Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

National Knowledge Exam > Professional Practice (24%) > Flashcards

Professional Practice (24%) Flashcards

1
Q

Canadian HR Profession and Community

A
  • Continual upgrading of skills required
  • Cornerstone = provisional HR associations
  • CHRP granted by provincial member ass’n
  • Nat’l level = Canadian Council of Human Resources Associations (CCHRA); est’d 1994; coordinates interests and activities of HR prof’l
  • One strat priority - federal gov’t rel’ns (est strong rel’p to influence emp’t/labour laws)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mandate of Canadian Council of Human Resources Associations (CCHRA)

A
  • Establish nat’l core standards
  • Promote communication among ass’n
  • Act as recognized resource on equivalency of HR qualifications
  • Provide nat’l and int’l collect voice on HR issues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CHRP (general)

A
  • Certified Human Resources Professional
  • First granted in 1990
  • key component of CCHRA’s strategy of encouraging HR professional accreditation
  • Jan 2011 - university degree in any discipline necessary
  • Jan 2013 - experience requirement - necessary for practitioners to demonstrate that they have worked in position that require cultivated knowledge and prof’l level resp in HR for min of 3 years (w/in last 10 years)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Major Elements of CCHRA’s strategy to encourage HR professional accreditation (CHRP)

A
  • CHRP candidate
  • CHRP registry
  • Knowledge assessment
  • Professional Practice assessment
  • Standards Advisory Committee (SAC) -
  • Exam board
  • Required professional capability (RPCs)
  • Recertification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CHRP candidate

A

One completed NKE, registered to become CHRP, and in process of developing KSA and gaining professional exp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CHRP registry

A

Comprehensive list of all CHRPs and CHRP candidates in CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Knowledge Assessment

A

First exam in CHRP process, testing “explicit knowledge”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Professional practice assessment

A

The second exam in the CHRP process, testing tacit knowledge; although in some provinces this assessment has been discontinued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Standards advisory committee (SAC)

A

Comprised of subject matter experts representing the provincial HR associations and public, responsible for recommending the best practices for attaining designation
- Key –> subject matter experts deciding best practices for designation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Exam Board

A

Comprised of psychometricians nominated by the CCHRA’s member provincial HR associations, is responsible overseeing development and scoring of the exams
- Key –> psychometricians responsible for overseeing deve’t and scoring of exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Required Professional capability (RPCs)

A
  • Defines the body of knowledge and work that makes up the HR profession.
  • Total of 187 RPCs that fall into 7 areas:
    • professional practice in HR
    • organization effectiveness;
    • total compensation;
    • employee and labour relations;
    • occupational health, safety and
      wellness;
    • staffing; and
    • organization learning, training and
      development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Recertification

A

Every 3 years a CHRP must re-certify to maintain their CHRP designation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Steps to Becoming CHRP Certified

A
  • apply for provincial HR ass’n membership
  • prepare for, register and write NKE
  • become a CHRP candidate upon passing NKE
  • meet the degree and experience requirement
  • become a CHRP upon completing experience requirement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CCHRA National Code of Ethics

A
  • Standards of behaviour relating to fairness, justice, truthfulness, and social responsibility for HR professionals
  • PRINCIPLES that when followed PROMOTE VALUES, such as TRUST, GOOD BEHAVIOUR, fairness and/or kindness
  • Not one CONSISTENT set of stds that all COMPANIES follow
  • Ea. co has right to DEVELOP stds meaningful to org
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

9 Elements of CCHRA National Code of Ethics

A

1) Preamble
2) Competence
3) Legal Requirements
4) Dignity in the workplace
5) Balancing Interests
6) Confidentiality
7) conflict of interest
8) Professional Growth and Support of Other Professionals
9) Enforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Preamble (CCHRA Nat’l Code of Ethics)

A
  • Commitment to abide by all reuirements by CHRPs, CHRP candidates, and CHRP exam registrants
  • Where provincial codes are legislated, those will prevail
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Competence (CCHRA Nat’l Code of Ethics)

A
  • maintain competence in prof’l resp and honest and dilligent manner
  • activities w/in limits of knowledge, experience, and skill
  • necessary assistance sought so as to not compromise professional responsibility (when services outside one’s level of competence)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Legal Requirements (CCHRA CoE)

A
  • adhere to statutory acts, regulations or by laws; civil and ciminal laws, regulations and statutes
  • not knowingly or otherwise engage/condone activity or attempt to circumvent clear intention of laws
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dignity in the Workplace (CoE)

A
  • support/promote/apply principles of human rights, equity, dignity, and respect in wokplace, profession and society
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Balancing Interests (CoE)

A

Strive to balance organizational and employee needs and interests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Confidentiality (CoE)

A

Hold in strict confidence all confidential info acquired in course of duties and not divulge unless req’d by law and/or serious harm is imminent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Conflict of Interest (CoE)

A

Avoid or disclose potential conflicts that might influence or be perceived to influence personal actions or judgments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Professional Growth and Support of Other Professionals (CoE)

A

Maintain personal and professional growth in human resources management by engaging in activities that enhance the credibility and value of the profession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Enforcement (CoE)

A
  • CCHRA collaborates w/ member ass’n to develop/enforce high stds of ethical practice among members
  • Violation of CoE may result in disciplinary action, up to and including decertification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedsom

A
  • Cornerstone of emp’t leg’n providing for BASIC RIGHTS AND FREEDOMS
    • Fundamental freedoms
    • Democratic rights
    • mobility rights
    • legal rights
    • equality rights
    • language rights
    • minority language education rights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fundamental freedoms

A

rights related to thought, belief, opinion, expression, conscience, and religion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Democratic rights

A

related to participating in politics and forming a government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mobility rights

A

related to entering and leaving the country

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Legal rights

A

related to due process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Equality rights

A

related to equal treatment before the law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Language rights

A

related to the freedom to communicate in either French or English in communications with the Federal Government (and some Provincial Government)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Minority Language Education Rights

A

related to accessing education in one’s own language for individuals in English or French minority communities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Provincial/Territorial Human Rights Legislation

A
  • ensures workplaces are free from discrimination and harassment (prov/terr jur’n)
  • different jurisdictons define protected groups differently
  • illegal in most jurisdictions to discriminate in emp’t, adv, rec’t, sle’n, deployment, and treatment
  • general protected groups
    • race
    • colour
    • ancestry
    • place of origin
    • political beliefs
    • religion
    • marital status
    • family status
    • sex
    • sexual orientation
    • physical or mental disability
    • age
    • criminal record or summary offense
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Equity Legislation

A
  • provides for equal opportunity and treatment to designated groups found to be disadvantaged in the past due to discrimination on prohibited grounds:
  • Pay equity
    • Equal pay for equal work
    • Equal pay for work of equal value
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pay Equity

