Programming/Design 36% Flashcards
1
Q
Are programming services part of the scope of Architects basic services?
A
No. the owner will either provide the architect with a program or hire the Architect to perform programming services as an additional service
2
Q
What are three important duties of the Architect during administration of programming services
A
- confirm scope and intent of project with Owner
- Prepare a schedule for programming services, including milestone dates
- Submit programming documents to the owner for evaluation and approval
3
Q
How can the Architect determine the values, goals and objectives of the owner and users during the programming phase?
A
- conduct a visioning session to discuss and prioritize values and goals
- Meet with the owner to confirm and finalize the priorities
- Identify and evaluate the constraints and opportunities that will have an impact, such as government requirements, finances, and access, etc.
4
Q
After reviewing and analyzing the project data during programming, what should the Architect do next?
A
- Identify any major unresolved programming issues
- Make recommendations for solutions to the unresolved programming issues to the Owner
- Prepare and present initial report of findings for the Owners review
5
Q
What is included in the architects final program document?
A
- executive summary
- value and goal statements
- facts, data analysis, and conclusions
- relationship and flow diagrams
- matrices identifying space allocations, relationship, functions and sizes
- special requirements and equipment such as HVAC, plumbing, acoustics, furnishings, etc.
6
Q
what information is collected during programming? and how?
A
Architect collects:
reports of existing facilities, site surveys applicable codes, historical documents and planning standards
Architect conducts:
site visit to existing facilities and/or site with the owner to prepare a space inventory, identify traffic and circulation patterns and use levels.
7
Q
What are three ways the architect determines the specific space requirements of the project during programming?
A
- identify all required spaces and establish sizes and relationships
- Establish space efficiency factors (ratio of net SF to gross SF)
- Document particular space requirements such as HVAC, plumbing, lighting, acoustical furnishings, equipment or security needs.
8
Q
What are considered additional services during the programming phase?
A
- Multiple Site Evaluation
- Site suitability and planning
- Master planning
- Preliminary design and cost estimating
- Scheduling and market analysis
- Detailed existing facility evaluation
- Environmental suitability
- Services in support of owner’s other consultants
9
Q
Site Evaluation and planning is considered an additional service during programming. What are the Architects first steps during this process?
A
prepare a schedule for a site evaluation and planning services that identifies milestones dates, services furnished by the architect, and completion of documentation provided by the architect
10
Q
Name five services that could be specifically designated as the Architects Responsibility during Site Evaluation and planning.
A
- program analysis - area required for building, parking, circulation, open space, etc.
- Site analysis and selection - existing conditions study, assist owner in selecting site.
- Cultural factor analysis - research history of the site and analyze impact of development
- Environmental studies - determine impact of project on environment
- Economic analysis - impact on development cost
11
Q
Who is responsible for all decisions regarding design during programming?
A
The Owner.
The Architect is mainly responsible for collecting design information and presenting the data to the owner for review and decision.
12
Q
The Architect and owner are in disagreement on which design layout would be most appropriate for a project. Who makes the final decision?
A
The Owner.
The Architect mainly provides information and data support a certain layout or design. it is ultimately the Owner’s decision for which design to choose.
13
Q
When should the budget for the project as well as the cost estimate be prepared during programming?
A
The architect can supply a preliminary cost estimate as an additional service at the end of program development.
Ideally the Owner provides the architect with the budget at the beginning of the programming phase.
14
Q
You have received conflicting instructions from the project manager and superintendent, both hired by the owner. Whose instructions should you follow?
A
The owner should be contacted for the final decision, but often times the owner authorizes a representative to make decisions on their behalf.
15
Q
What are five ways in which an Architect can involve the clients, users, consultants and stakeholders in developing the project design?
A
- attend community meetings
- hold private meetings with clients
- hold public meetings with stakeholders and clients
- hold town hall type meetings for the community
- hold a charette to encourage input on design
16
Q
Name four ways an architect can communicate design ideas and collect feedback from users and stakeholders
A
- present plans, elevations, models and 3D sketches
- show a power point presentation
- conduct interviews with stakeholders and end users
- distribute questionnaires to client, end users, and stakeholders
17
Q
What are the main concerns stakeholders and community groups may have related to a project’s impact on the surrounding area?
A
- Environment
- Increase in traffic, noise and density
- Inappropriate uses for the neighborhood
18
Q
What are some common materials that may contain VOC’s? Name two methods for controlling their effect on indoor air quality.
A
Carpet glues and adhesives, millwork, hardwood flooring and paint.
the Architect can specify low VOC products and provide adequate passive and mechanical ventilation in the design to bring fresh air into the building.
19
Q
A site is located near an industrial center with a high level of air pollution. What are some measures to protect building users from harmful air borne particulates?
A
- install air filter equivalent to MERV (minimum efficiency reporting value) 13 or better
- regular maintenance of the building ventilation systems
- incorporate dehumidification or humidification equipment
20
Q
What is the difference between carbon monoxide and radon and what are mitigation measures for each?
A
Carbon monoxide is generated from fires or combustion equipment and should be vented directly to outside, install detectors within house
Radon naturally occurs in the soil as uranium and thorium decay and should be provided with proper under floor and basement ventilation, install radon sump pump in basement
21
Q
What are the main causes of mold and mildew growth and how can this problem be avoided?
A
mold and mildew occur most often in wet areas and grows with excessive moisture, lack of ventilation, organic compounds for food and warm air temperature.
passive/mechanical ventilation should be required
22
Q
During schematic design of a preschool, you are approached by a group of parents who request a certain finish material for the playground. How should you respond?
A
Architect should not take direction from an end user but rather forward the request or concern on to the client for review and final decision.
23
Q
What are similar design characteristics that would be utilized in the design of a nursing home and an elementary school?
A
security, adult supervision, material finishes, higher indoor air quality should be the priority.
in addition, for children, softer surfaces and accommodating higher levels of activity
24
Q
How does contracting with an individual homeowner differ from a building project with a corporation?
A
When designing a home you have direct interaction with the owner.
When designing for a corporation you work with a board of directors and an authorized respresentative
25
you have been hired to sign a synagogue, however you have no knowledge of the jewish culture. How can you ensure your design will meet the needs of your client and end users?
1. Hire a cultural consultant
2. Conduct studies of the culture through research, travel or interviews
3. Attend an assembly or gathering.
4. Hold design review meetings
5. Conduct interviews and distribute questionnaires with members of the cultural community
26
What is the importance of including input from user groups during programming?
in order to fully understand any assumptions and to verify analysis data, it is important that the architect collect information from end users to make sure the building will function adequately once completed.
27
What is the difference between a citizen's advisory committee and a neighborhood community organization?
Citizens advisory committee is a group of community members appointed by local board or agency to provide input and feedback on project proposals
Neighborhood and community organizations are grassroots groups consisting of active/concerned members of the community
28
How can an Architect determine stake holder expectations and influence project participation?
conduct interviews, focus groups, workshops, surveys and observation
to influence stakeholders, an architect should create partnerships, keep all parties involved and informed, and have regular milestone meetings.
