Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MANCHESTER YEAR 3 > PASSMED + MISCELLANEOUS > Flashcards

PASSMED + MISCELLANEOUS Flashcards

1
Q

Which immunoglobulin is first to be secreted in response to an infection?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of bacteria is E. coli?

A

aerobic gram-negative rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretics (furosemide)?

A

Prevents reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and potassium by inhibition of the cotransporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle. This causes significant diuresis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What drugs exhibit zero order kinetics? What is zero order kinetics?

A

phenytoin, alcohol and salicylates
- drugs in which the clearance rate depends on an easily saturated enzyme system. As soon as the system is saturated, the rate of clearance plateaus, and does not vary no matter how much drug is present. This results in a constant rate of elimination predisposing to high levels of the drug and toxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the following associated with; (i) HLA-A3 (ii) HLA-B5 (iii) HLA- DR3 (iv) HLA-DR4 (v) HLA-B27?

A

(i) haemochromatosis
(ii) Behcet’s disease
(iii) dermatitis herpetiformis
(iv) diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis
(v) ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the investigation of choice to confirm a diagnosis of bronchiectasis?

A

High resolution computerised tomography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the interior mesenteric vein drain into?

A

Splenic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which part of the jugular venous waveform is associated with the closure of the tricuspid valve?

A

c wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name a common Parametric test.

A

Students T-test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which pathogen is responsible for the majority of cases of croup?

A

Parainfluenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where in the atrium is the atrial myxoma most likely to be attached?

A

fossa ovalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the blood supply of the AV node in the majority of patients?

A

In 80% of patients, the atrioventricular node is supplied by the right coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which cells express IgE receptors on their cell surface?

A

Mast cells and basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common type of colorectal carcinoma?

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the blood supply of the parathyroid gland?

A

the super and inferior thyroid arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the tonsillar fossa?

A

glossopharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What cells mediate hyperacute organ rejection?

A

B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the risk factors for developing active tuberculosis?

A
  • silicosis
  • chronic renal failure
  • HIV positive
  • solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression
  • intravenous drug use
  • haematological malignancy
  • anti-TNF treatment
  • previous gastrectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the paramesonephric (Mullerian) duct give rise to?

A

gives rise to the fallopian tubes, uterus and upper 1/3 of the vagina in females, whereas it regresses in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define (i) gravidity (ii) parity.

A

(i) total number of confirmed pregnancies, regardless of the outcome
(ii) number of births post 24 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What supplements are women advised to take during/pre-pregnancy?

A

vitamin D and folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is defined as (i) conception (ii) EDD?

A

(i) 2 weeks after the first day of LMP with a regular 28 day cycle
(ii) naegele’s rule = add 9 months + 7 days of LMP (pregnancy 38 wks from conception and 40 from LMP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When is a trisomy 21 screen performed? What defects are associated?

A

At 8-14 weeks

  • prevalence increases with increasing age, most are secondary to non-disjunction of chromosome 21 at meiosis
  • 46% have VSD or ASD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the second most common kind of trisomy? Describe its features.

A

trisomy 18 (Edward’s syndrome)

  • survival beyond 1 year is rare
  • small chin, low-set ears, rocher bottom feet, VSD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What advice is given to women with pre-existing diabetes prior to conception?

A
  • weight loss (reduce BMI less than 30)
  • folic acid 5mg OD in month prior + to 13 wks
  • Alcohol/smoking/exercise and diet
  • Screening: retinal and nephropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is shoulder dystocia managed?

A
  1. McRoberts manoeuvre

2. Episiotomy allows for better access for internal manoeuvres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the (i) risk factors (ii) diagnostic criteria for gestational diabetes?

A

(i) BMI more than 30, prev macrosomic baby (more than 4.5kg), previous GDM, family origin with high prevalnce DM (S. Asian, Black Carribean, Middle eastern)
(ii) fasting glucose more than 5.6 mmol/L
2 hr plasma glucose more than 7.8 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the symptoms of pre-eclampsia?

A
  • severe headache, especially frontal
  • problems with vision; blurring and flashing
  • severe pain just below ribs (epigastric, RUQ)
  • vomiting and nausea
  • sudden swelling of FACE, hands, or feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What increases risk of pre-eclampsia? What are these woman advised to take?

A
  • hypertensive disease in previous pregnancy, CKD, autoimmune, DM, chronic HTN
  • take 75 mg aspirin daily from 12 wks gestation until delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What should pregnant females with chronic hypertension have their BP medication switched to? Should they also add anything else?