A
  • provides for equity in compensation for women compared to that of men
  • be aware of difference between
    • equal pay for equal work
    • equal pay for work of equal value
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Equal pay for equal work

A

ensures that women doing the same jobs as their male counterparts receive equitable remuneration for their work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Equal pay for work of equal value

A

ensures that women performing in FEMALE-DOMINATED occupations receive equitable remuneration to their male counterparts performing in MALE-DOMINATED occupations of equal value as defined by skills, effort, responsibility and working conditions

NOTE: not every jurisdiction has; however HuRi leg’s does ensure that protected groups are not discriminated against in terms of equal pay for equal work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Elements to Determining Work of Equal Value

A
  • skills
  • responsibility
  • working conditions
  • effort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Employment Equity

A
  • aims to ensure that TARGET GROUPS (women, aboriginal peoples, visible minorities, and persons with disabilities) are represented in the workforce to the same degree that they are represented in the qualified workforce
  • leg’n applies in the federal jurisdiction and to org’n that contract their services to the federal government
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Target Groups for Employment Equity

A
  • women
  • aboriginals
  • visible minorities
  • persons with disabilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Canada Labour Code

A
  • governs org FEDERALLY (banks, grain elevators, flour mills, highway transport, pipelines, radio and television broadcasting, cable systems, railways, shipping and shipping services, and telephone and telegraph systems
  • similar legis’n exists for ea prov and ter
  • 3 parts:
    1) Industrial Relations
    2) Occupational Health and Safety
    3) Employment Standards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Parts of Canada Labour Code

A

1) Industrial relations - governs union certification and the successful creation, administration, and dispute resolution process concerning collective bargaining
2) Occupational Health and Safety - ensures for the safe work environements within our org through the administration of prevention, inspection, regulations, and remedies
3) Employment Standards - provides for the minimum standards governing such things as hours of work, holidays, wages, overtime, termination, and other entitlements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Employment Insurance Leg’n

A
  • provides for temporary income protection to unemployed workers or workers who are absent due to illness or injury
  • Who is eligible?
    • paid premiums
    • lost job not due to own fault
    • w/o work and pay for at least 7 consecutive days in the past 52 wks
    • worked for the required number of insurable hours in the last 52 weeks or since the start of your last EI claim, whichever is shorter
    • ready, willing, and capable of working each day
    • actively looking for work
  • Purpose - provide continuation of income to those who can’t work
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Worker’s Compensation Act

A

provides for income security to injured workers and their families

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pensions and Benefits Standards Act

A

governs the creation, management, transfer, and disbursement of employer pension plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Canada Pension Plan

A
  • provides a dependable pension for retired workers and provides the individual and his/her dependents with basic financial protection if an indv becomes injured or dies
  • What is it? A contributory, earnings-related social insurance program
  • Who is eligible
    • made at least one valid contribution and are at least 60 years of age
    • must apply, does not automatically kick in
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA)

A
  • governs the collection, usage, storage and disposal of “personal information
  • FAIR INFORMATION PRINCIPLES
  • personal information includes: gender, age, ethnic origin, relation, race, social insurance number, phone number and address, financial and credit information, health information, evaluations and opinions about a person and even information that identifies shopping interests of income bracket
  • federal
  • provincial legislation ins some provincials; BC - Personal Information Protection Act (PIPA)
  • determines who can access, what can be collected, how collected
  • exceptions allow for emprs to collect, use and disclose “employee personal information” without the consent of the individual if collection is reasonable for the purposes of establishing, managing or terminating an emp’t rel’p
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Principles of PIPEDA

A

1) Accountability (org resp and designate resp indv)
2) Identifying Purpose (identify purpose of collection at or before info is collected)
3) Consent (knowledge and consent of individual is required for collection, use and disclosure of personal information, except when inappropriate)
4) Limiting Collection (necessary for identified purpose and using fair/legal manes)
5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention (only used and disclosed for purposes of collection, except with consent or as required by law; retained only as long as necessary to fulfill purpose)
6) Accuracy ( as accurate, complete, and up-to-date as necessary for purpose)
7) Safeguards ( personal information protected by security safeguards appropriate for sensitivity of info)
8) Openness ( make readily available info on policies and practices relating to management of personal information)
9) Individual Access ( upon request, informed of existence, use, and disclosure of PI and given access to that info; may challenge accuracy and completeness and have amended as appropriate)
10) Challenging Compliance ( individual shall be able to address a challenge concerning compliance with principles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Common Law

A
  • based on precedent (derived from previous decisions made by judges)
  • exists in all provinces/territories and within the federal jurisdiction (except quebec where all civil law rules apply)
  • also known as TORT LAW, these judge made laws apply in almost all aspects of the emp’t rel’p
  • have to be aware of elgal precedents that have been est’d through court challenges on issues that range from NEGLIGENT MISREPRESENTATION in recruitment and hiring through what constitutes a requirement of DUE DILLIGENCE
  • Other concepts: wrongful dismissal, constructive dismissal
  • severance can be determined via common law (consider age, occupation, and length of time in company, among other relevant factors)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Negligent Misrepresentation

A
  • in recruitment and hiring
  • false statement of fact to induce another party (into contact, deal, etc)
  • implications drawn from common law
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Due Dilligence

A
  • level of judgment, care, prudence, determination and activity that a person should resonably be expected to exercise under particular circumstances
  • common law
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Contract Law

A
  • Emp’t contract is governed by general rules of contract law
  • Req’t of Contract: offer, acceptance, and consideration
  • can be written, verbal, or action based
  • typically outlines
    • pay
    • working conditions
    • performance expectations of rel’p
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Consideration (contract)

A
  • condition of valid contracts
  • the parties must have given up something to reach the agreement
  • emp’t contract - time that the empee is giving up and remuneration that the empr is giving up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

3 Components Required for a Contract

A
  • Offer
  • Acceptance
  • Consideration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Status of Non-employees & Contract Law

A
  • Contract law is important when managing the status of non-epee
  • reasons to employe non-epee
    • flexibility
    • limited liability
    • maintaining payroll costs
    • headcount numbers w/in budgeted limits
    • keeping epee/revenue ratios low
  • good way to access temporary help to accommodate uneven workloads
  • purchase special expertise for duration or project
  • bring back an experienced former epee on temporary or time-limited baiss
  • important that individuals fall within Revenue Canada’s guidelines defining INDEPENDENT CONTRACTOR status b/c emprs not req’d to submit STATUTORY REMITTANCES on behalf of contractors (income tax and CPP)
  • liability can be incurred in event contract worker is deemed to be an epee
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Contract of Service

A
  • between empr and epee
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Contract for service

A
  • between empr and independent contractor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Control Test

A 
Used to determine emp't status
Examines 4 elements
1) Empr's authority to select and hire
2) Empr's ability to determine means of payment
3) Empr's control and direction of work
4) Empr's right to disciplines
If all elements, then epee
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The Organization Test

