Production midterm Flashcards
Recommend induction of birth in swine A) 105 days of gestation B) 107 days of gestation C) 109 days of gestation D) 112 days of gestation
D) 112 days of gestation
Most common mistake of unsuccessful IM injection in swine A) Injection in fat tissue B) Intravenous injection C) The needle is too long D) Poorly chosen needle diameter
A) Injection in fat tissue
Most common abnormality during birth? A) Uterine + cervical prolapse B) Uterine rupture C) Invasion of the uterine horn D) Invagination of the uterine horns
A) Uterine + cervical prolapse
Which of the following is not a notifiable disease? A) Infectious swine paralysis B) Swine pox C) Swine vesicular disease D) vascular stomatitis
B) Swine pox
Which is true for oily dermatitis?
A) Is caused by Streptococcus suis
B) Occurs more frequently in obese animals
C) The most important clinical symptom is itching
D) Can be prevented with proper hygiene
D) Can be prevented with proper hygiene
What kind of laporatomy do you use in swine (C-section) A) Right or left flank incision B) Ventral paramedial laparotomy C) Left flank incision only D) Left paralumbar laparotomy only
A) Right or left flank incision
Which blood vessel is capable of TIVA in swine A) V. cava caudalis B) V. cava cranialis C) V. Jugularis D) Marginal ear vein
D) Marginal ear vein
Break in oestrus cycle in swine
A) In cold winter (Winter infertility)
B) In hot summers (Summer infertility)
C) In spring, when the days gets longer (Spring infertility)
B) During the hot summers (Summer infertility)
Enteritis in pigs
A) There may be clinical symptoms resulting from pathogenic specific lesion
B) Hypersecretion develops after Lawsonia intracellularis infection resulting in spesific diarrhoea
C) Healing rate with appropriate diet is 90-96%
D) Different level of inflammatory lesions in intestine during bacterial or viral infection
D) Different level of inflammatory lesions in intestine during bacterial or viral infection
Therapy for oesophagus ulcer A) Separation per age group B) Reduction of stress C) Metoclopramide D) Prostaglandin F2 alpha
B) Reduction of stress
What happens in swine after the use of azeperone A) Malignant hypothermia B) Malignant hyperthermia C) Peripheral vasodilation D) Cardiac arrest
C) Peripheral vasodilation
Which one is false in term of thrombocytopenic purpura?
A) Suckling pig disease
B) Type 2 hypersensitivity
C) Most common at first birth
D) Symptoms include weakness, anaemia and bleeding all over the body
C) Most common at first birth
Birth induction in swine A) Dexamethasone IM injection B) Oxytocin IM injection C) Prostaglandin F2 alpha injection D) PG 600 IM injection
C) Prostaglandin F2 alpha injection
Which one is true for azaperone in swine?
A) Lower dose (mg/ttkg) is required in smaller weight animals
B) Higher dose (mg/ttkg) is required in smaller weight animals
C) Lower dose (mg/ttkg) is required in bigger weight animals
D) Higher dose (mg/ttkg) is required in a bigger weight animal
C) Lower dose (mg/ttkg) is required in bigger weight animals
Which of the following statements are true for osteoporosis?
A) Vitamin D, Ca, P deficiency in growing pigs
B) Symptoms are sudden, severe lameness
C) The amount of both trabecular and cortical bone is lower
D) Joint cartilage does not show symptoms
A) Vitamin D, Ca, P deficiency in growing pigs
What is true for anaesthesia in swine?
A) No feeding for at least 4 hours (6 hours before abdominal surgery)
B) No feeding for at least 6 hours (4 hours before abdominal surgery)
C) No feeding for at least 12 hours (6 hours before abdominal surgery)
D) No feeding for at least 6 hours (12 hours before abdominal surgery)
D) No feeding for at least 6 hours (12 hours before abdominal surgery)
Which is not a congenital skin disease? A) Pityriasis rosea B) Myoclonia congenita C) Epitheliogenesis imperfecta D) Dermatosis vegetans
B) Myoclonia congenita
Which is a true statement
A) Use of prostagens in gilt for oestrus synchronisation
B) Use of prostagens in sow for oestrus synchronisation
C) In pigs, the correct time for insemination is when the mucous droplets appear
A) Use of prostagens in gilt for oestrus synchronisation
Which is false for suckling pig’s hypoglycaemia?
A) Preventing cold conditions help treat the disease
B) Easily treatable using glucose in marginal ear vein
C) Can be treated with oral glucose or milk replacer
D) Easily treatable injecting glucose intraperitoneal
B) Easily treatable using glucose in marginal ear vein
Swine pericarditis
A) It is mainly cause by improper temperature in the barn
B) It is associated with the formation of transudate
C) In differential diagnosis there is Glässer-disease
D) Fibrines are unlikely to cause sweating
C) In differential diagnosis there is Glässer-disease
Which hypovitaminosis cause hepatosis dietetica? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B1 C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin E
D) Vitamin E
What is the standing reflex (test)
A) At the time of kicking, the sow remains stationary under pressure due to pressure on her back. Oestrus period can be determined that way
B) During pregnancy, the sow remains immobile under pressure on her back, that is one method of early pregnancy testing
C) The newborn piglet, when turned on its back, will turn back immediately, their viability
D) If we put pressure on the back of a healthy lying pig, it will get up, doing so we can select sick individuals
A) At the time of kicking, the sow remains stationary under pressure due to pressure on her back. Oestrus period can be determined that way
What is true of the effectiveness of xylazine? A) Pig > Horse > Cattle B) Horse > Pig > Cattle C) Horse > Cattle > Pig D) Cattle > Horse > Pig
D) Cattle > Horse > Pig
Therapy of mulberry heart disease A) Restriction of movement of the animal B) Vitamin E and Selenium supplementation in the feed C) Digoxin 2 ppm with feed D) Furosemide 2-4 mg/kg per os
B) Vitamin E and Selenium supplementation in the feed
Which site is the preferable IM injection in swine A) Comb muscle B) Cervical muscle (neck muscle) C) Both D) Neither
B) Cervical muscle (neck muscle)
What is the appropriate temperature for sperm storage? A) Native ejaculate, frozen B) Native ejaculate, chilled (16-17 C) C) Diluted ejaculate, chilled (16-17 C) D) Diluted ejaculate, chilled (4 C)
C) Diluted ejaculate, chilled (16-17 C)