A
  • switch to labetolol and/or methyldopa

- add 75mg aspirin from 12 wks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is pregnancy induced hypertension managed?

A

Methyldopa or nifedipine (NOT labetolol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is eclampsia? How is it managed?

A

tonic-clonic seizure + pre-eclampsia
- an obstetric emergency
IV magnesium sulphate to treat and prevent seizures
- stop if RR less than 12 or tendon reflex lost or urine output less than 20ml/hr
- if develop toxicity give calcium glucoronate infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are 3 dangerous causes of antepartum haemorrhage?

A
  1. abruption
  2. placenta praevia
  3. vasa paevia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis strongly associated with? What is the initial diagnostic investigation?

A

Ulcerative colitis

- MRCP and shows a beaded appearance of the bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What 3 histological features suggest carcinoma in all sites of the body?

A

Nuclear enlargement
Hyperchromasia
Pleomorphism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the first line treatment for an overactive bladder with urge incontinence?

A

Immediate release anticholinergics (oral oxybutynin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the initial treatment for a paralytic ileus?

A

making patient nil by mouth and inserting a nasogastric tube

38
Q

What vessel may be a major source of haemorrhage in peptic ulcer disease?

A

Gastroduodenal artery as it runs posterior to 1st and 2nd parts of duodenum

39
Q

What does polycystic ovarian syndrome cause?

A

Increased ratio of LH:FSH, plus oligomenorrhoea and often overweight BMI
- sometimes pts have a mild elevation in prolactin

40
Q

What is the use of anti tissue transglutaminase?

A

to diagnose coeliacs

41
Q

What are the different symptomatic presentations between and duodenal ulcer and a gastric ulcer?

A

Duodenal tend to be made worse with stress and pain is worse at night, radiating into the back. It is relieved by eating and so patients tend to put weight on
- gastric is made worse with eating and so patients often lose weight

42
Q

Describe the symptoms of inflammatory back pain (IBP).

A

Normally improves with activity and not relieved by rest, mechanical pain is the opposite
IBP can wake pt in early hours of the morning + sacroilieitis can radiate to the thigh
- morning stiffness is specific for IBP but not persistent daytime stiffness

43
Q

How should terminal restlessness be managed?

A

midazolam

- either PRN subcut injections or continuous subcut infusions via syringe driver

44
Q

In early Alzheimers, where are brain changes most likely to be found?

A

temporal lobes

45
Q

What is the treatment of choice in pts with broad QRS complexes following tricyclic antidepressant overdose?

A

IV sodium bicarbonate

46
Q

What drug can cause pulmonary fibrosis? What symptoms arise?

A

Amiodarone

- doesn’t cause clubbing. Patients present with cough and dyspnoea, fever and raised WCC and raised ESR not uncommon

47
Q

What is the MoA of ADH?

A

stimulates AQP-2 in apical membrane of collecting duct which promotes water reabsorption
- leading to dilutional hyponatraemia

48
Q

What is autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease associated with?

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

49
Q

Define (i) postmyalgia rheumatica (ii) osteomalacia

A

(I) pain and stiffness in shoulder muscles in pts over 65. Inflammation of bones and joints, treat with steroids
(ii) “soft bones” weak, more likely to bend and break. Low vit D and low calcium

50
Q

What drug do antacid reduce the absorption of?

A

ACE-I

51
Q

What is the inguinal ligament formed by?

A

external oblique aponeurosis

52
Q

Describe what the findings of Rinnes and Webers test indicate? (in terms of sensorineural or conductive deafness)

A

WEBERS: (tuning fork on forehead)
- unilateral conductive hearing loss = louder in deaf (affected ear)
- unilateral sensorineural = sound louder in normal ear
RINNE if louder in air than bone = positive test
- negative rinne = conductive hearing loss

53
Q

What are the features of a hyatidiform mole?

A
  • bleeding in the first and early second trimester
  • exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy
  • uterus large for dates
  • very high serum levels hCG
  • hypertension and hyperthyroid
54
Q

What is calcitonin clinically used to screen for?

A

medullary cancer recurrence

55
Q

What is the most common cause of travellers diarrhoea?

A

E.coli

56
Q

How much B12 does the body store? How long does it last for?

A

2-3 mg that last for 2-4 years

57
Q

What is sick euthyroid?

A

presence of low TSH, T3 and/or T4 with a normal functioning thyroid
- seen during periods of illness but recovers when illness is over and so is treatment supportive

58
Q

What is a contraindication for use of the oral contraceptive pill?

A

migraine with aura

59
Q

What are the levels of methylmalonic acid like in B12 and folate deficiency?