29
Name three design methods to maintain appropriate internal lighting levels.
1. daylight sensors
2. occupancy sensors
3. dimmable controls
30
Name four site related safety design measures and four building related safety design measures an architect can incorporate into a project.
1. site safety - building lighting at exterior, including entryways and exit doors; site lighting in parking lot; access control, and security cameras
2. building safety - controlled check-in area, alarms (fire, smoke, elevator, security), egress (paths clearly marked, emergency evacuation plan, glazing)
31
Name three design methods to maintain the proper internal air temperature.
1. occupancy sensors - HVAC equipment set to properly cool or heat a space based on number of occupants
2. Zoning - "hot areas" receive more cooling while warm areas receive less heat.
3. Thermostatic controls - occupants have control over individual spaces.
32
How do the acoustical design concerns differ between an office building and an auditorium?
An office will likely require control of noise between loud and quiet spaces through the use of separation/isolation, metal furring strips, acoustical tiles and insulation.
An auditorium will focus more on directing and reflecting sound as well as absorbing it in necessary spaces, such as backstage areas.
33
What are four energy efficiency design methods that can be incorporated into a building project?
1. Heating & air conditioning - properly seal ducts, install multiple zones and programmable thermostats, use high efficiency furnace.
2. Water heating - insulate hot water tanks & pipes, use solar hot water systems.
3. lighting - use daylighting, fluorescent or LED, install dimmer controls and occupancy sensors.
4. Appliances - select Energy star appliances
34
Other than low flow shower heads and toilets, what are other design methods for water conservation?
1. install a gray water system to reuse as irrigation water
2. install a rainwater harvesting system to reuse rainfall
3. install drought tolerant landscaping to reduce the amount of site water used
4. drip irrigation or sprinklers on timers and rain sensors to reduce site water used.
35
What five actions can an architect take to utilize resource conservation during project design?
1. re-use existing materials on site
2. re-use recyclable materials
3. select locally manufactured materials
4. use rapidly renewable materials
5. use wood products that have been sustainably harvested
36
what factors should an architect consider when developing spatial requirements and adjacencies?
1. Assign priority to spaces to determine most important adjacencies.
2. Consider furniture and special equipment placement
3. Analyze flow patterns of occupants vehicular traffic patterns, future needs of building, open space requirements.
37
What kind of programming requirements would need to be considered for the design of a fire station?
1. Needs of the fire fighters and staff
2. Adequate spaces for necessary equipment
3. Administrative and sleeping facilities
4. Size and requirements for fire truck bays
38
The owner has chosen a site that long and narrow and asymmetrical in shape. How could this effect the design of the project?
Space sizes could be affected if large rooms are required.
Building orientation will be important in order to maximize site efficiency while still taking advantage of views, sunlight, ventilation, etc.
39
Name six topographical conditions to consider when evaluating a site.
1. grading - is the site flat, hilly or sloped?
2. Vehicluar access - during & after construction
3. Utilities access - existing on site or must be extended
4. site features - rock outcroppings, cliffs, forest, etc.
5. Bodies of water - wetland, lakes, streams, ocean
6. Views - preserve significant existing views
40
A site is located on a steep, undeveloped slope with southern views to the ocean. What are the three primary concerns for this location?
1. Grading and foundation type - steep slope will require either extensive grading or a pile foundation system or both
2. Utilities access - an undeveloped piece of land will need to connect to existing utilities
3. Views - preservation of southern view may be desired
41
How can a site be designed to avoid the ponding of water?
1. reduce the amount of paving on site or use pervious paving materials
2. include proper grading and swales to direct water away from the building and to the storm drain system
42
What is the difference between topographical conditions and geological conditions?
Topographical conditions occur on the surface of a site.
Geological conditions occur under the surface of a site.
43
What effect does a high water table have on site design?
1. site drainage - dewatering may be necessary as well as storm water runoff management.
2. foundation type - mat slab floating on upper soil layers or piles extending to bear on stable soil
3. waterproofing - foundation and basement walls require proper protection from water damage.
44
What are the similarities and differences between a mat foundation and a pile foundation?
similarities:
both foundation types can be used on expansive soils or a site with a high water table
differences:
mat foundation essentially floats a building on the upper soil layers of the site
pile foundation is penetrated deep into the site to reach stable soil
45
What are three passive design strategies that can be included on a building located in a desert climate?
desert climate is hot-arid. very hot and very cold
1. properly insulating the walls and ceiling will help maintain the indoor temperature
2. using large overhangs on the southern exposure will allow for ample sunlight in winter and shading in summer
3. use of operable windows will allow for natural ventilation and air exchange.
46
Name three design methods for protection against water penetration of the building envelope.
1. proper slope and drainage of roof reduces risk of ponding and leakage.
2. overhangs above doors and windows protects the openings from water infiltration
3. a properly designed rain screen envelope minimizes moisture buildup in the exterior envelope (which can lead to mold and deterioration of materials)
47
What is the main design concern regarding snow drift?
Snow drift occurs when two adjacent roofs are at different heights and the snow can stack on the lower roof creating larger loads in that area. this additional weight creates a greater stress on the building structure so a building located in this climate must be designed to accommodate the additional loads.
48
you are designing a museum containing artifacts that are sensitive to light and humidity. What measures should you take given these conditions?
1. Maximize the use of indirect lighting for the spaces containing artifacts, such as clerestory windows.
2. Use of effective moisture control such as exhaust fans in toilet rooms will minimize indoor humidity as well as utilizing properly designed exterior details to allow materials to breathe.
3. Install special humidification or dehumidification equipment to maintain proper humidity in the gallery spaces
49
Why should an architect be concerned with wind hazards?
Strong winds, much like seismic activity, can damage building by introducing lateral forces, particularly on projections such as parapets and overhangs. These elements must be designed to resist uplift and overturning forces. Wind can also propel objects at buildings during hurricanes and tornadoes so a building should be designed to withstand impact forces.
50
you are designing an office building near a wetland area and the landscape architect wants to introduce a new plant species. What effect may this have on the wetland area?
non-native plant species can have a negative impact on a wetland by displacing or destroying native species, altering the wetland function or service as well as disrupting the ecosystem. An Architect should take great care to minimize or eliminate construction and disturbance in wetland areas as well as maintain the proper permits for this type of site.
51
Name four federal agencies that may be involved in the approval process for a wetlands project?
1. U.S. Fish & Wildlife Services
2. U.S. Army Corps of Engineers
3. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
4. National Resource Conservation Service.
52
What are "The Big Four" permits/approvals that may be required for most wetland or stream projects?
1. USACE 404 permit - US Army Corps of Engineers
2. RWQCB 401 Cert. - Regional Water Quality Control Board
3. CDFG Streambed Alteration Agreement - California Department of Fish and Game
4. CEQA Compliance - California Environmental Quality Act.
53
Define "flora" and "fauna" and describe how your design may be affected by their presence on the site.
Flora is plant life such as trees, vegetation and shrubs.
Fauna refers to any animal life present, particularly any endangered species.
Site design may be affected by needing to designate no disturbance zones, re-planting disturbed areas, minimizing effect on food and water supply, and minimizing night site lighting and wildlife use corridors.
54
your client has a site located near a wetland in the coastal zone. Which state agencies may be required for approval to design on this site?
1. Department of Fish and Wildlife
2. California Environmental Protection Agency (Cal EPA)
3. State Water Resource Control Board
4. California Coastal Commission
55
Define the Coastal zone in California according to the national oceanic and atmospheric administration (NOAA)
The California coastal zone generally extends 1,000 yards inland from the mean high tide line. In significant coastal estuarine habitats and recreational areas it extends inland to the first major ridgeline or fives miles from the mean high tide line, whichever is less. In developed urban areas, the boundary is generally less than 1,000 yards. - excerpt from the NOAA website
56
Which state and federal agencies may be involved in the review process for habitats of endangered species?
State Agencies:
1. Department of Fish and Wildlife
2. California Environmental Protection Agency (Cal EPA)
Federal Agencies:
1. U.S. Fish & Wildlife Service
2. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
57
Who Performs a soil survey and how does this information affect project design?
Geotechnical Engineer.
it helps determine the types of soil exist on the site.
The information has a direct impact on the foundation selection for the project. The soils report will typically recommend the foundation type or types to be used
58
Which seismic zone in California poses the greatest earthquake hazard?
Seismic Zone 4.
There are four seismic shaking zones in the U.S., the higher the number the higher the earthquake danger. All of California lies within shaking zones 3 & 4
59
According to the California geological survey, what is a fault and how are they defined on fault zone maps?
A fault is a fracture in the crust of the earth along which rocks on one side have moved relative to those on the other side. An active fault is one that has ruptured in the last 11,000 years. Earthquake fault zones are plotted on topographic maps at a scale of 1 inch equals 2,000 feet and typically average about one-quarter mile wide.
60
Name the three fire zones in california and what factors the severity of each is based on.
Medium, High, Very High
These areas, or "zones", are based on factors such as fuel (material that can burn), slope and fire weather. Fire burns faster uphill and weather conditions such as high temperatures, winds or low humidity can cause a fire to grow rapidly
61
Name five ground effects an earthquake can cause on a site.
1. ground shaking - causes over 90% of all damage
2. landslide - shaking causes soil and rock to slide off a slope
3. fault rupture - crack forms as ground is offset along the two sides of a fault
4. lateral spreading - shaking causes soil to break into blocks and separate
5. liquefaction - loose, wet sandy soil causes the foundation to sink
(watch San Andreas starring Dwayne Johnson)
62
What must occur before a project can be permitted in relation to earthquake fault zones?
geological investigation.
it shows the building will not be constructed across active faults. if an active fault is found, a structure for human occupancy must be set back from the fault, generally 50 feet. The Alquist-Priolo Act (1972) is intended to prevent construction of buildings used for human occupancy on the surface of active faults.
63
What are the two key elements of the fire hazard severity zone model?
1. Probability of burning
2. Probable fire behavior
Cal Fire has developed a model that serves as the basis of zone assignments that is based on factors such as fire history, existing and potential fuel, flame length, blowing embers, terrain, weather and likelihood of buildings igniting.
64
What are three methods to reduce the chance of building loss due to fire?
1. Defensible space - reduce flammable material around the homes to keep direct flames and heat away (law requires 100 feet around buildings)
2. Exterior wildfire exposure protection - construct buildings of fire resistant material
3. Green zone - Clearing an area of 30 fee immediately surrounding home, keep roof clear of flammable material, trim tree branches and keep a spark arrester on the chimney.
65
What types of disasters is FEMA (Federal Emergency Management Agency) responsible for?
FEMA has nationwide responsibility for reducing damage from hurricanes, earthquakes, tornadoes, floods fires, hazardous spills, acts of nature or terrorism
FEMA also creates and maintains flood insurance rate maps (FIRMs) which delineate both the special hazard areas and the risk premium zones applicable to the community.
66
What site design measures can an Architect use to mitigate flood damage?
1. locate building pads above the 100 year floodplain
2. avoid large areas of concrete/hard surface.
3. use of swales to direct water runoff
67
Define the three wind exposure categories from most protected to least protected.
Wind exposure categories are determined by "ground surface roughness" that arises from natural and constructed site features.
1. Exposure B - Urban & Suburban areas
2. Exposure C - Open terrain with scattered obstructions with heights less than 30 feet
3. Exposure D - flat, unobstructed areas & water surfaces not in hurricanes prone regions
68
What building design measures can an architect implement to mitigate damage from a flood?
1. avoid building in a flood prone area unless the structure is elevated and reinforced
2. elevate the furnace, water heater & electrical panels if susceptible to flooding.
3. install "check valves" in sewer traps to prevent floodwater from backing up into drains
4. seal walls of basement with waterproofing compounds to avoid seepage.
69
It is discovered that there are hazardous materials present on a site. What mitigation measures should be followed?
1. remove hazardous material from the site and properly dispose per federal, state and local guidelines
2. encapsulating and permanently sealing the material on the site per federal, state and local guidelines.
70
What are the acts, laws and regulations applicable to hazardous material mitigation?
1. toxic substances control act (federal)
2. comprehensive environmental response compensation and liability act (a.k.a Superfund; federal)
3. Federal EPA brownfield program
4. California EPA brownfield program
5. Federal EPA clean air act
6. Federal EPA clean water act
71
Describe the entitlement phase of the approval process for gaining permits from regulatory agencies.
1. submit design development drawings with enough information to illustrate size and scope of project to the local planning department. drawings will be reviewed for compliance with CEQA, zoning codes, local ordinances, LCP if in coastal zone and specific plan
2. attend any design review board meetings
3. submit drawings to state, regional and local agencies as required.
72
what steps follow the entitlement phase during the approval process?
the plan approval process follows the entitlement phase.
| The architect produces contract documents including ASMEP drawings for submission to the local agencies
73
What conditions must be in place in order to obtain a building permit?
all agencies must sign off on the project before a building permit is issued.
- the owner can obtain the permit
- the general contractor can obtain the permit and will have to show license
- the architect does not obtain the permit
74
What is the function of a design review board?
Design review boards typically consist of design professionals appointed by the city council to provide advice on new development projects and exterior changes to buildings.
They function to make recommendations (advisory in nature) to the planning commission, zoning administration, planning commission, zoning adminstrator, planning staff or city council.
75
does a design review board make final permit decisions?
No. Final permit decisions are usually made by the planning commission, zoning administrator, planning staff or city council
76
what are the typical design concerns of a design review board?
1. Appropriate use consistent with the neighborhood
2. Massing of building, exterior colors & materials
3. Relationship of proposed building to neighboring buildings
4. Landscaping consistent with neighborhood
5. Location of Mechanical equipment
6. Signage and site lighting
7. Parking requirements
77
What kind of approval is generally required from a design review board?
Review and approval from a design review board is required for a new construction, additions or remodels of existing buildings, with exception on building type or zone depending on the local municipality.
Final permit decisions are usually made by the planning commission, zoning administrator, planning staff or city council.
78
What is the main focus of an air quality management district?
AQMDs are regional agencies located throughout California to regulate and control emissions primarily from stationary sources.
AQMD has developed extensive profits including planning, regulation, compliance assistance, enforcement, monitoring, technology advancement and public education.
79
What does CEQA stand for? what is the mission and purpose of CEQA?
California Environmental Quality Act (1970)
Mission: require state and local agencies to identify significant environmental impacts of their actions and avoid or mitigate those impacts, if feasible.
Purpose: inform governmental decision makers and the public of any potential significant effects of a proposed activities on the environment and to provide opportunities to review and comment on draft documents.
80
Is CEQA an agency? Are plans submitted for review to CEQA?
CEQA is not an agency
plans are not submitted to CEQA for review.
81
Who is the lead agency and what are they responsible for?
The lead agency is typically the local planning department, but could also be a state agency, depending on the project. The lead agency has primary responsibility to complete the environmental review process required by CEQA. They are responsible for coordinating with the project applicant, the public, and other agencies during the review process.
82
Who is the Responsible agency and what role do they play in the CEQA review process?
the responsible agency is the public agency or agencies with discretionary approval authority over a portion of a CEQA project and interfaces directly with the lead agency (for example, the Air Quality Management District can be a responsible agency and consult with the lead agency)
83
What role does the commenting agency play during CEQA review?
the commenting agency is a public agency with "jurisdiction by law" over a particular natural resource, but is neither a lead agency or a responsible agency.
84
What is a Trustee Agency?
A state agency having jurisdiction by law over natural resources affected by a project which are held in trust for the people of the state of California.
85
What are two types of exemptions from compliance with CEQA?
Statutory exemption - projects which the California legislature has decided are not subject to CEQA procedures and policies.
Categorical exemption - projects which the secretary of the resources agency has determined do not usually have significant effect on the environment.
86
What happens if the project is determined to be exempt from CEQA?
A notice of exemption may be filed by the state agency, who files with he office of planning and research, or the local agency, who files with the county clerk of each county in which the project will be located.
87
If a project is not exempt from CEQA, What is the first step taken by the lead Agency?
the lead agency will perform an initial study.
The initial study is a preliminary analysis to determine whether an EIR or Negative Declaration must be prepared or to identify the significant environmental effects to be analyzed in an EIR.
88
What is the difference between a negative declaration and a mitigated negative declaration?
A negative declaration means no significant impacts were found on the environment in respect to the project and, as a result, the project may proceed as designed.
A mitigated negative declaration means significant impacts were found, but the project can be revised/redesigned to avoid or mitigate those impacts and can move forward.
89
What is an Environmental Impact Report?
An EIR is a detailed report prepared by the lead agency describing and analyzing the significant environmental effects of a proposed project, identifying alternatives and discussing ways to reduce or avoid possible environmental damage. The project may be slowed or halted until an EIR can be prepared, reviewed and approved.
90
What first step does the lead agency take when preparing an EIR?
the first step is to send a notice of preparation (NOP) to the responsible agencies, trustee agencies, and involved federal agencies to inform them of the planned EIR. The purpose is to solicit guidance from those agencies as to the scope and content to be included in the EIR.
91
What is a purpose of a notice of completion during the EIR process?
A (NOC) notice of completion is a brief notice released by the lead agency as soon as it has completed a draft EIR for public review and comment. This begins the public review period for the EIR.
92
What are the minimum and maximum review periods for the general public and agencies for an EIR and when does this occur?
30 days minimum and 60 days maximum.
if the draft EIR is sent to the state clearinghouse, the review period shall not be less than 45 days. this review period occurs AFTER the draft EIR has been completed and submitted for public review.
93
Who is the state clearinghouse and what do they do?
The state clearinghouse is a division of the governor's office of planning and research and they coordinate the state level review of the environmental documents that are prepared pursuant to CEQA.
94
define a notice of determination (NOD)
A notice of determination (NOD) is a brief notice filed by the lead agency after it approves or determines to carry out a project subject to the requirements of CEQA. it is filed once a decision has been reached on the project, either approval or disapproval of the Negative Declaration or final EIR.
95
name seven impacts a project can have on the environment.
1. storm water runoff
2. parking implications
3. pollution from equipment
4. damage to wildlife and plants
5. increase in traffic, noise
6. soil erosion
7. modification to wetlands
96
Describe the CEQA review process for a non exempt project.
1. lead agency performs an initial study
2. lead agency decides to prepare a EIR or negative declaration.
for EIR: notice of preparation sent to responsible agency, draft of EIR prepared by lead agency.
3. public review period: 20-30 days for negative declaration; 30-60 days for EIR.
4. decision on project. Lead agency files notice of determination with county clerk (local) office of planning & research (state)
97
What is the function and purpose of the california coastal act
the California Coastal Act establishes a far reaching coastal protection program and made permanent the California Coastal Commission.
The Commission plans and regulates development and natural resource use along the coast in partnership with local governments and in keeping with requirements of the Coastal Act.
98
Name six issues addressed by the California Coastal Act.
1. Shoreline public access and recreation
2. Terrestrial and marine habitat protection
3. Landform alteration
4. Offshore oil and gas development
5. Transportation and development design
6. Water quality
99
What are the most significant provisions of the federal coastal zone management act?
The California Coastal Commission and Bay Conservation and Development Commission are the two designated coastal management agencies to administer the federal coastal zone management act.
the CZMA gives state coastal management agencies regulatory control over all federal coastal activities. This is important because it is often the only review authority over federal coastal activities given to any state agency.
100
Which part of the coastal zone is not included in the california coastal act?
The coastal zone established by the coastal act dos not include san francisco bay, where development is regulated by the Bay Conservation and Development Commission (BCDC)
101
What is required before a project may commence in a coastal zone and what program must be followed?
Development within the coastal zone may not commence until a coastal development permit has been issued by either the commission or a local government that has a commission-certified local coastal program.
the project must follow the guidelines laid out in the local coastal program
102
What is a local Coastal Program and who develops it?
a LCP contains basic planning tools used by local governments to guide development in the coastal zone. LCP's contain ground rules for future development and protection of coastal resources, specify appropriate location, type and scale of new or changed uses of land and water, and include land use plans. they are prepared and developed by local governments.
103
What regulations in the California Coastal Act affect public access and recreation?