A

Also known as integration test
Looks at
1) an individual’s DUTIES ARE VITAL to the survival of the org
2) the individual is ECONOMICALLY DEPENDENT on one establishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The Four Fold Test

A

Combines tests and most commonly used by courts
Examines
1) Control as defined by the control test
2) Ownership of tools
3) Chance of profit and risk of loss
4) Integration as defined by the organization test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The Permanency Test

A

looks the duration and durability of the relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Some Trends in Economic Environment

A
  • off-shoring
  • out-sourcing
  • multi-national organizations
  • greater attention to managing multi-cultural workforces
  • typically economic environment affects supply and demand of labour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The Labour Force

A

everyone of working age who are participating workers, that is people actively employer or seeking employment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The Labour Force Participation Rate

A

the ratio between the labour force and the overall size of their cohort (national population of the same age range)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The Unemployment Rate

A

the number of unemployed individuals divided by all individuals currently in the labour force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Frictional Unemployment

A

short term unemployment that is not related to a business cycle, e.g. people who are unemployed while waiting to start a different or better job, people re-entering the labour force, or people looking for their first jobs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Structural Unemployment

A

results from a mismatch of available jobs and the skills of the available labour force

leads to retraining

e.g. if the construction industry collapsed in the East, while it was growing in the West, skilled workers may consider relocating as a result of “structural unemployment” OR as a result of new technology, the demand for a particular occupation declines resulting in “structural unemployment”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Inflation

A

results in the average of all prices of goods and services rices, resulting in the reduction of purchasing power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Demand-pull inflation

A

occurs when the demand for goods and services is greater than the supply, resulting in prices increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cost-push inflation

A

triggered by increase in production costs, including the cost of labour, resulting in higher prices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Consumer Price Index (CPI)

A

measure used to track the rate of inflation

annual compensation adjustments are often tied to CPI to ensure epees retain the same level of purchasing power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Monetary Policy

A
  • one of two ways gov’t manages economy (monetary and fiscal policy)

= in which interest rates and amount of money circulating in the economy is controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Fiscal Policy

A
  • one of two ways gov’t manages economy (monetary and fiscal policy)

= in which the government uses taxation and government spending to affect the economy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Affinity Diagram

A

Also referred to as MIND-MAPPING

allow for the organization of ideas into related groping or issues (that have an affinity with one another)

Resolution of the grouped issues can then be done together rather than in isolation from one another

1) Record thoughts on cards or notes
2) Look for ideas that seem to be related
3) Sort into groups until all cards used

Can sort large clusters into subgroups

Can be used to create cause and effect diagram

Way of organizing brainstorms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Balanced Scorecard (BSC)

A

Overarching tool for measuring organizational performance in a more comprehensive manner than using traditional financial results

4 elements

1) The Customer
2) Financial Performance
3) Learning and Growth
4) Internal Processes

Recognize w/in org situation that there is a cause and effect rel’p between the 4 elements

Use of BSC shown that measuring other areas (aside from fin.) more often results in organization’s strategy being achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Elements of Balanced Scorecard - Measures

A
  • Financial Performance (profit as % of sales, profit per epee, return on equity or investment of capital employed, cash flow, account receivable turnover, inventory turnover)
  • Customer Measures - market share, customer satisfaction, customer complaints, return rates, customer retention
  • Internal Process Measures - on time delivery, stock outs, inventory turnover, defect %, cycle time, downtime
  • Learning and Growth - average/median years of service, epee turnover rate, absenteeism, epee satisfaction, diversity rate, training hours per epee, training dollars as % of epee salaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Elements of Balanced Scorecard - questions

A
  • Financial Performance: to succeed financially, how should we appear to our shareholders
  • Internal Business Processes: to satisfy our shareholders and customers, what business processes must we excel at?
  • Learning and growth:to achieve our vision, how will we sustain our ability to change and improve?
  • Customer: to achieve our vision, how should we appear to our customers?

All centred around vision and strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Lagging Indicator (BSC)

A

the measure describes past performance or performance to date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Leading Indicator (BSC)

A

the measure indicates performance that will occur in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Enabler (BSC)

A

Employee growth and learning

in that it is through epees that internal processes are improved, which leads to improved customer service and results in better financial performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Brainstorming

A

process used by teams to generate an exhaustive list of ideas for how to deal with a problem or exploit an opportunity

idea evaluation is only done when all ideas have been generated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Cause and Effect Diagram (Fishbone Diagram)

A

illustrates the problem (effect) on the right side, with a list of potential causes and related issues on the left using arrows organized in a fishbone pattern to pictorially represent the causes

Four types of causes

1) Machinery or Equipment
2) Methods or Processes
3) Materials
4) People

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

4 Types of Causes (Fishbone Diagrams)

A

1) Machinery or equipment
2) methods or processes
3) people
4) materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Cost/Benefit Analysis

A

Determination of costs and benefits that will flow from a particular decision or alternative course of action

important is effective determination in dollar amounts of benefits and costs

judgemental assessment has to be made of how likely the alternative is of succeeding and a probability, stated in percentage erms, assigned to that assessment

value of c/b - forces manager to identify costs and benefits in dollar terms asso’d w/ alt

addition of prob consideration further improves the dec making process b/c asks the manager to make an assessment of the likelihood of a particular alt achieving the benefits at the identified costs

attaching prob allows mngr to discriminate between an alt that has a substantial difference in benefits and costs but with a low probabilty of success from one that has a smaller difference in benefits over costs but a high prob of success

ROI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Critical Path Analysis

A

Sometimes called ACTIVITY DIAGRAM

Process used to flesh out the network of activities, activity durations, and elapsed time for a project

The critical path of a project is comprised of a series of activities that has no slack (no delay in sequencing and therefore drives the critical path of the project)

Positive slack indicates a project is ahead of schedule

Negative slack indicates behind schedule

Zero slack indicates on schedule

Purpose = identify the minimum length of time needed to complete a project, where you should accelerate activities to complete the project within the available time, and where you have slack in your schedule

Often combined with flowcharting, with task boxes filled with data related to: duration, start and completion times for activity

Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) is type of CPA

Move from pt A to pt B in most efficient way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Delphi Technique

A

qualitative tool used to ITERATIVELY collect individual input and feedback through a written process where the individuals - usually experts in the field - build upon the ideas of each other to synthesize a result

experts answer question, then anonymously give all results to everyone, then revise answers, converge to come to most likely correct answer

brainstorm from a distances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Flow Chart

A

pictorial representation of steps and decision points in a process

Std symbols are

  • Oval = inputs
  • Box or rectangle = task or activity
  • Diamond = where decision is required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Force Field Analysis

A

Process Developed by Kurt Lewin for listing “RESTRAINING FORCES” and “DRIVING FORCES” affecting a change or change situation