A

raised in B12 and normal in folate

60
Q

What is used to manage opioid (heroin) overdose?

A

naloxone

61
Q

What are the features of acne rosacea? What is the treatment?

A
  • affects nose, cheeks and forehead
  • flushing is often the first symptom
  • telangiectasia is common
  • later develops into persistent erythema with papules and pustules
  • rhinophyma
  • ocular involvement (blepharitis)

treat with topical metronidazole, if severe symptoms use antibiotics (oxytetracycline)

62
Q

What is the recommended treatment for asystole?

A

epinephrine

63
Q

What is the treatment for (i) bacterial vaginosis (ii) trichomoniasis (ii) gonorrhoea?

A

(i) oral metronidazole
(ii) oral metronidazole
(iii) IM ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin

64
Q

If a patient is on methotrexate, what drug should be avoided?

A

trimethoprim

65
Q

What is the treatment for a post menopausal woman with a hip fracture?

A

biphosphonates (risedronate)

66
Q

What are the 3 indications for the use of electroconvulsive therapy?

A
  1. catatonia
  2. prolonged/severe manic episode
  3. severe depression that is life threatening
67
Q

What is schistosoma infection associated with?

A

risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of bladder

68
Q

What are the triad of symptoms in Meigs syndrome?

A
  • benign ovarian tumour (fibroma)
  • ascites
  • pleural effusion
69
Q

What is kaposi’s sarcoma caused by?

A

HHV-8

70
Q

What are the risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

A
  • prone sleeping
  • parental smoking
  • bed sharing
  • hyperthermia and head covering
  • prematurity
71
Q

When is pulsus alternans present?

A

patients with heart failure

third heart sound is a feature of LHF

72
Q

What is the most common ovarian cancer?

A

serous carcinoma

73
Q

What is premature ovarian failure (POM) defined as?

A

cessation of menses for 1 year before the age of 40

74
Q

What are the following tumour markers used for; (i) CA125 (ii) CA 19-9 (ii) CA 15-3 (iv) AFP (v) CEA (vi) S-100 (vii) bombesin

A

(i) ovarian cancer
(ii) pancreatic cancer
(iii) breast cancer
(iv) hepatocellular carcinoma
(v) colorectal cancer
(vi) melanoma, schwannomas
(vii) small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer, neuroblastoma

75
Q

What is the SSRI of choice in children and adolescents?

A

fluoxetine

76
Q

What are the 3 main side effects of GTN?

A

hypotension
tachycardia
headache

77
Q

How long is the incubation period of ebola?

A

2-21 days

78
Q

What does a painful third nerve palsy indicate?

A

posterior communicating artery aneurysm

79
Q

What is the MoA of loperamide?

A

reduces gastric motility through stimulation of opioid receptors

80
Q

What does any patient undergoing hip replacement require as DVT prophylaxis?

A

TED stockings and dalteparin sodium started at least 6 hrs post op

81
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus present in?

A 
cardiac tamponade
(jerky pulse = hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy)
82
Q

What is a main side effect of isoniazid?

A

can cause B6 deficiency causing peripheral neuropathy

83
Q

What is the treatment for tonsilitis?

A

either phenoxymethylpenicillin or erythromycin if patient is allergic to penicillin

  • a 7 or 10 day course
84
Q

What is the initial imaging modality of choice for suspected achilles tendon rupture?

A

ultrasound

85
Q

What can SVC obstruction cause?

A

visual disturbances such as blurred vision

86
Q

What bacterial organism are sickle cell patients prone to salmonella osteomyelitis?

A

salmonella osteomyelitis

87
Q

What antibiotic used to treat UTIs should be avoided in pregnancy? And why?

A

Trimethoprim

- folate antagonist

88
Q

What causes hyperthyroid followed by hypothyroid?

A

Sub acute thyroiditis

- DeQuervain’s thyroiditis

89
Q

What condition would you see hypokalaemia associated with hypertension?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism

90
Q

What is the treatment methods for stable angina?

A

1st line = beta blocker or calcium channel blocker

  • then use a combo of the two, when combined only use these Ca blockers (nifedipine, amlodipine, felodipine)
  • if pt can’t tolerate either of these, use one of the following as monotherapy: long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, ranolazine
91
Q

What is used for the long term prophylaxis of cluster headaches?

A

verapamil

92
Q

What are symptoms of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • bleeding from berry aneurysm in circle of willis

- sudden onset headache reaching maximum severity in seconds to minutes (thunderclap headache) + meningitic symptoms

MANCHESTER YEAR 3 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions