A

SUPERFICIAL EPIDERMAL (1st degree) = red and painful
PARTIAL THICKNESS, sup dermal (2nd degree) = pale pink, painful and blistered
PARTIAL THICKNESS deep dermal (2nd degree) = typically white but may have non-blanchingerythema, reduced sensation
FULL THICKNESS (3rd degree) = white/brown/black. No blisters and no pain

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38
Q

What are the symptoms of Edwards syndrome?

A

Baby born with micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping of fingers

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39
Q

When do people typically get otosclerosis? What are the associated symptoms?

A

20-40 years

- conductive deafness, tinnitus, normal tympanic membrane and positive family history

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40
Q

What is a typical presentation of placental abruption?

A
  • shock out of keeping with visible loss
  • pain constant
  • tense, tender uterus
  • normal lie and presentation
  • foetal heart - absent/distressed
  • coagulation problems
  • beware = pre-eclampsia, DIC, anuria
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41
Q

What is a typical presentation of placental praevia?

A
  • shock in proportion with visible loss
  • no pain
  • uterus NOT tender
  • lie and presentation may be abnormal
  • foetal heart = normal
  • coagulation problems rare
  • small bleeds before large
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42
Q

What is the most common cause of headache in children?

A

Migraine

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43
Q

How does lidocaine work?

A

blockage of Na channels

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44
Q

What is a cause of red eye that is NOT painful?

A

episcleritis

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45
Q

What is Kussmaul’s sign? What is the significance?

A

Raised JVP that doesn’t fall with inspiration

- it differentiates cardiac tamponade and constrictive pericarditis. It occurs in constrictive pericarditis

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46
Q

What is a key risk factor for development of avascular necrosis of femoral head?

A

Long term steroid use

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47
Q

What helps to accelerate return of normal bowel function after abdominal surgery?

A

epidural analgesia

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48
Q

What is the acute management of supraventricular tachycardia?

A

vagal manoeuvres e.g. valsalva
IV adenosine (verapimil in asthmatics)
electrical cardioversion

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49
Q

What is the treatment of primary open-angle glaucoma?

A

1st line = prostaglandins analogue eye drop (LANTANOPROST)
2nd line = B blocker (TIMOLOL)
3rd = laser or surgery may be tried

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50
Q

What is the T2DM BP target when (i) no organ damage (ii) end-organ damage present?

A

(i) less than 140/80 mmHg

(ii) less than 130/80 mmHg

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51
Q

In T1DM, what are the blood glucose targets on (i) waking (ii) before meals and other times of the day?

A

(i) 5-7 mmol/L

(ii) 4-7 mmol/L

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52
Q

What is the regime for the contraceptive patch?

A

Wear one patch a week for 3 weeks and don’t wear a patch on week 4

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53
Q

What vaccinations are required for COPD patients?

A

annual influenza

one-off pneumococcal

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54
Q

What is the difference between lichen (i) planus (ii) sclerosus?

A

(i) purple, pruritic, papular, polygonal rash on flexor surfaces. Wickham’s striae over surface. Oral involvement common
(ii) itchy white spots typically seen on vulva of elderly women

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55
Q

What is the best measure of ovulation?

A

measure progesterone 7 days before period
e.g. in a 28 day cycle - on day 21
on a 35 day cycle - on day 28

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56
Q

What does hypercalcaemia do to the QT interval?

A

Shortens it

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57
Q

What are the side effects of (i) metformin (ii) sulfonylureas (glimerpiride) (iii) glitazones (pioglitazone)?

A

(i) GI upset and lactic acidosis
(ii) hypos, increased appetite and weight, SIADH, liver dysfunction
(iii) weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, fractures

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58
Q

How would you describe basal cell carcinomas? Where are they localised to on the body?

A

Pearly shaped rodent ulcers with telangiectasia that do NOT metastasise
- localised to face, scalp, nose or ears

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59
Q

What cohort of patients are at an increased risk of developing squamous cell carcinomas?

A

those who are immunosuppressed

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60
Q

What is an indication for surgery in bronchiectasis?

A

localised disease

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61
Q

How is coeliac diagnosed?

A

Using IgA TTG antibodies

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62
Q

What is the management for degenerative cervical myelopathy?

A

urgently refer for assessment by specialist spinal services. Decompressive surgery is only effective treatment

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63
Q

What test is used to test for achilles tendon rupture?

A

Simmonds test

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64
Q

What are risk factors for ovarian cancer?

A

FHx = mutations of BRCA1 or 2
Many ovulations e.g. late menopause or early menarche, nullparity

  • if ovarian cancer is suspected measure CA125 and if elevated perform urgent USS of abdo + pelvis
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65
Q

When should young people (0-24 years) be referred for immediate specialist assessment for leukaemia?

A

Unexplained petechiae or hepatosplenomegaly

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66
Q

In what population of patients are antioxidant dietary supplements NOT recommended?

A

smokers

- beta carotene can increase risk of lung cancer

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67
Q

Should pneumococcal vaccine be given before an elective splenectomy? If so, when?

A

Give 2 weeks before surgery

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68
Q

Where are diverticula most commonly found?

A

sigmoid colon

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69
Q

What are the 6 tests to confirm brain death?

A 
pupillary reflex
corneal reflex
occulovestibular reflex
cough reflex
absent response to supraorbital pressure
no spontaneous respiratory effort
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70
Q

What are stress ulcers in Burns patients referred to as?

A

Curlingo ulcer - may cause haematemesis

71
Q

How do you treat an inguinal hernia in children (i) under 6 weeks old (ii) under 6 months (iii) under 6 years?

A

(i) correct within 2 days
(ii) correct within 2 weeks
(iii) correct within 2 months

72
Q

What is the treatment for prophylaxis of migraines?

A

topiramate or propranolol

- avoid propranolol in asthmatics

73
Q

What is ROSIER and what is it used for?

A

Recognition of stroke in emergency room is used in the initial differentiation of acute stroke from stroke mimics

74
Q

What is seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

Inflammatory reaction to malassezia furfur

75
Q

What is the most common symptom in children with Crohns?

A

Abdominal pain

76
Q

What is the most common inherited thrombophilia?

A

factor V leiden

77
Q

What is the difference in presentation of transposition of great arteries and tetralogy of fallot?

A

Both are cyanotic heart diseases but TGA presents within the first days of life and TOF presents at 1-2 months

78
Q

What is the grading of the Salter Harris system for paediatric fractures involving the growth plate?

A 
I = fracture through physis only (xray often normal)
II = fracture through physis and metaphysis 
III = fracture through physis and metaphysis to include the joint
IV = fracture involving physis, metaphysis and epiphysis 
V = crush injury involving physis (xray may resemble type I)
79
Q

What is the difference in dosage of atorvastatin for primary prevention and secondary prevention of CVD?

A

Primary is 20mg whereas secondary is 80mg

80
Q

What effect can amiodarone have on the skin?

A

makes it a grey skin appearance

81
Q

Following possible exposure of rabies what is the management?

A

immunoglobulin and vaccination

82
Q

In what cohort of patients is pioglitazone contraindicated in and why?

A

Heart failure as it can cause fluid retention

83
Q

What is an umbilical granuloma? What is the management?

A

Overgrowth of tissue which occurs during healing process of umbilicus. Common in first weeks of life. A small red growth of tissue in the centre of the umbilicus that is usually wet and leaks small amounts of clear/yellow fluid
Treated by regular application of salt to the wound. 2nd line = cauterise with silver nitrate

84
Q

Under what age is a child always considered to be unable to consent for sexual intercourse?

A

under 13 years old

85
Q

What is clindamycin treatment associated with?

A

A high risk of c.diff infection

86
Q

How does posterior hip dislocation present?

A

shortened and internally rotated leg

87
Q

How do patients with syringomyelia present?

A

‘Cape-like’ (neck + arms) loss of sensation to temperature but preserved light touch, proprioception and vibration
- also get spastic weakness, paraesthesia, neuropathic pain, upgoing plantars and bowel and bladder dysfunction

88
Q

What are side effects of ethambutol? What is given alongside to prevent these occuring?

A

Optic neuropathy and development of colour blindness

- pyridoxine (B6) is given concurrently

89
Q

What can penicillamine cause in patients with Wilson’s disease?

A

Membranous glomerulonephropathy

90
Q

What are early signs of haemochromatosis?

A

fatigue, erectile dysfunction, arthralgia

91
Q

What is the adrenaline dose in patients aged 6 months to 6 years?

A

150 mcg (0.15ml in 1,000)

92
Q

What are the positive clinical and positive lab findings required for tumour lysis syndrome?

A

LAB:
- raised uric acid, potassium and phosphate
- low calcium
CLINICAL
- raised serum creatinine (1.5x upper limit of normal)
- cardiac arrhythmia/sudden death
- seizure

93
Q

What is Wernicke’s aphasia? What causes it?

A

Due to a lesion of the superior temporal gyrus

Patients are unable to produce fluent speech but comprehension and repetition is impaired

94
Q

What is the appropriate referral of a woman over 30 with an unexplained breast lump?

A

Suspected cancer pathway referral

95
Q

What are sinister signs in a headache which merit urgent CT head?

A

Reduction in consciousness and vomiting more than once

96
Q

How long can HIV post exposure prophylaxis be given after the event?

A

up to 72 hours

97
Q

What is the most effective analgesia in the acute management of renal colic?

A

Diclofenac IM

98
Q

What is marfans syndrome caused by?

A

A mutation in a protein called fibrillin 1

99
Q

What is Ziehl-neelsen stain typically used for?

A

To identify mycobacteria e.g. mycobacterium tuberculosis

100
Q

What is the rules for informing the DVLA after a provoked seizure?

A

Should inform them and await their guidance before driving again

101
Q

What are the signs of retinal detachment?

A

Peripheral curtain over vision and spider web flashing lights in vision

102
Q

What is cervical rib?

A

Compression of the thoracic outlet by the fibrous band of the rib can result in both neuro + circulatory compromise
When manual tasks are performed in which the hand works overhead the signs and symptoms will be maximal and this is the basis of the Adsons test

103
Q

What are the xray changes in osteoarthritis?

A

decreased joint space
subchondral sclerosis
subchondral cysts
osteophytes forming at joint margins

104
Q

What is the first line test for acromegaly?

A

Serum IGF levels

105
Q

When is antiretroviral therapy for HIV started?

A

At the time of diagnosis

106
Q

What is a major cardiac complication of kawasaki disease?

A

Coronary artery aneurysms and should be screened for with an echo

107
Q

What is an important complication of fluid resuscitation in young patients with DKA?

A

cerebral oedema

108
Q

What is Rosvigs sign in appendicitis?

A

RIF pain in palpation of LIF

109
Q

What is necrotising enterocolitis?

A

One of leading causes of death among premature infants. Initial symptoms include feeding intolerance, abdominal distension and bloody stools, which can quickly progress to abdominal discolouration, perforation and peritonitis

110
Q

What is the most common cause of constrictive pericarditis in the developing world?

A

TB

111
Q

What is the first step in neonatal resuscitation?

A

dry the baby, remove any wet towels and start the clock/note the time

112
Q

What can IBD cause?

A

pyoderma gangrenosum

113
Q

What is Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Seen sometimes in patients with syphillis following 1st IM benzylpenicillin dose. Fever rash and tachycardia
Typically occurs within a few hours of treatment. No treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required

114
Q

What are the features of Noonans syndrome?

A

Webbed neck, short stature, pectus excavatum, pulmonary stenosis

115
Q

What should an inferior MI and aortic regurgitation murmur raise the suspicion of?

A

Ascending aortic dissection

116
Q

What is West’s syndrome?

A

Infantile spasms (look like colic) and hypsarrhythmia on EEG

117
Q

After a change in dose of lithium, when should levels be checked?

A

a week later and 12 hours after last dose

118
Q

What is Dresslers syndrome?