Forces both drive and restrain change (persons, habits, customs, attitudes)

usually done in conjunction w/ brainstorming where driving and restraining forces are identified

generally agreed by change management experts that it is easier to affect change by reducing restraining forces than by increasing driving forces

UNFREEZE -> TRANSITION -> REFREEZE

Use in change managemet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Gantt Charts

A

another form of ACTIVITY DIAGRAM

activities are charted in a spreadsheet format on the left side and calendar dates are spread across the top

start and competion dates are then marked on the spreadsheet for each of the activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Histograms

A

Bar charts

way of presenting data (e.g. historical perf info) in a bar chart format

the vertical axis on teh chart represents frequency and the horizontal axis represents measurement data which may vary over time

used when you need to discover and display the distribution of data by bar graphing the number of units in each category

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Pareto Chart

A

a form of vertical bar graph which helps us to determine which problems to solve in what order

bar chart and line chart combined; individual represented in bars and cumulative represented by line

purpose - highlight most important among many factors

pareto principle - 80% of business from 20% of customers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Nominal Group Techniue

A

a team-based, problem solving process that enhances participation and improves the quality of analysis and decision-making

involves individual generation of ideas, round-robin expression of these ideas, discussion and clarification of ideas, preliminary individual weighting of problems/issues/causes and/or ideas, discussion of preliminary weighting, and final agreement on weighted importance

Share ideas and then rank

“Dot Mocracy”

93
Q

PEST Analysis

A

Political
Economic
Social
Technological

Look at poli, econ, soci, and tech circumstances of org’n and determines what impact each might individually and collectively have on strategy direction

used in strategic planning

like SWOT

94
Q

Scatter Diagram

A

show the relationship between two variables plotted against x and y axis

x axis - DEPENDENT VARIABLE or effect
y axis - INDEPENDENT VARIABLE or cause

used to show if there is a CORRELATION btwn variables

degree of correlation can be mathematically determined by doing a regression, which produces a regression line on the graph that best fits all fo teh data points

diagram of correlation between 2 variables
+ve correlation or -ve correlation (inverse rel’p)

95
Q

SWOT Analysis

A

Internal elements - STRENGTHS & WEAKNESSES

External elements - OPPORTUNITIES & THREATS

used as basis for determining strategic direction and planning

New acronym in some textbooks SOAR - strengths, opportunities, abilities, and resources

96
Q

Utility Analysis

A

analytical and decision-making technique used to assess the “usefulness” or “success” of an initiative, program or strategy

quantitiave method that estimates the dollar value of benefits generated by an intervention based on the improvement it produces in productivity and/or performance

provides managers w/ info they can use to evaluate the financial impact of an intervention, including computing a return on their investment in implementing it

E.g. in relation to assessing recruitment procedures, utility analysis is defined as “a decision making procedure that is used to evaluate selection systems by determining the net gains that accrue to the organization from their use

Purpose = how useful is this method/strategy

97
Q

Descriptive statistics

A

simply explain or describe what is

provide a “snapshot” in time

98
Q

Measurement of Central Tendency (location on a distribution of data)

A
  • mean
  • median
  • mode
99
Q

Mean

A

average of all data points or values

used for compensation surveys

100
Q

Median

A

the mid point of the scores where half of the distribution is greater than, and half is less than the located data point

used for epee surveys

101
Q

Mode

A

the data point that occurs most often

used for epee surveys

bimodal = two data pts

102
Q

Measures of Variability

A

describe how spread out the distribution of data points is

include range and variance

103
Q

Range

A

the difference between the highest and lowest data points or values

104
Q

Variance

A

the average difference between any one data point and the mean of all the data points

indicates how values are spread around the expected value - usually the mean

variance indicates the scale of the values or how dramatically the value differs from the expected value or mean

when doing the calculation, all differences need to be squared to avoid an outcome of 0

105
Q

Standard Deviation

A

measures the square root of the variation of the distribution of data points around the mean

at least 75% of values in any pop’n are w/in 2 std deviations from meand

approx 95% of values in population having normal distribution are within 2 std deviations away from mean

most common measure of statistical dispersion

if data pts close to mean, std dev is close to 0

if many data pts are far away from mean, then std dev is far from zero

if all data pts are equal, then std dev is zero

low std devi on particular question on survey indicates strong agreement

106
Q

Normal Distribution

A

extremely important probability distribution in many fields

std normal dis’n has a mean of zero, the mean and the median being the same and a std dev of 1

often called a bell curve b/c graph of it resembles a bell

68-95-99.7 rule

107
Q

Inferential Statistics

A

techniques for drawing inferences or predictions from data

involve DEPENDENT AND INDEPENDENT variables where data pts are entered on a SCATTER DIAGRAM and inferences are made as to how significantly the dependent variable is influenced by the independent variable (e.g. how much t/o is influenced by epee attitude as measured by an attitude survey)

used to evaluate characteristics of workforce for strategic planning

108
Q

Validity

A

a measure of legitimacy, correctness, or accuracy of the INFERENCES that are drawn from a set of measurments

are we measuring what we purport to be measuring

is it accurate

109
Q

Content Valdity

A

ensures that the assessment method or test accurately asesses the skills and knowledge it sets out to assess (i.e. a typing test actually assess the speed and accuracy of the typist)

least complicated level of validity to measure

110
Q

Criterion-related validity

A

measures teh accuracy of an assessment (e.g. IQ test) to predict or correlated with job perf

i.e. that the skills required on the job can be effectively assessed through the assessment and that those who score high on the assessment will perform better on the job than those who score low on the assessment

relation

111
Q

Criterion Deficiency

A

occurs when test doesn’t measure everything that’s important

e.g. employment tests - assessment would be criterion deficient if it did not assess all of the essential skills required to perform on the job

have neglected to assess key piece

112
Q

Criterion Contamination

A

occurs when the assessment measures things that are irrelevant

assessment would have criterion contamination if the assessment was really measuring language skills instead of knowledge when language skills are not important to perform on the job

testing irrelevant items

113
Q

Predictive Validity

A

ensures that the assessment method or instrument accurately predicts performance on the job

initially it involves assessing candidates using an assessment tool, and then reassessing the selected candidates later on the job

because only successful candidates are hired, on disadvantage is what is called “range restriction” since it is less likely that it can be proven that the tool would also predict poor performance

114
Q

Concurrent Validity

A

type of criterion related validity

involves the collection of test data and perf measures at the same time from a group of current job incumbents in order to assess whether proven good performers do well on the assessment being used to select new candidates

115
Q

Convergent Validity

A

shows that the assessment is related to what it should be theoretically be related to

determined by correlating results of one test with the results of another test that is designed to measure the same thing

116
Q

Face Validity

A

relates to whether a test appears to be good measure or not

judgment made on face of test

117
Q

Range Restriction

A

criterion related validity such as concurrent validity suffer from range restriction b/c unlikely existing epees will score low on assessment since low performers either were never hired or have since been terminated

have to have low scores to determine if poor performance

no way to tell if scores correlated with perf

118
Q

Reliability

A

a measure of stability of dependability over repeated applications of a measurement procedure

the degree to which observed scores are free from random measurement errors

same/similar result if repeated

119
Q

Standard error of measurement

A

shows how a person’s score would vary, on average, over repeated observations that were made under identical conditions

120
Q

Correlation

A

the strength of relationships between two variables, indicating both size and direction of the relationship

perfect correlation is +1.00 or -1.00

  1. 90 to 1.00 v. high
  2. 70 to 0.89 high
  3. 50 to 0.69 moderate
  4. 30 to 0.49 low
  5. 00 to 0.29 little to none
121
Q

Regression

A

the mathematical equation for the straight line that best fits the data points in a scatter diagram (illustrating g a correlation between two variables)

122
Q

Multiple Regression

A

the use of a number of independent of “predictor variables” combined into an equation to indicate the extent to which they, taken as a whole, are related to the dependent or “criterion variable”

this relationship is called a correlation

it is possible to have a correlation between and independent and dependent variables, as well as between two independent variables

123
Q

Meta Analysis

A

combines the results of several studies that address a set of related research hypotheses

performed in an attempt to overcome the problem of reduced statistical power in studies with small sample sizes because analyzing the results from a group of studies increases the sample size and therefore increases the probability that the data accurately reflects the real situation

focused on contrasting and combining studies to find patterns

not same power as larger study

124
Q

Psychometrics

A

field concerned with the theory and techniques of psychological measurement such as aptitude tests and interest inventories

125
Q

Application of Statistics

A

often used in assessing org’l effectiveness, conducting epee surveys, est’g comp’n surveys, eval’g training, and testing job candidates

e.g., if a selection test does not measure the skills required of a job, the assessment would be found to not have criterion related validity

if the skill is not a BFOR and systematically discriminates against individuals protected by HuRi leg’n, the assessment could be considered illegal

126
Q

Revenue Budgeting

A

financial plan outlining anticipated revenues

127
Q

Cost or Expense Budgeting

A

associated with an accounting period, project, or initiatives

128
Q

Budgeting

A

part of financial control process

most budgeting done by HR professionals is for costs

129
Q

Activity-based Budgeting (ABB)

A

presents a budget in terms of the anticpated cost of a particular activity or program, rather than traditional budget which lumps costs under factors such as:

  • compensation
  • travel
  • training across all activities

Advantage - organization can effectively assess the activities that make the greatest contribution to the bottom line

thereby decreasing the costs associated with activities of little value, while focusing on improving the cost effectivness of those activities that are essential to the success of the organization

sometimes referred to as PROGRAM BUDGETING

130
Q

Zero-Based Budgeting (ZBB)

A

based on the principal that the “clock is reset” at the beginning of each budget period with anticipated costs being based upon plans not past expenses

zero based budgeting is aimed at eliminating a sense of entitlement and complacency by making managers think about and justify their planned expenses

131
Q

Line-item budgeting

A

type most typically found in the HR function

each expense item (e.g. wages, benefits, materials etc) is a line item in the budget and projected amounts are entered in the budget for each of these line items

most common

132
Q

Operating Budget

A

lists all of the anticipated expenses and income for a specified period of time

133
Q

Capital Budget

A

lists the estimated costs of all items of a capital nature such as the purchase of equipment, furniture and vehicles that are planned in that budget year

they are budgeted separately because they will not be used up during the budget period or budget cycle

134
Q

Cash Budgeting

A

detailed estimate of cash inflows and outflows incorporating revenue, expenses and capital

estimate of future cash receipts and payments tabulated in such a ways as to show the forecasted cash balance (i.e. what is in the bank account) of a business at certain time intervals

135
Q

Balance Sheet

A

statement of the financial position of a business at the end of an accounting period (fiscal year end)

Assets = Liabilities + Equity
items that are typically found on a B/S
- assets
- liabilities
- retained earnings
- shareholder equity
136
Q

Assets

A

a listing of everything that an organization owns or that is due to it

current (i.e. cash, accounts receivable, finished inventory, and materials)

fixed (buildings, and machinery)

intangible (patents, trademarks, copyrights and goodwill - example of goodwill is rep’n and gen difference between value of assets and purchase)

137
Q

Liabilities

A

listing of everything the org owes

short term (wages owed to epees, accounts payable)

long term (mortgages, bonds, debentures, or other forms of debt owed by the org)

138
Q

Retained Earnings

A

represent the difference between assets and liabilities and are the sum of all profits (that were not paid out to the shareholders) the org has made since its inception

139
Q

Shareholder Equity

A

represents the total of retained earning plus the original investment made by the shareholders to start the org

140
Q

Depreciation

A

the charge that is applied to capital or fixed assets on the B/S

represents the reduction in value of those assets over their useful working life

also referred to as AMORTIZATION

it is an expense that is entered on the income statement

141
Q

Capital Cost Allowance

A

the amount allowed to be deducted from income by tax authorities for depreciation calculation purposes

142
Q

Book Value

A

the value of an asset on the company’s books after depreciation has been deducted

143
Q

Working Capital

A

calculated as current assets less current liabilities and represents the monies the organization has to work with in the ST

CA - CL

144
Q

Income Statement

A

summary of revenues and expenses incurred for a given time period (fiscal year) or period within the year

items that are typically found on an I/S

  • sales revenue
  • other income
  • cost of goods sold
  • selling and admin expenses
  • amortization expenses
  • interest expense
  • tax expense
  • profit
  • EBITDA
145
Q

Sales Revenue

A

total value of goods and services sold to customers during the accounting period

146
Q

Other income

A

income to the company other than sales revenues (i.e. the sale of investments or real estate that are not core to the business)

147
Q

Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)

A

cost of the units of inventory sold during the accounting period

148
Q

Selling and Admin Expenses

A

total of all the expenses (salaries, rent, etc) during the period

expenses may be ACCRUED in that they have occurred but not yet been paid for or PRE-PAID and not yet used

149
Q

Amortization Expnses

A

depreciation costs assigned to capital assets for the period

150
Q

Interest Expenses

A

amount of interest the organization paid during the period on its debts

151
Q

Tax Expenses

A

taxes levied on the company’s profits during the period

152
Q

Profit

A

difference between the revenue generated and the expenses incurred for the accounting period

NET INCOME OR EARNINGS

Revenue - Expenses

153
Q

EBITDA

A

term used in assessing org’s financial health

EARNINGS BEFORE INTEREST, TAXES, DEPRECIATION AND AMORTIZATION

represents money, in cash, made by an organization from its operations

154
Q

Cash Flow Statement

A

statement of the changes in the org’s cash position

shows inflows of cash - from either operations (i.e. profit on the I/S) or financing (i.e. borrowing or sale of shares)

shows outflows of cash to either cover operating expenses or investments in assets

CASH FLOW movement is important to an org because its financial stability is ultimately dependent upon whether the flow is positive or negative

155
Q

Capitalization

A

represents the initial amount of money put into the org by investors to start and maintain its operations

156
Q

Gross Margin/Profit

A

difference between revenue and cost of goods sold

Rev - COGS

157
Q

Cost or Management Accounting

A

use of cost information to manage organizations effectively and may include activity-based cost accounting that portrays costs (after-the-fact) of projects and services delivered

158
Q

Costs

A

Fixed or Variable

Fixed - do not change with an increase in production or service

Variable - increase with production/service

Related to breakeven

Costs can be direct or indirect

159
Q

Breakeven

A

Point where the revenues that are being generated are equal to the fixed and variable costs associated with those revenues

B/E units = FC / CM

CM = P - VC [per unit]

160
Q

Direct Costs

A

costs that can be directly assigned to a product or service and are often variable

e.g. the cost of manuals for a training program

161
Q

Indirect Costs

A

cannot be assigned to a product, program, or service and are sometimes referred to as overhead

tend to be allocated to projects/units

162
Q

Contribution to Overhead

A

when revenue from activity covers all of its direct costs any surplus revenue that is generated is referred to as

163
Q

Transaction Accounting

A

can be done on a ACCRUAL BASIS (where expenses and revenues are recognized in the period in which they occur and not when actual cash flows in or out)

Or a CASH BASIS (where revenues and expenses are recognized when the cash flows in or out)

164
Q

Accrual basis

A

accounting where expenses/reve are recognized in the period in which they occur and not when actual CF occurs

165
Q

Cash Basis

A

accounting where rev/exp recognized when CF occurs

166
Q

Internal Control System

A

the set of policies and procedures an organization puts in place to ensure its assets and financial reporting systems are protected from corruption or theft

167
Q

Ratio Analysis

A

analytical technique for relating different aspects of the financial statements to one another

common ones:
- profitability ratios –> return on assets/equity/investment/capital employed - ROA, ROE, ROI, ROCE

  • liquidity ratios (current ratio and acid test)
  • solvency ratios (debt/equity and interest/dividend cover)
  • earnings per share
  • price/earnings ratio (P/E)
168
Q

Profitability Ratios (ROA, ROE, ROI, ROCE)

A

ratio of net income or profit the organization has earned to the assets, equity, investment or capital employed to earn that income

they are calculated by dividing the net income number on the income statement by the balance sheet numbers for assets, equity or investment

169
Q

Liquidity ratios (current ratio and acid test)

A

show the ratio of current assets to current liabilities and are an indication of whether the org can meet its financial commitments in the ST

  • Current ratio = CA/CL
  • Acid test = (Cash + Accounts Rec + ST inv) / CL
170
Q

Solvency Ratios (debt/equity and interest/dividend cover)

A

show whether the org can meet its financing commitments to pay its debts or cover interest or dividend obligations

171
Q

Earnings per share

A

ratio calculated by dividing the org’s earnings by the number of shares owners have it in. It is a way of showing return on investment on a per share basis

172
Q

Price/earnings ratio (P/E)

A

is a ratio that represents the number of times the earnings per share have to be multiplied to equal the value of a share

173
Q

Net Present Value (NPV)

A

value today of a series of payments in the future using an agreed interest rate to discount those future payments

way of showing in financial terms how future payments have less value than payments received in the present

concept of future payments having less value is often referred to as the time value of money

174
Q

Opportunity cost

A

the lost earnings that might have been achieved by making a different investment or expenditure

e.g. if an investor leaves all of his/her capital as cash in a bank account that pays no intererest then the opportunity cost is the interest she/he might have earned had the money been put in an interest bearing account

175
Q

Leverage

A

financial term that relates to an org’s use of debt to improve the return to shareholders

represents the difference between what an org has to pay to borrow money (i.e. interest) and what it can make on its operations (i.e. earnings or income)

176
Q

Cost of Capital

A

cost of funds that an organization raises and uses, and the return that investors expect to be paid for putting funds into it

it is the MINIMUM RETURN that an organization should make on its own investments, to earn the CF out of which investors can be paid their return

177
Q

Economic Value Added (EVA)

A

the after-tax cash generated by a business minus the cost of capital it has deployed to generate that cash

representing real profit versus paper profit, EVA underlies shareholder value

built on concept that the key business processes of the firm are capital and represent investments

Accounting systems that expense salaries, software development, rent, training, and other ongoing costs that are integral to company’s success to often obscure this fact

EVA proponents say forget the accounting rules and for internal purposes, call these things what they are - capital investments - and then determine the economic benefit they provide to the firm

By treating processes and process improvements as capital assets and investments, firms can ensure that these assets directly contribute to economic value added

178
Q

International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) and Accounting Standards for Private Enterprises (ASPE - formerly GAAP)

A

guidelines established by financial accounting standards boards

used by org to put together their accounting information

purpose of financial accounting system is to gather, track and provide info to management and others so that the org’s resources can be effectively managed

179
Q

Human Capital/Resource Metrics

A

measurements - mostly ratios - that calibrate an org’s human resource management performance

E.g. include revenue/employee, attrition rate, payroll as % of total rev/exp, annual training investment per epee, etc

When fully developed and reported, these metrics generally make up an HR BALANCED SCORE CARD

180
Q

Project Management

A

application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations of a project

181
Q

Project manager

A

Also referred to as Project Coordinator or Leader

manages the details of the project on a day-to-day basis

182
Q

Project Management Conflicting Demands

A

ongoing challenge that requires an understanding of the broader contextual environment of the project and the ability to balance conflicting demands between:

  • available resources and expectations
  • differing stakeholder priorities
  • identified needs and project scopes
  • quality and quantity

Process described in terms of

  • inputs
  • tools and techniques
  • outputs
183
Q

Project Management Process Groups (5)

A

1) initiating
2) planning
3) executing
4) monitoring and controlling
5) closing

184
Q

Project Management Knowledge Areas (9)

A

1) Project Integration Management
2) Project Scope Management
3) Project Time Management
4) Project Cost Management
5) Project quality Management
6) Project Human Resource Management
7) Project Communication Management
8) Project Risk Management
9) Project Procurement Management

triangle - 3 corners - timeline, quality, and cost (interconnected)

185
Q

Characteristics of Successful Projects

A

1) Clear Objectives (from outset)
2) A Good Project Plan
3) Communication
4) A Controlled Scope
5) Stakeholder Support