Public access - development not to interfere with right of access to sea, public access to be provided from nearest public roadway to shoreline, unless safety hazards exist.
Recreation - areas suited for water activities shall be protected for such uses, encouragement of reaction boating use by developing dry storage areas and increasing public launching facilities.
104
Name three ways a project can minimize adverse impacts in the Coastal Zone?
1. assure stability and struck integrity and neither create nor contribute significantly to erosion, geologic instability or destruction of area
2. Maintain consistency with requirements imposed by an air pollution control district or state board.
3. protect special communities and neighborhoods that are popular visitor destination points for recreational use.
105
What are five types of development along the coast that would require a coastal development permit?
1. placement of any solid material or structure
2. change in land use destiny or intensity
3. change in intensity of water use or access to water
4. removal of major vegetation
5. any development which constitutes a major public works project or a major energy facility
106
What are three project types that are exempt from a Coastal development permit?
1. improvements to existing single family dwellings
2. improvements to any structure provided there are no adverse affects on the environment, public access or that involve a change in use contrary to the california coastal act
3. maintenance dredging of existing navigation channels or moving dredged material from those channels to a disposal area.
107
What major element of the California Clean Air Act sets it apart from federal regulations?
The California clean air at provided the basis for air quality planning and regulation independent of federal regulations. a major element of the act is the requirement that local air districts in violation of the California ambient air quality standards must prepare attainment plans that identify air quality problems, causes, trends and actions to be taken to attain and maintain California's air quality standards.
108
Describe the field act
the purpose of the field act is to protect children and staff from death and injury in public schools grades k-14 and protect the public's investment in school buildings during and after earthquakes. it applies to public schools k-12 and community colleges. The field act was enacted in 1933 after the long bach earthquake which destroyed 70 school and damaged 120 others.
109
who has jurisdictional authority to enforce the field act and what is the architects and the owners role during construction?
Division of the State Architect is the jurisdictional authority.
Plans and specs are reviewed and approved including structural, fire & life safety and accessibility Architect is required to provide construction administration services and any changes to the drawings or specs must be approved by DSA. A DSA certified inspector, hired by the owner, must oversee construction and prepare verified reports that are sent to DSA after completion.
110
What prompted the seismic safety deadlines as required by the hospital facilities seismic safety act and what are they?
the Northridge earthquake in 1944 which caused 23 hospitals to lose service. Seismic safety deadlines include:
1. 2013 - at risk inpatient buildings must be rebuilt, retrofitted or closed
2. 2030 - all hospital buildings in state must be operational following major earthquake.
111
What is the essential services building seismic safety act (ESBSSA) and where can it be found?
the essential services buildings seismic safety act of 1986 determined that buildings providing essential services should be capable of providing those services after a disaster.
Requirements include that such buildings shall be designed and constructed to minimize fire hazards and to resist the forces of earthquakes gravity and winds.
It is contained in the California health and safety code, section 16000 - 16022
112
What four nonstructural components are vital to the operation of essential services buildings following the effects of a natural disaster?
1. communications systems
2. main transformer
3. switching equipment
4. emergency backup systems
113
Name the six different types of essential services buildings
1. fire station
2. police station
3. california highway patrol station
4. california operations center
5. sheriff's office
6. emergency communication dispatch center
114
Who is the enforcement agency for essential services buildings?
1. local agency - county or local building & safety department if the facility is not owned by the sate of california.
2. Division of the State Architect - state owned facilities and facilities leased by the sate.
Drawings and specifications must be submitted for review and approval to the enforcement agency.
115
What two types of buildings are exempt from the essential services buildings seismic safety act?
1. One story type V construction less than 2,000 SF
| 2. Type II N construction less than 2,000 SF
116
Who must prepare drawings for an essential services building?
Architect, civil Engineer, Structural Engineer shall sign all drawings and specifications for approval of the enforcement agency. If the work does not involve architectural or structural conditions, drawings and specifications may be prepared by a registered professional engineer qualified in the type of engineering appropriate to the project.
117
What qualifications must a building inspector have to be considered competent and adequate by the local enforcement agency?
Inspector shall have an adequate level of expertise and experience in the subject matter for which they have responsibilities for inspection. Qualifications shall include current certification by the international conference of building officials (ICBO) or meet qualifications according to the International Building Code.
118
What is considered "periodic review of construction"?
reasonable frequency for the purpose of general observation of the work and also which is obtained from the reporting of others as to the progress of the work, testing of materials, and inspection and superintendence of what is performed between those periodic site visits.
119
Who prepares reports for submittal to the enforcement agency during construction of an essential services building?
1. Architect
2. General Contractor
3. Qualified Inspector hired by the owner.
these reports show that to each of their own personal knowledge, the work has been performed and material installed in accordance with drawings and specifications.
120
True of False.
| The Architect MUST perform contract administration on an essential services building.
True.
it is required that the architect perform contract administration. This is generally included in basic services for other project types, but is required to be performed on an essential services building, hospital or public school project.
121
What role does the division of the state architect play during and construction of an essential services building according to the essential services buildings seismic safety act?
DSA is responsible for;
1. Observe the implementation & administration of the ESBSSA.
2. Provide advice and assistance to local jurisdictions regarding essential services buildings.
3. Hear appeals relative to administration of ESBSSA
122
What is the difference between the California Code of regulations and the California building standards code?
The california code of regulations contains all of the regulations adopted amended, or repealed by the state agencies pursuant to the administartive procedures act. it is divided into 28 titles.
The California building standards code is contained within the California code of regulations as title 24.
123
What is the difference between the california building standards code and the california building code?
The california building standards code contains all of california's building codes parts 1-12. The california building standards commission is responsible for adopting, approving, administering and implementing codes and standards.
The California Building Code is contained within the California Building Standards Code as Part 2
124
True or False.
| Title 24 refers to energy calculations submitted to local building departments.
False.
Title 24 refers to the entire California Building Standards Code. The Energy code is just one small part of the title 24 as Part 6.
125
How many parts are contained within the california building standards code?
there are 12 parts to the California Buildings Standards Code, with an addition of part 2.5 California Residential Building Code for 2010.
126
What are the key components of the California Building Code that the Building department will review during plan check?
1. occupancy type
2. construction type
3. building and floor area
4. building height
5. exits/egress
6. building separation and shafts
7. fire protection and extinguishing systems
8. accessibility requirements
9. engineering requirements
127
What is the main purpose of the California Building Code?
establish the minimum requirements to safeguard the health, safety and general welfare of the public
128
What are the 10 Occupancy classifications contained in the California building code?
```
A - Assembly
B - Business
E - Educational K-14
F - Factory Industrial
H - Hazardous
I - Institutional
M - Mercantile
R - Residential
S - Storage
U - Utility & Misc.
```
129
How is a structural survey utilized in the restoration of a historical building?
A structural survey will evaluate any deterioration or signs of distress as well as determine the details of structural framing and the system of resistance of gravity and lateral loads.
Results of the survey shall be utilized for evaluating the structural capacity and for designing medications to the structural system to reach compliance with he CHBC
130
What four regulations does part 9 - California Fire Code establish for buildings and properties?
1. hazard of fire & explosion from storage materials
2. occupancy conditions hazardous to life or property
3. repari or removal of fire alarm systems
4. conditions affecting safety of emergency responders during emergency operations.
131
What is the purpose and scope of part 10 - California existing building code?
Promote public safety and welfare by reducing the risk of death or injury that may result from the effects of earthquakes on existing unreinforced masonry bearing walls.
The scope of this part shall apply to all existing buildings having at least one unreinforced masonry bearing wall.
132
What five areas does part 11 - California Green Building Standards Code (CALGreen) encourage as sustainable construction practices?
1. planning and design
2. energy efficiency
3. water efficiency and conservation
4. material conservation and resource efficiency
5. environmental quality
133
What is the scope of the CALGreen Code?
The CALGreen code shall apply to the planning, design, operation, construction, use and occupancy of every newly constructed building or structure, unless otherwise indicated in this code throughout the state of california.
134
How is the California Building standards code different from model codes?
1. more stringent seismic design requirements
2. more stringent structural test and special inspections
3. Chapter 7A wildfire exposure
4. Chapter 11A & 11B accessibility requirements developed and maintained by DSA
5. Includes california energy code part 6
135
Name five state agencies that have amended a section of the model code and are included in the CBSC in brackets.
1. Office of State Fire Marshall
2. Department of Housing and Community Development
3. Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development
4. Division of the State Architect - Access compliance
5. Department of Consumer Affairs
136
What issues should the architect consider during programming that will be a concern of the local building department.
1. fire department access and egress
2. life safety
3. Building type and occupancy separations
4. Accessibility for both the site and building
137
Define the five different construction types.
Type 1 - Steel, reinforced concrete, masonry construction, non-combustible structure required and fire-resistive
Type 2 - Steel, reinforced concrete, masonry construction, non-combustible structure required and fire resistive
Type 3 - Same as 1 & 2 but can include wood except in the structural frame.
Type 4 - Heavy timber
Type 5 - Steel, reinforced concrete, masonry or wood construction.
Differences in construction types refer to fire ratings of components such as structural systems, exterior bearing walls, etc.
138
What are the five main concerns to determine at the beginning of a project?
1. occupancy group
2. type of construction
3. location of building on the property
4. allowable floor area
5. height and number of stories
139
What is contained in chapter 7A of the CBC and how is this inclusion different from model codes
7A is not found in the model codes
it refers to materials and construction methods for exterior wildfire exposure. it applies to building materials, systems and/or assemblies used in exterior design of new buildings located within a wildland-urban interface fire area.
140
What chapter of the CBC addresses accessibility and what do the two separate parts apply to?
11A Housing accessibility - applicable to multi-family dwellings
11B accessibility to public buildings, public accommodations, commercial buildings and publicity funded housing.
141
What is the scope of part 2.5 - California Residential Building Code of the California Building Standards Code?
applies to every detached one and two family dwelling, townhouses not more than three stories above grade plane in height with a separate means of egress and accessory structures.
142
What are the five areas of focus of Part 8 - California historical building code?
1. preservation
2. restoration
3. rehabilitation
4. relocation
5. reconstruction
143
How do accessibility requirements of the california historical building code affect a historical building and which are most critical?
the intent of the CHBC is to preserve the integrity of qualified historical buildings while providing access to and use by persons with disabilities.
most critical are life safety issues including building structure, building access and public restroom facilities.
144
what information is covered in the chapters regarding structural provisions of the CBC?
chapter 16 - general design criteria for structures
chapter 17 - testing and inspections of materials
chapter 18 - soils, site, grading and foundations
chapter 19 - concrete
chapter 20 - aluminum
chapter 21 - masonry
chapter 22 - steel
chapter 23 - wood
145
Define dead load vs. live load?
Dead load = the weight of materials and construction incorporate into the building including walls, floors, roofs, ceiling, stairways, built-in partitions, finishes, cladding and equipment attached to the structure.
live loads = loads produced by use and occupancy of the building (furniture, people, etc.) not including wind, snow, rain, earthquake, flood or dead loads.
146
what are three methods for resisting lateral forces in structure?
1. Shear wall
2. moment frame
3. braced frame
147
Describe the four occupancy categories associated with chapter 16 - structural design of the california building code.
Category 1 - low hazard to human life in the event of a failure (agricultural, temporary, storage
Category 2 - Buildings not categorized by 1, 3 or 4
Category 3 - Substantial hazard to human life in the event of a failure (schools, prisons, urgent care)
Category 4 - Essential facilities (hospitals, fire and police stations, water treatment plants (not the same as essential service buildings)
148
Name five occupancies/uses with uniformly distributed live loads as found on table 1607.1
1. Assembly areas - fixed seats = 60psf
2. corridors = 100psf
3. residential, r-3 = 40psf
4. Stadiums and Arenas - bleachers = 100psf
5. handrails and guardrails = 50plf
149
how are roof live loads determined? what are the provisions for landscape roofs?
Minimum roof live loads are based upon roof slopes.
landscape roofs shall use a uniform design live load of 20psf in the landscape area. the weight of the landscaping materials shall be considered as dead load and shall be computed on the basis of saturation of the soil.
150
what four factors must be taken into consideration for foundation design in regards to soil lateral loads?
Basement, foundation and retaining walls shall be designed to resist lateral soil loads. these elements must be designed to resist
1. overturning
2. sliding
3. excessive water pressure
4. water uplift
151
What types of structures are exempt from the accessibility provisions of the CBC?
1. privately funded single family homes and duplexes
| 2. privately funded multi-family projects of three or less units in a condominium project
152
What are three site accessibility features to consider during project design?
1. sidewalks - minimum width 48" maximum surface cross slope 1/4"
2. accessible parking - minimum 9'x18' with 5' wide no parking strip, 8' wide no parking strip at van parking stall.
3. building entrances - located on accessible route of travel.
153
Name five building accessibility provisions to consider during project design.
1. entrances and exits - all entrances and exterior ground floor exit doors are to be accessible.
2. doors - minimum clear opening 32", level 60" landing in direction of door swing.
3. stairs - handrails on each side, maximum tread depth is 11", ma, maximum riser is 7", no open risers.
4. ramps - minimum width 48", maximum slope 1:12, minimum landing width 60"
5. corridors - minimum width 44" for load > 10 occupants
154
Name two public restroom design provisions to consider during project design
1. lavatory - maximum counter height 34", min. 30"x48" clear floor space for forward approach.
2. toilet facilities - 60" minimum circular turning diameter, toilet to be minimum 17" and maximum 19" in height.