A

tends to occur 2-6 weeks post MI

  • characterised by a combination of fever, pleuritic pain, pericardial effusion and raised ESR
  • treated with NSAIDs
119
Q

What is the commonest cause of stridor in neonates and children?

A

Laryngomalacia

120
Q

What are the symptoms of cardiac tamponade?

A

The Becks Triad

  • hypotension
  • muffled heart sounds
  • raised JVP
121
Q

What is the treatment for acute alcohol withdrawal?

A

1st line = chlordiazepoxide

Lorazepam is preferred in patients with hepatic failure

122
Q

What is the definition of gestational hypertension?

A

new onset HTN diagnosed after 20 weeks without significant proteinuria
Treatment = oral labetalol (contraindicated in asthma),
2nd line = nifedipine and methyldopa

123
Q

What is used in eclampsia?

A

IV magnesium sulphate

124
Q

In newly diagnosed adults with T1DM what should the first line insulin regime be?

A

A basal-bolus using twice daily insulin detemir

125
Q

What is the rules for patients taking methotrexate and contraception?

A

during and for at least 3 months after treatment in both men and women

126
Q

How does Turner’s syndrome present?

A

affects females, short stature, webbed neck, primary amenorrhoea, high arched palate, bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation of the aorta
- it has increased use of autoimmune diseases and Crohns disease

127
Q

What may cause bubbly urine?

A

enterovesic fistual

128
Q

What anaesthetic agent are people with myasthenia gravis resistant to?

A

suxamethonium

129
Q

What are the severities of COPD?

A

MILD stage 1 = FEV1 over 80% predicted
MODERATE stage 2 = FEV1 50-79% predicted
SEVERE stage 3 = FEV1 30-49% predicted
V.SEVERE stage 4 = FEV1 less than 30% predicted

130
Q

What is eczema herpeticum? How is it treated?

A

severe primary infection of skin by HSV 1 or 2
Most commonly seen in children with atopic eczema
- it is potentially life threatening so admit for IV aciclovir

131
Q

What tests should be done during management of TB?

A

LFTs should be checked prior to starting treatment and throughout
- visual acuity and renal function should also be checked prior to starting ethambutol

132
Q

What conditions are people with Downs syndrome at increased risk of developing?

A

Hypothyroid
T1DM
Subfertility
ALL

133
Q

What kind of crystals are found in pseudogout?

A

positively birefringent rhomboid shaped crystals

134
Q

What are the signs of a threatened miscarriage?

A

painless per-vaginal bleeding + a closed cervical os

135
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria triad for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A
  • 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss
  • dehydration
  • electrolyte imbalance
136
Q

How does biliary colic present?

A

Abdominal pain after eating, along with nausea and vomiting. Classically occurs after heavy meals. Pain in the abdomen that radiates to the intrascapular region

137
Q

What is post thrombotic syndrome?

A

Venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency
Painful heavy calves, pruritus, swelling, varicose veins and venous ulceration
Treatment = compression stockings and elevating leg

138
Q

For a diagnosis of PTSD, how long do symptoms have to be present?

A

for at least 1 month

139
Q

What are the 4 features of tetralogy of fallot?

A

VSD
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Pulmonary stenosis
Overriding aorta

140
Q

How do you differentiate between a red eye caused by (i) glaucoma (ii) uveitis?

A

(i) severe pain, haloes, ‘semi-dilated’ pupil

(ii) small, fixed oval pupil, ciliary flush

141
Q

How is long QT syndrome managed?

A

Avoid drugs which prolong
Beta blockers
Implantable cardioverter defibs in HIGH RISK cases

142
Q

What is subclavian steal syndrome?

A

Associated with stenosis or occlusion of the subclavian artery, proximal to the origin of the vertebral artery
As a result the increased metabolic needs of the arm then cause retrograde flow and symptoms of CNS vascular insufficiency

143
Q

What is the treatment for patients with obstructive urinary calculi and signs of infection?

A

Urgent renal decompression and IV antibiotics due to risk of sepsis

144
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis is a risk factor for?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

145
Q

Where is the pain in a patient who has common bile duct stones?

A

Epigastric rather than RUQ

146
Q

What can the concurrent use of methotrexate and trimethoprim cause?

A

Bone marrow suppression and severe/fatal pancytopaenia

147
Q

Briefly describe (i) Scarlet fever (ii) Measles (iii) Pityriasis rosea.

A

(i) Strawberry tongue, facial sparing
(ii) starting on the face and spreading to the body. Koplik spots
(iii) herald patch (usually on the trunk) followed by erythematous, oval scaly patches which follow characteristic distribution (fir-tree appearance)

148
Q

What test is used to diagnose a squint?

A

Corneal light reflection test

149
Q

What are the risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A 
Female sex (6x greater risk)
Breech presentation
Positive FHx
First born child
Oligohydramnios
Birth weight over 5kg
Congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity
150
Q

What can be seen in the urine of patients taking loop diuretics?

A

Hyaline casts

151
Q

What is used to calculate the volume of IV fluid required for resuscitation over the first 24 hours after burns?

A

Parklands formula

= 4 x mass in kg x % of body burned

152
Q

How does Henoch-Schonlein Purpura classically present?

A

Abdominal pain, arthritis, haematuria and purpuric rash over buttocks and extensor surfaces of arms and legs

153
Q

What is the most common cause of post partum haemorrhage? How is it treated?

A

Uterine atony
Bimanual uterine compression
2nd line = IV oxytocin and/or ergometrine
3rd = IM carboprost, then intramyometrial
4th = rectal misoprostol
5th = surgical intervention (balloon tamponade)

154
Q

What are the target O2 sats in carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

100%

155
Q

What is the grading system for hepatic encephalopathy?

A 
I = irritability
II = confusion, inappropriate behaviour
III = incoherent, restless
IV = coma
156
Q

What acid base imbalance does aspirin cause?

A

respiratory alkalosis

157
Q

What are the side effects of (i) tamulosin (ii) finasteride?

A

(i) dizzy, postural hypotension, dry mouth, depression

(ii) erectile dysfunction, reduced libido, ejaculation problems, gynaecomastia

158
Q

What is the first line antibiotic treatment for syphillis?

A

IM benzylpenicillin (alternative is doxycycline)

159
Q

What is the PHQ-9 score?

A

9 question survey used to establish the severity of depression

160
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd line treatment for MRSA?

A 
1st = vancomycin
2nd = linezolid
161
Q

What is the management of HIV+ pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?

A

co-trimoxazole

162
Q

What is the triad of symptoms in gastric volvulus?

A

Vomiting
Pain
Failed attempts to pass NG tube

163
Q

If a patient makes a good response to antidepressant therapy, how long should they continue treatment for?

A

At least 6 months to reduce risk of relapse

164
Q

What bacteria causes syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

165
Q

What is the most common complication of a myomectomy?

A

adhesions

166
Q

What is the most important treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma?

A

eradicate H. pylori

167
Q

What is the most common cause of epididymitis in males over 35?

A

E.coli

168
Q

Describe (i) varicoceles (ii) epididymal cysts.

A

(i) more common on left side. Described as a ‘bag of worms’ and associated with subfertility
(ii) are separate from the body of the testicle and often found posterior to the testicle

169
Q

What is the treatment for a pneumothorax (i) less than 1cm (ii) 1-2cm (iii) greater than 2cm?

A

(i) if not severely SoB then admit and observe with O2
(ii) aspirate
(iii) chest drain insertion

170
Q

What does erratic blood glucose control, bloating and vomiting suggest?

A

Gastroparesis

171
Q

What is Trousseau’s sign?

A

Carpopedal spasm caused by inflating the BP cuff to a level above systolic BP in patients with hypocalcaemia

172
Q

What are the symptoms of hypocalcaemia?

A

Perioral paraesthesia, impaired orientation, anxiety, seizures, increased muscle tone and skin abnormalities

173
Q

What are 2 distinctive features of Kartageners syndrome?

A

recurrent chest infections and subfertility

MANCHESTER YEAR 3 (11 decks)

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