186
Q

Good Project Plan

A

1) allows everyone involved to understand and perform their part; shows who is responsible for what and estimates resources required (money, ppl, equipment, and time)
2) serves as a monitoring tool, allowing early action to be taken if things go wrong

187
Q

Project Communication

A

Project = collaboration effort btwn all indv and org involved

everyone needs to work together to maintain effective and continual communication

188
Q

Project Scope

A

numerous problems occur and not all contribut to the projects overall objective

important to stay focused on priorities with little wasted time or attention

189
Q

Stakeholder Support

A

typ involve stakeholders who invest tim and resources in project

important to maintain stakeholder support throughout the project so the project team can meet its objectives

190
Q

Purposes of Project Plan

A

1) ground rules - need to understand and agree to rules that will govern project; ensure obj clearly stated so there is no disagreement later
2) helps control and measure progress
3) help deal with any changes that may occur
4) help to cement stakeholder support over the coming months and years of the project

191
Q

What is in a Project Plan

A

needs to be relevant, understandable and complete, and reflect size and complexity of project

Elements:
1) a project charter

2) a calendar of activities
3) a time schedule
4) a responsibility matrix
5) a project plan budget
6) major milestones with target dates
7) a risk management strategy

192
Q

Project Charter

A

Document that demo. mngmt support for project

authorizes project mngr to lead

allocates resources as required

193
Q

Calendar of Activities

A

Divides project into individual tasks; important tool

  • provides detailed view of scope
  • allows for monitoring completed and remaining tasks
  • allows tracking of labour, time, and costs for each task
  • allows for assigning responsibility for specific tasks to team members
  • allows team members to understand how they fit into the “big picture”
194
Q

The Time Schedule

A

Allows for

  • Identifies logical rel’p btwn project activities
  • Ensures personnel is available for tasks when needed
  • helps manage time effectively and complete the project when planned

Requires a review of all the tasks and sequences

Dependent tasks (can only be started w/ the completion of others)
Concurrent tasks (same time if sufficient HR)

external factors may influence schedule

Project Mngmt software permits use of Gantt charts for schedules, which are popular b/c graphically display rel’p btwn tasks

195
Q

The Responsibility Matrix

A

Ensures that someone accept responsibility for each major project activity and nothing falls through cracks.

Codes for various responsibilities:

  • S –> sign off
  • A –> accountable
  • P –> participant
  • I –> input
196
Q

The Project Plan Budget

A

further identifies cost estimates for all tasks outlined in the time schedule

Major cost categories:

  • Wages
  • Materials and Supplies
  • Overhead
197
Q

Major Milestones and Target Dates

A

Milestones = significant events in project, usually the completion of major deliverable

198
Q

What is Risk?

A

inherent in all projects

Risk –> uncertain event or condition that has a cause and, that if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project’s objective and consequence on project cost, schedule, or quality

199
Q

Risk Management Strategy

A

1) Identifying Risks - identify risks that might affect the project
2) Developing Risk Response Strategies - cannot prepare for all; high probability or high impact risks merit immediate actions; effectivness determines whether risk increases or decreases for your project’s objectives

200
Q

Types of Risk Response Strategies

A

1) Avoidance
2) Transference
3) Mitigation
4) Acceptance

201
Q

Avoidance (Risk Response Strat)

A

changing the project plan to eliminate the risk or protect the objectives from its impact

202
Q

Transference (Risk Response Strat)

A

shifting the management and consequence of the risk to a third part

203
Q

Mitigation (Risk Response Strat)

A

Reducing the probability and/or consequence of an adverse risk event to an acceptable threshold

taking early action is more effective than trying to repair the consequences after it has occurred

204
Q

Acceptance (Risk Response Strat)

A

deciding not to change the project plan to deal with a risk

PASSIVE ACCEPTANCE requires no action

ACTIVE ACCEPTANCE may include developing contingency plans for action should the risk occur

205
Q

Key Process Areas (KPAs)

A

Identifies a cluster of related activities that, when performed together, achieve a set of goals that are important

Each each key process, there are 5 definitions or common features:

  • Goals
  • Commitment
  • Ability
  • Measurement
  • Vertification
206
Q

Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

A

Metrics used to indicate and assess performance

Sub categories:

  • quantitative (presented w/ #)
  • qualitative (cannot be presented w/ #)
  • leading (predict future outcome)
  • lagging (present success/failure after the fact)
  • input (amount of resources consumed to generate output)
  • process (efficiency or productivity of process)
  • Output (reflect outcome or results of process activities)
  • practical (interface with existing company processes)
  • directional (indicate whether org is improving or not)
  • actionable (sufficiently in control of org to affect change)
  • financial (used in perf measurement and when looking at operating index)
207
Q

Capability Maturity Model

A

Maturity refers to degree of formality and optimization of processes.

Viewed as a set of structured levels that describe how well the behaviours, practices, and processes of an org can reliably and sustainably produce required outcomes

Identifies 5 levels of process maturity for an org:

1) Initial (chaotic, ad hoc) - starting point for new or undocumented repeat process
2) repeatable (project manageable, disciplined) - process is sufficiently documented that repeating the same steps may be attempted
3) Defined (insitutionalized) - process is defined/confirmed as a standard business process
4) Managed - the process is quantitatively managed in accordance with agreed upon metrics
5) Optimizing (ongoing organic improvement) - process management includes deliberate process optimization/improvement

208
Q

ISO (international standards for organizations)

A

global system for establishing consistency in quality and performance based upon agreed measures, processes, and standards of performance

209
Q

Program Evaluation

A

collecting of information about a program, or some aspect of a program, in order to make necessary decisions about it

program evaluation can include any or all of a variety of different types of evaluation, such as

  • needs assessments
  • accreditation
  • cost/benefit analysis
  • formative
  • summative
  • goal based
  • process
  • outcomes
  • etc

the type of evaluation undertaken depends on what needs to be known

program evaluation takes place mostly in the non-profit sector

210
Q

HR Information Management

A

Collection and storage of epee info

payroll and benefits, plus administration

changing expectation have increased importance of analyzing and utilizing HRI

  • managing and developing epee
  • ensuring efficient perf of HR func’n
  • strategic planning and measuring of org’l perf

increase in data collection + migration of HRIS from paper to computers = privacy and security concerns

  • what is collected
  • how it is stored and use
  • who has access
211
Q

Legislation relevant to HRIM

A

1) Income Tax Laws and Regulation
2) Workers Compensation and Occupational Health and Safety Legislation
3) Employment Equity Legislation
4) Human Rights Legislation
5) Employment Standards Legislation
6) Personal Information Protection and Electronics Document Act (PIPEDA)

212
Q

Income Tax Laws and Regulations (HRIM)

A

regarding payroll witholdings and remittances

213
Q

Workers compensation and Occupational Health and Safety Legislation (HRIM)

A

covers information related to controlled substances, the reporting of accidents and incidents occurring in the workplace, and release of epee information for claims filing and administration purposes