155
What are design concerns to consider for sight and hearing impaired end users?
sight impaired - audible fire alarms, tactile warning strips at areas for low hanging overhead projections or changes in floor elevation, and use of braille signage.
hearing impaired - flashing strobe fire alarms, text telephone stations, and assisted listening devices.
156
Does the building and safety plan checker review for ADA compliance?
No.
the building checker only reviews accessibility provisions of the california building code.
157
What are the two types of systems or methods for providing fire-resistive protection?
Passive - built into the building structure and provides a barrier between the structure and the fire. Chapter 7 of the CBC discusses these requirements.
Active - fire protection systems, such as, fire sprinklers, responds to fire by activation of systems to suppress fire and smoke. Chapter 9 of the CBC discusses these requirements.
158
What is the definition of a fire-resistance rating for a building material?
Fire resistance rating - the period of time a building element, component or assembly maintains the ability to confine a fire, continues to perform a given structural function, or both.
159
Define fire walls vs. fire barriers
Fire walls - a fire resistance rated wall having protected openings, which restricts the spread of fire and extends continuously from the foundation to or through the roof.
Fire barrier - a fire resistance rated wall assembly of materials designed to restrict the spread of fire in which continuity is maintained, such as separating different occupancies or to divide a single occupancy into different fire areas.
160
define smoke barriers vs smoke partitions.
Smoke barriers - a continuous membrane either vertical or horizontal such as a wall floor or ceiling assembly, that is designed and constructed to restrict the movement of smoke.
Smoke partitions - extends from the top of the foundation or floor below to the underside of the floor or roof sheathing deck, or slab above or to the underside of the ceiling above to limit the transfer of smoke.
161
What is the definition of means of egress?
Means of Egress - a continuous and unobstructed path of vertical and horizontal egress travel from any occupied portion of a building or structure to a public way.
A means of egress consists of three separate and distinct parts: the exit access, the exit, and the exit discharge.
162
What are egress requirements for exit access travel distance?
Maximum length of exit access travel distance as measured from the most remote point to the entrance to an exit along a "natural and unobstructed path of egress travel".
163
What are egress requirements for an exit discharge?
Exits shall discharge directly to the exterior of the building with exceptions that may not exceed 50% of the number and capacity of required exists per section 1027.1
Egress courts are open spaces that provide access to a public way from one or more exits. Minimum width shall not be less than 44" and shall have an unobstructed height of 7'
164
What are three responsibilities of the California Energy Commission?
1. Forecast future energy needs and keep historical energy data.
2. Promote energy efficiency by setting the states appliance and building efficiency standards and enforcing them through local government
3. Support renewable energy by providing market support to existing, new and emerging renewable technologies and provide incentives for solar, wind and fuel cel electricity systems.
165
Who is responsible for compliance review and field enforcement of the California Energy Code?
the local building and safety plan checker and enforced in the field by the local building official
166
The California Energy Code is NOT Title 24, as commonly mistaken by many plan checkers. What is the correct name for this section of the code?
Part 6 of the Title 24, The California Energy Code.
167
Name six mandatory requirements of the California Energy Code for achieving energy efficiency.
1. space conditioning equipment
2. water heating equipment
3. glazing requirements
4. building envelope and fenestration
5. insulation requirements
6. lighting systems and equipment
168
Describe the performance approach method of compliance with the california energy code.
performance approach - most detailed, complex and flexible compliance path. based on computer calculations according to actual building geometry and site placement (solar orientation, overhangs, size of openings, etc) primary concerns include:
- heat gain/loss through walls, roofs, windows
- solar gain from windows, skylights
- heat storage effects from thermal mass
- systems for HVAC, lighting, water heating
169
Describe the prescriptive approach method of compliance with the california energy code.
Prescriptive approach - simpler method, less design flexibility. components must comply with the respective section of the energy code, such as the building envelope, space conditioning equipment, service water heating system, lighting system, outdoor lighting system, interior and exterior signs.
170
Who is responsible for signing the certificate of compliance for the california energy code?
```
the person(s) responsible for the building design to certify compliance with part 6.
if more than one person has responsibility for the design, each person shall sign the certificate of compliance documents.
-Architect and other persons who prepared the report
```
171
what information must the builder leave behind for the owner after final inspection?
operations and maintenance manuals
includes information and instructions on how to operate the features, materials, components and mechanical devices correctly and efficiently
includes information for all features, materials, components and manufactured devices that require routine maintenance for efficient operation.
172
What is the california health & safety code?
to protect the health and safety of the public and acts as the main source for many of the codes applicable to building design and construction.
California law consist of 29 codes, of which the health & safety code is one these codes cover various subject areas, the state constitution and statutes
173
What five codes, acts, or regulations are included in the california health & safety code that would be applicable to a project?
1. essential services building seismic safety act
2. california code of regulations - title 24
3. air resources
4. california retail food code
5. hospital facilities seismic safety act
174
what is the focus of air resources - section 39000?
to safeguard the public interest by an intensive coordinated state, regional and local effort to protect and enhance the ambient air quality of the state.
the state is divided into air basins and provides incentives for regional strategies to promote air quality. local and regional authorities have primary responsibility for control of air pollution, except form vehicle, which is controlled by the state air resources board.
175
name four requirements of the california retail food code.
1. floors - smooth, non-absorbent, easily cleanable, drains required if water flushed.
2. Wall & ceilings - durable, smooth, non-absorbent, easily cleanable.
3. toilet facilities - situated so patrons do not pass through food prep storage or washing areas.
4. Sinks - 3 compartment for dishwashing, and washing sinks provided in each food prep area, janitorial sink located away from food areas.
176
Name three water regulations applicable to the design process in california.
1. clean water act - regulates discharges of pollutants into the water of the US, quality standards for surface waters
2. california water code - provide protection of water quality and allocation
3. department of water resources - administers california water plan for future usage.
177
how does the state water resources control board affect the design and construction project?
the state water board's mission is to preserve, enhance and restore the quality of californias water resources and ensure their proper allocation and efficient use for the benefit of present and future generations.
they will typically be involved in the review of a project at the regional level and will be concerned with any water related issues on the site, including monitoring water quality after construction is completed.
178
How many regional water quality control boards exist in california and what is their purpose?
9 regional water quality control boards which develop and enforce water quality objectives and implementation plans that will best protect the states waters, recognizing local differences in climate, topography, geology and hydrology.
Water quality monitoring usually falls under the regional water quality control board.
179
Who enforces the americans with disabilities act (ADA)
The US department of justice is responsible for enforcing ADA and publishes the 2010 ADA standards for accessible design.
180
How is the american with disabilities act enforced?
through lawsuits and settlement agreements, however the department of justice may not sue a party unless negotiations to settle the dispute have previously failed
181
What are the five titles contained in the americans with disabilities act?
I - employment: job applications procedures, hiring advancement and discharge of employees
II - public entities & transportation: access to services in school districts & public transportation.
III - public accommodations & commercial facilities: new construction & existing facilities access.
IV - telecommunications: hearing and speech impairment accessibility
V - Misc. Provisions: technical provisions
182
Which two titles of the americans with disabilities act are most applicable to design and construction?
Titles II and III
These address, specifically with accessibility relating to public buildings, transportation services and routes as well as requirements for compliance for new construction and existing facilities.
183
In regards to the americans with disabilities act, how are compliance for non-compliant conditions generally handled?
compliance about violations of title II or III should be filed with the department of justice.
Most state government agencies have ADA compliance coordinators who can aid individuals in filing a complaint
184
is ADA a federal or state statute?
The ADA is federal civil rights statute written with the intention of providing equal access for persons with disabilities although it is federal statute, it is enforceable at both the state and local levels.
185
What is ADAAG and who publishes this document?
The ADA accessibility guidelines serves as a minimum baseline for standards and is published by the US access board. they serve as a coordinating body among federal agencies and directly represent the public, particularly people with disabilities
186
which of the following will the plan checker review drawings for?
A. ADA compliance
B. CBC chapter 11A
C. CBC chapter 11B
chapters 11A & 11B
there is no plan check review for compliance with ADA standards. The building and safety plan checker is only reviewing the drawings for compliance with the accessibility provisions of the CBC
187
Who is the party that is ultimately responsible for compliance with ADA
The Owner is the person who would be named in a lawsuit, however if the architect failed to adhere to ADA standards, the owner may sue the architect. The owner would be sued by the department of justice if a settlement could not be reached.
188
Should Architects only be concerned with accessibility provisions contained in the CBC?
No. as licensed professionals, architects are expected to be knowledgeable of the ADA standards and to notify the owner of these standards and incorporate them into the drawings. Architects are also expected to comply with both the accessibility provisions of the CBC as well as ADA standards since the CBC is not always the most stringent.
189
What is a helpful tool an Architect can use to research applicable accessibility guidelines?
CalDAG - the california disabled accessibility guidebook is a third party publication that cross references the CBC regulations with ADA standards.
190
Describe what building safety concerns underwriters laboratories (UL) certify.
UL provides product development as well as safety testing and certification with a focus on materials and assemblies features such as:
- fire protection and resistance ratings
- means of egress door hardware and exit signage
- roof assemblies for fire performance, hail and wind uplift resistance
191
What function does the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) serve?
ANSI oversees the development of standards for products, services, processes, and systems.
An ANSI standard is a document established by consensus that provides rules, guidelines or characteristics for activities or their results ANSI does not develop standards, rather they coordinate them.
192
What is ASTM international and what types of construction standards do they develop?
ASTM International (AKA American Society for Testing and Materials) is an international standards organization that develops and maintains standards for a wide range of materials, such as:
- adhesives
- roofing
- cement and concrete
- thermal insulation
- fire and flammability
- wood
- masonry
- roads and paving
193
What is the purpose of factory mutual (FM) and what are some products that may bear an approved FM label?
FM certifies industrial and commercial products and services and develops standards mainly for the property insurance industry. these products are often required on projects at the request of the insurance company providing the policy on the building. products include:
- wall hydrants
- heat and smoke vents
- fire hoses and doors
- skylights
- fire department connections
194
What is Warnock Hersey by Intertek (WH)?
Intertek is a global testing, inspecting and certification company and the Warnock Hersy (WH) mark is one part of the company. this mark can be found on many products such as fire doors, builder's hardware, and plumbing products.
195
What manual is published by the Gypsum Association (GA)?
Fire resistance design manual. it can be used for fire-rated walls and partitions, floor/ceiling systems, roof/ceiling systems, and to protect columns, beams and girders. GA is a not-for-profit trade association promoting the use of gypsum and advancing the development and growth of the gypsum industry.
196
What is ASHRAE?
The American Society of Heating, Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE) is an international organization aimed at advancing HVAC and refrigeration through research, standards writing, publishing and continuing education.
ASHRAE writes standards for performance criteria and testing methods and publishes these as method of measurement or test, standards design or standard practices.
197
Should costs for labor, materials, and equipment be included in the preliminary cost of work estimate from the architect?
No. These cost are considered construction costs and due to market and economic fluctuations, the architect has no control over how these prices shift.
Also, according to the Standard Owner/Architect agreement this is not part of the Architect's Basic Scope of Services.
198
What graphic tools can an architect use that help develop the project during programming?
1. bubble diagrams
2. flow diagrams
diagrams should also display a clear hierarchy of spaces
199
The owner has requested the Architect to develop the program as an additional service. What must the owner provide to the architect?
1. project goals and values
2. requirements for the building
3. project schedule
4. project budget
200
An owner has chosen to skip the programming phase to save money. how should the architect respond?
Unless the owner has a fair amount of previous experience with the project type, programming should not be omitted as it is an important stage to determine project goals and potential solutions.
Though the owner may perceive cutting programming as an initial cost savings, the budget may be negatively affected due to potential changes in the later design and construction phases.
201
After performing a site evaluation, the Architect finds that the site has restrictions that may limit the scope of the project. How should he/she inform the Owner?
The architect should communicate to the owner in writing to maintain project documentation.
202
True or False:
| The Architect is responsible for any owner supplied program information developed by another.
false.
The architect is only responsible for his/her own instruments of service and must rely on the accuracy and completeness of any surveys, tests, analyzed data, etc. provided by the owner.
203
What items are typically included on a site survey?
1. topography
2. building footprints and building heights
3. street locations and adjoining property information
4. easements and right of ways access
5. any existing utilities above and below grade
204
What are the most commonly used methods of cost estimation during programming?
1. cost per unit method
| 2. cost per square foot method
205
An owner has supplied program information developed by another architect. should the current architect include review of this information in his/her basic services?
yes. AIA B201; Article 2.2 SD services
the Architect shall review the program and other information provided by the owner and provide a preliminary evaluation of the owner's program, schedule and budget.
206
after reviewing owner supplied site surveys and test results, the architect notices a discrepancy in the information. how should he/she respond?
The architect should inform the owner of the discrepancy and request written clarification from those responsible for drafting the reports.
The Architect is not responsible for information supplied by others, however, the owner should be informed immediately of any conflicts in information.
207
Why are the CBSC accessibility requirements generally more stringent than the federal americans with disabilities act requirements?
The current CBSC was written 8 years before ADA was inacted, to provide a single code which would meet all of themes stringent requirements of the original CBSC, as well as the 1991 federal fair housing amendments act and ADA accessibility guidelines
208
Does the state of california only require ADA compliance on new construction?
No.
| ADA compliance is required on both new construction as well as tenant improvements and facilities upgrades.
209
What should an owner do if they are unable to fully comply with ADA requirements?
Full compliance with ADA is required on all new construction, however if an owner is performing facilities upgrades on an existing property, they may file for a wider to be exempt from full compliance if doing so would create an undue financial hardship.