214
Q

Employment Equity Legislation (HRIM)

A

requires federally regulated or contracted organizations (doing over a certain dollar amount of business with the federal gov’t) to collect and report epee population demographics regarding target groups

215
Q

Human Rights Legislation (HRIM)

A

Requires epee info to be retained by organizations for a minimum period of time

216
Q

PIPEDA (HRIM)

A

law relating to data privacy enacted by the federal gov’t in 2000 but rolled out in three stages

2001 - the law applied to federally regulated industries (e.g., airlines, banking and broadcasting)

2002 - the law was expanded to include the health sector

2004 - any org that collects personal info in the course of commercial activity was covered by PIPEDA, except in provinces that have substantially similar privacy laws

Personal information = information about an identifiable individual, but does NOT include the name, title, or business address or telephone number of an employee of an organization

217
Q

PIPEDA (HRIM): Rights

A
  • know why an org collects, uses or discloses PI
  • expect an org to collect, use, or disclose PI reasonably and appropriately and not use info for any purpose other than that to which they have consented
  • know who in the org is resp for protecting PI
  • expect an org to protect their PI by taking appropriate security measures
  • expect the PI an org holds about them to be accurate, complete and up to date
  • obtain access to PI and ask for corrections if necessary
  • complain about how an org handles their PI if they feel their privacy rights have not been respected
218
Q

PIPEDA (HRIM): Responsibilities of Org

A
  • obtain consent when they collect, use, or disclose PI
  • supply an indv w/ a product/service even if they refuse consent for the collection, use, or disclosure of your PI unless that info is essential to the transaction
  • collect info by fair and lawful means
  • have PI policies that are clear, understandable, and readily available
219
Q

PIPEDA (HRIM): complaint process

A

Does not create an automatic right to sue for violations of the law’s obligations

follows an ombudsman model in which complaints are taken to the Office of the Privacy Commissioner of Canada

The Commissioner is required to investigate the complaint and to produce a report at its conclusion

The report is not binding on the parties but is more of a recommendation

The commissioner does not have any powers to order compliance, award damages, or levy penalties

The organization complained about does not have to follow the recommendations

the complainant with the report can then take the matter to the Federal Court of Canada for a hearing with respect to the subject matter of the complaint

The Court has the power to order the org to correct it practices, to publicize the steps it will take to correct its practices and to award damages

220
Q

HRM IS Design Principles

A

implementation of HRIS extends availa/utility of epee info to HR and line mngrs

The kinds of information collected, stored and available for use and analysis are:

  • “tombstone” data
  • application forms, resumes, employment contracts/letters of engagement
  • HR planning information, including recruitment and selection information
  • performance (including attendance) and disciplinary data
  • compensation and benefit information
  • skills inventories
  • training records
  • health and safety records
  • career interests
221
Q

General Rules regarding collection and use of info in HRMS

A

collected only once

securely stored

integrated

used only for legit purposes to benefit org/epee

222
Q

Tests for Optimal HRIS

A

1) ACCURACY - are data accepted/rejected according to agreed standards and is there a data verification/audit process?
2) ACCESSIBILITY - can the info be easily accessed and updated?
3) COMPLETENESS - are all the data there?
4) AUTHORIZATION - is access properly controlled according to rules?
5) RECONSTRUCTION - can information be recovered?
6) INTEGRITY - does the information remain accurate?
7) SECURITY - is the system protected from intrusion?
8) PROCESSING - can changes be made and integrated easily into the system?
9) INTEGRATION - how well does the system integrate with other systems?
10) RESPONSIVENESS - is it responsive to the needs of users?
11) COMPLIANCE - does it comply with applicable policies and legislation?
12) COST EFFECTIVE - does it meet established cost management benchmarks?

223
Q

HRIS Design Considerations

A

Can be a very powerful COMMUNICATION TOOL for mngmt to disseminate epee related info and epee self serve access to policies and programs

Other design considerations include:

  • build today’s system FOR TOMORROW (SCALABILITY)
  • design for FLEXIBILITY
  • design for DECENTRALIZED ACCESS and administration
  • create public data for MULTIPLE USERS
  • include OUTSIDE DATA as well as internal information
  • ensure it has capacity to store and MANAGE HISTORY
  • design for REGULATORY COMPLIANCE
  • build in TRAINING AND DOCUMENTATION
  • accommodate management and employee SELF-SERVICE where appropriate
  • build in performance METRICS
  • include policies and procedures, NOT JUST DATA
224
Q

HRIS Technical Design Considerations

A

historically - computer-based part has been built on client-server basis

expansion of internet, becoming web-based and use of intranet for many aspects of system (e.g. epee policy info, newsletters, records updating, perf mngmt, etc)

Cloud computing enables the delivery, storage, and access of data by a third part, resulting in economies of scale over a network

software requirements - decisions have to be made as to which of the many available programs should be used. All of the tests outlined previously apply when considering which software to use

225
Q

Two Areas of Interest for HR Metrics

A

generally - measuring HR processes and effectiveness provides opportunities for continuous improvement

1) how effectively is the HR function contributing to the organization’s mission, strategy, goals and objectives?
2) How well is the organization managing its human assets?

226
Q

Measuring HR

A
  • necessary in order to translate essential trasactional services into strategy programs and initiatives
  • generally recognized that a BALANCED SCORECARD approach is the most appropriate way to measure these two areas, considering cost, process, people, and customer satisfaction
227
Q

Type of Data/Info to be used in Measuring HR

A

1) COST –> cost per hire, benefit cost per epee, training cost per epee, etc.
2) MOVEMENT/DEPLOYMENT –> turnover, attrition, transfers, promotions
3) ENGAGEMENT/SATISFACTION –> opinion, grievances, absenteeism, exit interview results
4) HR SERVICE SATISFACTION –> time to fill, benefit reimbursement time, survey, etc
5) EMPLOYEE DEVELOPMENT - training days per epee, training evaluations, etc.
6) ADMINISTRATIVE EFFECTIVENESS –> payroll errors, file audit, processing times
7) HEALTH AND SAFETY –> lost-time injuries, FEAP utilization
8) PROGRAMS –> metrics for each program (e.g. performance management would be % of up-to-date performance plans on file)

228
Q

Importance of HR Metrics

A

increasingly important part of HRM

important to monitor performance of HR dept

important because organizations as they migrate towards a balanced scorecard approach to measuring corporate performance are realizing that the way they manage their human assets has significant impact on their performance in other areas

229
Q

HR Metric Service

A

leading CAD resource for providing up to date HR business data

collaborate venture by the BCHRMA, Human Resource Institute of Alberta (HRIA), the Human Resource Management Association of Manitoba (HRMAM), and the Human Resources Professionals Association (HRPA)

National Knowledge Exam (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions