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Production midterm > Farm animal medicine past midterm Q > Flashcards

Farm animal medicine past midterm Q Flashcards

1
Q

When do I not necessarily need to perform a c-section in a sow?
1. During uterine torsion
2. Usually it can be applied in presentation failures, but its not often indicated
since often these can be solved another way as well
3. If foetuses have died
4. If piglets are not born after the administration of oxytocin

A
  1. If piglets are not born after the administration of oxytocin
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2
Q

The cause of the rising rate of cattle pregnancy

a) The wide use of reproductive hormons is thought to cause
b) The increased milk production
c) The effect of some special cattle breeds is thought to cause
d) Rigorous genetic connection is thought to cause

A

b) The increased milk production

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3
Q

Cattle retained placenta

a) Is diagnosed after 2-4 hours of calving
b) Is diagnosed after 12-24 hours of calving
c) Is diagnosed after 1-6 hours of calving
d) Is diagnosed after 48-72 hours of calving

A

b) Is diagnosed after 12-24 hours of calving

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4
Q

Not a consequence of low blood carotene level in cattle

a) Impaired milk production
b) Decreased hair growth
c) Impaired immune function
d) Bad reproductive parameters

A

b) Decreased hair growth

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5
Q

Not a possible cause of placental retention

a) Lack of uterine contractions postpartum (e.g: hypocalcemia)
b) Detachment disorder due to placental oedema (e.g: infectious causes)
c) Certain mechanic causes (e.g: Septum in the vagina)
d) High blood carotene level peripartum

A

d) High blood carotene level peripartum

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6
Q

Which cattle corpus luteum is called mature corpus luteum (in size)?

a) Above 3mm
b) Above 5-10mm
c) Above 17-20mm
d) Above 35-45mm

A

c) Above 17-20mm

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7
Q

Which statement is not true to cattle metritis?

a) Fever is not always a clinical sign
b) Reddish-brown discharge from the vagina characterizes the disease
c) Enlarged uterus is characterizing the disease
d) Peripheral shock is always characterizing the disease

A

d) Peripheral shock is always characterizing the disease

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8
Q

Which statement is not true to cattle metritis?

a) Fever is always clinical sign of disease
b) Purulent discharge from the vagina is a sign of the disease
c) Not fully involved uterus is characterizing the disease
d) Exsiccosis is rarely observable in the case

A

a) Fever is always clinical sign of disease

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9
Q

Which drug can be used in the therapy of bacterial complications of cattle involution?

a) Antibiotics
b) Uterus relaxing drugs
c) NSAIDs
d) Immune modulating drugs

A

a) Antibiotics

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10
Q

What part of the epididymis is removed during epididymectomy in sheep?

a) Some part of the tail and the head
b) Only the tail
c) Some part of the tail and the body
d) Only the head

A

b) Only the tail

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11
Q

Which statement is true for rectal prolaps treatment in sheep?
a) Never use Dexamethasone
b) Dexamethasone can be used but consider its use in pregnant animal because it can induce abortion or
lambing
c) Dexamethasone can be used but consider its use in pregnant animal because it can prolong the pregnancy
d) Only the tail

A

b) Dexamethasone can be used but consider its use in pregnant animal because it can induce abortion or
lambing

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12
Q

Which is the most preferable treatment for metritis in sheep?

a) Oxytetracycline im. And phenylbutason
b) Gentamicin iv. And dexamethasone
c) Oxytetracycline iv. And dexamethasone
d) Gentamicin iv and phenylbutason

A

c) Oxytetracycline iv. And dexamethasone

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13
Q

Which vein is used for distal limb via vascular infusion in sheep?

a) V. saphena medialis
b) V. saphena lateralis
c) V. saphena dorsalis
d) V. saphena ventralis

A

b) V. saphena lateralis

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14
Q

Which combination is true for clinical signs of gangrenous mastitis in sheep?

a) T: >41C°, P: <60/min, R: increased
b) T: <35°C°, P: >120/min, R: decreased
c) T: >41C°, P: >120/min, R: increased
d) T: >45C°, P: >120/min, R: increased

A

c) T: >41C°, P: >120/min, R: increased

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15
Q

What is the disadvantage of ZnSO4 as a footbathing solution?

a) Carcinogen
b) Toxic to small ruminants
c) Has to be used as a stand in solution
d) Hard to acquire

A

c) Has to be used as a stand in solution

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16
Q

How can a toe granuloma be treated in small ruminants?

a) Compress bandage after excision
b) Block on the healthy claw after excision
c) Antibiotics and NSAIDs
d) Footbathing every 2-3 weeks until the symptoms disappear

A

a) Compress bandage after excision

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17
Q

Which pathogen causes interdigital dermatitis?

a) D. nodosus
b) F. necrophorum
c) T. pyogenes
d) S. aureus

A

a) D. nodosus

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18
Q

What can be the consequence of a white line abscess?

a) Inflammation of the distal interphalangeal joint
b) Laminitis
c) Separation of the whole hoof capsule
d) CODD

A

b) Laminitis ???

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19
Q

Which pathogen causes polyarthritis most commonly after tail docking/castration in growing lambs?

a) Streptococcus spp
b) Staphylococcus spp
c) E. Coli
d) E. rhusiopathiae

A

d) E. rhusiopathiae

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20
Q

Which of the following parameters shows an increase before calving?

a) Activity
b) Reticuloruminal pH
c) Reticuloruminal temperature
d) Rumination time

A

a) Activity

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21
Q

Which of the following is not a main predisposing factor for laminitis in cattle?

a) Calving
b) Exposure to E. Coli
c) Heat stress
d) Subacute ruminal acidosis

A

b) Exposure to E. Coli

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22
Q

Which of the following is false regarding laminitis in cattle?

a) It is characterized by separation of the pedal bone from hoof wall
b) It is more likely for the pedal bone to sink than to rotate
c) It can be treated with regular foot baths
d) One of its main complications can be white line disease

A

c) It can be treated with regular foot baths

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23
Q

Which of the following methods is not used for the definitive diagnosis of the septic arthritis of the DIP joint?

a) Manual palpation of the DIP joint
b) Sampling of the DIP joint
c) Ultrasound of the dorsal pouch of the DIP joint
d) X-ray of the DIP joint

A

a) Manual palpation of the DIP joint

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24
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding the 4-point nerve block in cattle?

a) It is less frequently used then the intravenous anaesthesia of the foot
b) It is practical when veins are hard to find due to severe cellulitis
c) One of its main complications is nerve damage around the injection sites
d) It is easy to administer due to the loose tissue around the lower parts of the foot

A

d) It is easy to administer due to the loose tissue around the lower parts of the foot

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25
Q

Which of the following techniques is not used for the resection of the FIP joint?

a) Bulbar approach
b) Axial approach
c) Solar approach
d) Abaxial approach

A

b) Axial approach

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26
Q

Which of the following is not routinely used for the detection of rumination in cows?

a) Abdominal harness
b) Reticuloruminal bolus
c) Neck collar sensor
d) Ear-tag sensor

A

a) Abdominal harness

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27
Q

Which of the following diseases does not cause a decrease in rumination time?

a) Pneumonia
b) LDA
c) Puerperal metritis
d) Subclinical mastitis

A

d) Subclinical mastitis

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28
Q

Which of the following true regarding the activity of cows?

a) It decreases around time of calving
b) It increases in lame animals
c) It increases significantly in animal in heat
d) It is not affected by diseases

A

c) It increases significantly in animal in heat

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29
Q

Which of the following is false for reticuloruminal temperature?

a) It is affected by heat stress
b) It increases in milk fever
c) It increases if the animal has fever
d) It has a circadian rhythm

A

b) It increases in milk fever

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30
Q

It is true to cattle twin pregnancy:

a) Most twin pregnancies are monozygotic
b) Occurrence of twins is 25% related to all births
c) Usually they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles
d) Twins are less likely to abort

A

c) Usually they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles

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31
Q

Which of the following diseases does not cause a decrease in rumination time?

  • Pneumonia
  • LDA
  • Puerperal metritis
  • Subclinical mastitis
A
  • Subclinical mastitis
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32
Q

Which of the following is false for reticuloruminal temperature?

  • It is affected by heat stress
  • Is increases in milk fever
  • It increased if the animal has fever
  • It has a circardian rhythm.
A
  • Is increases in milk fever
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33
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding the 4-point nerve block in cattle?

  • It is less frequently used than the intravenous anesthesia of foot
  • It is practical when veins are hard to find due to severe cellulitis
  • One of its main complications is nerve damage around the injection sites
  • It is easily to administrated due to the loose tissue around the lower parts of foot
A
  • It is easily to administrated due to the loose tissue around the lower parts of foot
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34
Q

What can be the consequence of a white line abscess?

  • Inflammation of the distal interphalangeal joint
  • Laminitis
  • Separation of the whole hoof capsule
  • CODD
A
  • Laminitis ????
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35
Q

What’s the disadvantage of ZnS04 as a footbathing solution?

  • Carcinogen
  • Toxic to small ruminants
  • Has to be used as a stand-in solution
  • Hard to acquire
A
  • Has to be used as a stand-in solution
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36
Q

Which pathogen causes interdigital dermatitis?

  • D. nodosus
  • F. necrophorium
  • T. pygenes
  • S. aureus
A
  • D. nodosus
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37
Q

Which of the following is not a main predisposing factor for laminitis in cattle

  • Calving
  • Exposure to E.coli
  • Heat stress
  • Subacute ruminal acidosis
A
  • Exposure to E.coli
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38
Q

Which of the following is false regarding laminitis in cattle?

  • It is characterized by the separation of the pedal bone from the hoof wall
  • It is more likely for the pedal bones to sink than to rotate
  • It can be treated with regular foot bath
  • One of its main complications can be white line disease
A
  • It can be treated with regular foot bath
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39
Q

Which of the following methods is not used for the definite diagnosis of the septic arthritis of the DIP joint?

  • Manual palpation of DIP joint
  • Sampling of the DIP joint
  • Ultrasound of the dorsal pouch of the DIP joint
  • X-ray of the DIP joint
A
  • Manual palpation of DIP joint
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40
Q

Which of the following techniques is not used for the resection of the DIP joint?

  • Bulbar approach
  • Axial approach
  • Solar approach
  • Abaxial approach
A
  • Axial approach
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41
Q

What can we not give to ewes with gestational ketosis?

  • dextrose because the liver cannot process
  • Steroid because it causes miscarriage
  • Vitamine B1 because it damages foetus
  • hay because it causes obstruction in the intestines
A
  • Steroid because it causes miscarriage
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42
Q

Which pathogen causes polyarthritis most commonly after tail docking/castration in growing lambs?

  • Streptococcus spp
  • Staphylococcus spp
  • E. coli
  • E. rhusiopathiae
A
  • E. rhusiopathiae
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43
Q

How can a toe granuloma be treated in small ruminants?

  • Compress bandage after excision
  • Black on the healthy claw after excision
  • Antibiotic and NSAIDs
  • Foot bathing every 2-3weeks until the symptoms disappear
A
  • Compress bandage after excision
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44
Q

Which is the most preferable treatment for metritis in sheep?

A

Oxytetracycline iv and dexamethasone

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45
Q

Which vein is used for distal limb via vascular infusion in sheep?

  • V. saphena medialis
  • V. saphena lateralis
  • V. saphene dorsalis
  • V. saphena ventralis
A
  • V. saphena lateralis
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46
Q

Which combination is true for clinical signs of gangrenous mastitis in sheep?

A

T>40Co, P>120/min; R (Increased)

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47
Q

Which part of the epididymis is removed ruing epididymectomy in sheep?

  • Some part of the tail and the head
  • Only the tail
  • Some part of the tail and the body
  • Only the head
A
  • Only the tail
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48
Q

Which statement is true for the rectal prolapse treatment in sheep?

  • Never use dexamethasone
  • Dexamethasone can be used but consider its use in pregnant animals because induce abortion or lambing
A
  • Dexamethasone can be used but consider its use in pregnant animals because induce abortion or lambing
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49
Q

Prognosis of the displacement of the pregnant uterus

  • Good
  • Moderate
  • Guarded
  • Poor
A
  • Moderate ?
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50
Q

Choose the CORRECT statement from the followings, concerning to uterine torsion of the cow

  • Precervical tosion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation
  • Postcervical torsion can be palpated with vaginal palpation
  • Precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
  • By manual palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
A
  • Precervical tosion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation
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51
Q

What is the basis of obstetrical lubricants?

  • NADP
  • Methyl-malonil-coenzym A
  • Methyl-cellulose
  • Metil. Starch
A
  • Methyl-cellulose
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52
Q

In what position would a C-section or a rumenotomy be performed in cattle in most cases?

  • In lateral recumbency using right flank approach
  • In standing restraint using right flank approach
  • In lateral recumbency using left flank approach
  • In standing restraint using left flank approach
A
  • In standing restraint using left flank approach
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53
Q

In standing restraint using left flank approach

  • Horizontal
  • Vertical
  • Oblique: caudo-ventral
  • None of them
A
  • Oblique: caudo-ventral
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54
Q

Not a consequence of low blood carotene level in cattle

  • Impaired milk production
  • Decreased hair growth
  • Impaired immune function
  • Bad reproductive parameters
A
  • Decreased hair growth
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55
Q

Not a possible cause of placental retention

  • Lack of uterine contractions postpartum e.g; hypocalcemia
  • Detachment disorder due to placental oedema e.g; infectious causes
  • Certain mechanic causes eg; septum in the vagina
  • High blood carotene level peripartum.
A
  • High blood carotene level peripartum.
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56
Q

Cattle retained placenta

  • Is diagnosed after 2-4hours after calving
  • Is diagnosed after 12-24 hours after calving
  • Is diagnosed after 1-6h after calving
  • Is diagnosed after 48-72h after calving,.
A
  • Is diagnosed after 12-24 hours after calving
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57
Q

Which drugs can be used in the therapy of the bacterial complications of cattle involution?

  • Antibiotics
  • Uterine relaxing drugs
  • NSAIDS
  • Immuno modulation drugs
A
  • Antibiotics
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58
Q

Which statement is not true to cattle metritis?

  • Fever is always a clinical sign
  • Reddish- brown discharge from the vagina characterizes the disease - Enlarge uterus is characterizing the disease
  • Peripheral shock is always characterizing the disease
A
  • Peripheral shock is always characterizing the disease
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59
Q

Which is the following IS true regarding the activity of cows

  • It decreases around the time of calving
  • It increases in lame animals
  • It increases significantly in animals in heat
  • It is not affected by diseases
A
  • It increases significantly in animals in heat
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60
Q

Which of the following parameters shows an increase before calving?

  • Activity
  • Reticuloruminal pH
  • Reticulioruminal temperature
  • Rumination time
A
  • Activity
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61
Q

Which of the following is NOT routinely used for the detection of rumination in cows?

  • Abdominal harness
  • Reticuloruminal bolus
  • Neck collar sensor
  • Ear-tag senors
A
  • Abdominal harness
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62
Q

What is NOT a physiological narrowment of the soft birth canal

  • The bifurcation
  • The cervix
  • The remaining tissue of the hymen
  • The vulva
A
  • The bifurcation
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63
Q

How do we get the direction of the traction (linea directiva)?
- We add the half point of the half point of the vertical diameters of the pelvis
- We connect the highest and the lowest point of the pelvis
- We take the force showing from the half point of the vertical dimeters of the pelvis to the tuber
ischiadicum
- The force from the deepest point of the pelvis showing to tuber isciadicum

A
  • We add the half point of the half point of the vertical diameters of the pelvis
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64
Q

Which cattle corpus luteum is called mature corpus luteum?

  • Above 3mm
  • Above 5-10 mm
  • Above 17- 20mm
  • Above 35-45mm
A
  • Above 17- 20mm
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65
Q

The presence of the fetus is

  • The size of the fetus
  • The ratio between the maternal and the fetal pelvical diameter
  • The presentation, the position and the posture of the fetus
  • The vital signs of the fetus
A
  • The presentation, the position and the posture of the fetus
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66
Q

The presentation of the fetus means

  • The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus
  • The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
  • The fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
A
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
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67
Q

Normal presentation is

  • Ventral oblique
  • Longitudinal posterior
  • Ventral back
  • Harms’s presentation
A
  • Longitudinal posterior
68
Q

The overall prognosis of abnormal presentation

  • In horses good, in cattle guarded
  • In cattle good, in horses guarded
  • In every species it’s good
  • In every species it’s guarded or bad
A
  • In every species it’s guarded or bad
69
Q

The position of the fetus is

  • The situation of the head and the extremices to the body of the fetus
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
  • The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
  • The fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
A
  • The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
70
Q

The normal position is

  • Dorsal upright
  • Ventral upright
  • extended position
  • Flexed position
A
  • Dorsal upright
71
Q

The posture of the fetus is

  • The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam that of the fetus
  • The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus
  • The placement of the fetus in the soft birth canal
A
  • The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus
72
Q

The posture of the fetus is normal if

  • Extended before parturition
  • Extended at parturition
  • Flexed at parturition
  • Always flexed
A
  • Extended at parturition
73
Q

Abnormal posture of the fetus

  • Ventral abdominal
  • Dorsal abdominal
  • Oblique abdominal
A
  • Oblique abdominal
74
Q

It is true to cattle twin pregnancy?

  • Most twin pregnancies are monozygotic
  • Occurrence of twins are 25% related to all birth
  • Usually, they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles
  • Twins are less likely to abort
A
  • Usually, they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles
75
Q

The cause of the rising rate of cattle twin pregnancy

  • The wide use of reproductive hormones through to be cause
  • The increased milk production
  • The effect of some special cattle breeds it thought to be the cause
  • Rigorous genetic connection is though to cause
A
  • The increased milk production
76
Q

What is the loss rate in cattle pregnancies between day 30 and 60 (100% is the number of pregnant animals at day 30)?

  • 25-35%
  • 35-45%
  • 15-25%
  • 5-15%
A
  • 35-45%
77
Q

Which solution is preferred to use in abomasal displacement?

  • Hannover method
  • Ventral paramedian abomasopexia
  • Utrecht method
  • Laparoscopy (1 step form)
A
  • Laparoscopy (1 step form)
78
Q

Which statement is true for rolling technique in case of abomasal displacement?

  • Fast, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated inoculation of the stomach are high (50-70%)
  • rapid, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated inoculation of the stomach are low (5-7%)
  • rapid, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated vaccination stomach position changes are low (5-7%)
  • Rapid, simple and non-invasive technique, but the incidence of recurrence is quite high (50-70%)
A
  • Rapid, simple and non-invasive technique, but the incidence of recurrence is quite high (50-70%)
79
Q

What method is providing the abomasal life-long fixation

  • Fastening with non-absorbent thread
  • Fastening with absorbent thread
  • Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis and then adhesions
  • Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes general peritonitis and then congestion
A
  • Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis and then adhesions
80
Q

What is characteristic of the Hanoverian method used to resolve the abomasal displacement?

  • Upright, paramedian laparotomy
  • Standing left flank laparotomy
  • Standing right flank laparotomy
  • Pseudo 6, but does not apply laparotomy
A
  • Standing right flank laparotomy
81
Q

What is the consequence of abomasal displacement?

  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Hyperchloraemia
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Paradox alkaluria
A
  • Hypokalaemia
82
Q

Which anesthesia technique results in scoliosis?

  • Distal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
  • Proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
  • Inverted L paralumbar anesthesia
  • Epidural anesthesia
A
  • Proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
83
Q

Which vertebra is the last palpable transverse process belong to in a cow?

  • L4
  • L3
  • L5
  • L6
A
  • L5
84
Q

Which nerves (N) are blocked with the use of proximal lumbar paravertebral anaesthesia?

  • NT13, NL1 and NL2
  • NL1, NL2 and NL3
  • NT13, NL1 and NL3
  • NT13, NL2 and NL3
A
  • NT13, NL1 and NL2
85
Q

What is the place of low caudal epidural anesthesia?

  • Between the last sacral (S5) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
  • Between the last sacral (S4) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
  • Between the last sacral (S6) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
  • Between the first (C1) and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2)
A
  • Between the first (C1) and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2)
86
Q

Which of these statements is true for xylazine in cattle?

  • Horses are 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than cattle
  • A cow is as sensitive as a horse
  • Cattle is 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than horses
  • None of them is true
A
  • Cattle is 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than horses
87
Q

Which is not true for flunixin?

  • Sedative
  • Analgesic
  • Anti-pyretic
  • Anti-endotoxin
A
  • Sedative
88
Q

What are the benefits of combining lidocaine with xylazine during epidural anesthesia?

  • Response delayed 1 to 2 hours
  • Excellent anesthesia in a smaller area
  • No sedation along with the anesthesia
  • None of them
A
  • None of them
89
Q

In which species do you expect to see the side effects of lidocaine?

  • Cow
  • Small ruminants
  • Both of them
  • None of them
A
  • Small ruminants
90
Q

What is the consequence of the ruminal reflux?

  • In all cases, it causes rumen acidosis
  • Hyperchloraemia
  • The concentration of Cl-ion in the rumen increases
  • Metabolic acidosis
A
  • The concentration of Cl-ion in the rumen increases
91
Q

Which orifice is the cause of blocked passage in the case of posterior functional stehosis?

  • Reticulo-abomasal orifice
  • Cardia
  • Pylorus
  • Reticulo-omasal orifice
A
  • Pylorus
92
Q

What is the consistency of the ruminal content in case of anterior functional stenosis?

  • Foamy, cream-like
  • watery
  • doughy
  • solid
A
  • watery
93
Q

Treatment of clinical hypocalcemia (calving paralysis):

  • Calcium gluconat iv
  • Ca-phosphate per os
  • Ca-sulfate iv
  • Ca-nitrate iv
A
  • Calcium gluconat iv
94
Q

Symptoms of subclinical hypoglycemia

  • causes bed rest
  • does not cause bed rest
  • Diseases around childbirth become more common
  • May reduce the amount of milk produced during lactation
A
  • Diseases around childbirth become more common
95
Q

In the treatment of calving paralysis (milk fever), the administration of calcium compounds is recommended as follows

  • Oral
  • Intraperitoneal
  • Subcutaneously
  • Intravenously
A
  • Intravenously
96
Q

Diagnosis of subclinical ketosis?

  • Measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
  • Determination of RQUICKI derived value
  • measurement of insulin from peripheral blood
  • determination of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) from peripheral blood
A
  • Measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
97
Q

Peripartal insulin resistance in ruminants:

  • Can be measured under stable conditions by HEC test
  • The derived index, which can be measure on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK
  • If the blood sugar level is less than 3 mmol/liter
  • It develops 3 months after calving
A
  • The derived index, which can be measure on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK
98
Q

What is true for free gas bloat?

  • Excessive amounts of butterfly green fodder can also cause feeding
  • When foaming, little foamy content can be obtained
  • Probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes
  • His prognosis is unfavorable
A
  • Probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes
99
Q

Not used in the therapy of clinical ketosis?

  • gluconeoplastic substances
  • glucose
  • glucocorticol
  • gamithromycin
A
  • gamithromycin
100
Q

Prevention of rumen acidosis

  • Feeding of high lignite feeds
  • Feeding rumen buffers
  • Propylene glycol intake
  • Ammonium chloride diet
A
  • Feeding rumen buffers
101
Q

Drugs used in the treatment of acute rumen acidosis?

  • MgOxide (500g, p.os)
  • Fluid therapy depending on the degree of dehydration (Drench or iv)
  • Rumen transfusion
  • Ionophore antibiotic therapy p.os
A
  • Fluid therapy depending on the degree of dehydration (Drench or iv)
102
Q

Clinical signs of acute rumen acidosis?

  • Occasionally Kussmaul-type dyspnoea
  • Tachycardia
  • Nystagemus
  • Exsiccoiss
A
  • Occasionally Kussmaul-type dyspnoea
103
Q

Time required to restore subclinical rumen acidosis

  • 1 day
  • 3-5 days
  • 2-3 weeks
  • 2-3 months
A
  • 2-3 weeks
104
Q

In subacute rumen acidosis, the pH range of the rumen is

  • 2.2 - 2.3
  • 3.3 - 3.4
  • 4.4 - 5.5
  • 5.5-6.5
A
  • 5.5-6.5
105
Q

Optimal pH range of rumen:

  • 7.0-7.5
  • 5.5-6.3
  • 7.2-8.0
  • 6.3- 7.1
A
  • 6.3- 7.1
106
Q

Which clinical parameter is useful for early detection of the disease on herd level?

  • Brinal condition
  • Milk production
  • Majority
  • Anorexia
A
  • Milk production
107
Q

Peripheral blood for measuring beta-hydroxy butyric acid?

  • Arterial blood only in a closed blood collection system
  • Only the v. blood collected from jugularis
  • Blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement
  • If peripheral blood is not suitable, blood should be taken from the central vein
A
  • Blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement
108
Q

Substance formed from carbohydrates during rumen digestion?

  • Volatile fatty acids
  • Ketone substances
  • Long chain fatty acids
  • Fats
A
  • Volatile fatty acids
109
Q

Gentle feeding to restore rumen pH?

  • Easily fermentable carbohydrates in large quantities
  • Feeding sugars (e.g. molasses)
  • It is mainly hay containing high quality fibers
  • Industrial by-products eg. extracted soybean meal
A
  • It is mainly hay containing high quality fibers
110
Q 
What is not subject of notification?
o Sheep-goat smallpox
o Is the sticky lung of cattle
o Scabies
o Infectious bovine laryngitis and tracheitis
A

o Infectious bovine laryngitis and tracheitis

111
Q 
Pathogen of bovine lungworm
o Dictyocaulus arnfieldi
o Dictyocaulus filaria
o Dictyocaulus eckerti
o Dictyocaulus viviparus
A

o Dictyocaulus viviparus

112
Q

Which statement is false about enzootic pneumonia in calves?
o Multifactorial disease
o Predisposing factors play a major role in its development
o Always an acute disease
o Brochodilators

A

o Always an acute disease

113
Q 
Enzoonotic bronchopneumonia in calves
o Chronic disease
o Spontaneous recovery from higher fever
o Complex pathological disease
o Usually associated with hypothermia
A

o Complex pathological disease

114
Q 
What is characteristic of grazing pulmonary edema?
o Sudden formation, may affected animals
o Chronic course
o Only young animal affected
o High fever
A

o Sudden formation, may affected animals (sudden onset, only adults)

115
Q

What treatment would you use for foamy fermentation bloating?
o Sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation
o Probing, drinking 5 liters of 10% vinegar
o Feed withdrawal for 3 Days
o No treatment, euthnasia

A

o Sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation

116
Q

What is responsible for the development of grazing pulmonary edema? (fog fever/ABPEE)
o Switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture (increase of proteins in feed)
o Lupinus spp. in the hay
o C. perfringens
o Bovine parainfluenza virus

A

o Switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture (increase of proteins in feed)

117
Q 
Pathogen of destructive rhinitis
o OHV-1
o OHV-2 
o OHV-3
o OHV-5
A

o OHV-2 (Herpesvirusà Malignant catarrhal fever)

118
Q 
Optimal time of separation of the piglets?
– 60 days
– 35-42 days
– 21-28 days
– 6-10 days
A

– 21-28 days

119
Q 
Indication of tail clipping?
– Brawl prevention
– Prevent tail biting
– Preventing nipple damage
– Stimulating the sucking reflex
A

– Prevent tail biting

120
Q

Which statement is false about the treatment of hypoglycaemia in day-old piglets?
– Preventing colds will help treat the disease
– It is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein
– It can be treated with an oral glucose solution or milk replacer (artificial feeding)
– Treatment is also possible with intraperitoneal glucose injection

A

– It is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein

121
Q 
Expected number of piglets weaned per sow
– At least 2-15 piglets / sow / year
– At least 15-18 piglets / sow / year
– At least 20-25 piglets / sow / year
– At least 35-40 piglets / sow / year
A

– At least 20-25 piglets / sow / year

122
Q 
Where do you cut the uterus in C-section?
– On the right and left horns
– Near the bifurcation
– In the womb
– At the apex of the horns
A

– Near the bifurcation

123
Q 
What kind of laparotomy can be used in a pig during a cesarean section?
– Right or left notch incision
– Ventral paramedian laparotomy
– Left notch incision only
– Left paralumbar laparotomy only
A

– Right or left notch incision

124
Q 
What disorders are most common in the period around birth?
– Uterus and cervix prolapse
– Invasion of horns
– ??
– Uterine rupture
A

– Uterus and cervix prolapse

125
Q 
Birth induction in swine
– Dexamethasone IM inj.
– Oxytocin IM inj.
– Prostaglandin F2alpha inj.
– PG 600 IM inj.
A

– Prostaglandin F2alpha inj.

126
Q 
Recommended induction of birth in swine
– From the 105th day of pregnancy
– From the 107th day of pregnancy
– From the 109th day of pregnancy
– From the 112th day of pregnancy
A

– From the 112th day of pregnancy (112-115 day)

127
Q

Low amount of vaginal discharge. Which is physiological?
– 7-10 days postpartum
– 2 weeks after mating
– 3-4 days postpartum and 5 days after mating
– 1-2 days postpartum and 1 week after mating

A

– 3-4 days postpartum and 5 days after mating

128
Q

Select the incorrect statement when evaluating the pregnancy test result of the pigs
– Sensitivity: proportion of young animals
– Specificity: rate of false negative diagnoses
– Positive prognosis + ratio of diagnoses
– Negative prognosis + ratio of diagnoses

A

– Specificity: rate of false negative diagnoses

129
Q 
When is the Corpus Luteum sensible to the prostaglandin?
– After 5th day of the cycle
– After 8th day of the cycle
– After 12th day of the cycle
– In the whole corpus luteum phase
A

– After 12th day of the cycle

130
Q 
What would you use to induce the cycle?
– eCG + hCG (PG 600) IM inj
– Estradiol 17beta inj.
– Oral altrenogest content management
– Prostaglandin F2alpha inj.
A

– eCG + hCG (PG 600) IM inj

131
Q

What is the back test? (standing reflex)
– During pregnancy, the sow remains immobile due to pressure on her back, which is one of the methods of early pregnancy testing
– At the time of farrowing, the sow remains immobile due to the pressure exerted on her back, so that the period of standing oestrus can be determined
– The newborn piglet, when turned on its back, immediately turns back, thus judging their viability
– Applying pressure to the back of a healthy lying pig will make it possible to select sick
individuals

A

– At the time of farrowing, the sow remains immobile due to the pressure exerted on her back, so that the period of standing oestrus can be determined

132
Q

Which statement is true?
– In sows, progestogen treatment is performed for oestrus synchronization
– In sows, progestogen therapy is performed for oestrus synchronization
– In female pigs, the correct time of fertilization is checked with a mucous drop of

A

– In sows, progestogen treatment is performed for oestrus synchronization

133
Q 
Duration of oestrus in pigs
– 24 hours
– 2-3 days
– 4 days
– 7 days
A

– 24 hours

134
Q

Break in oestrus cycle in swine
– In the cold winter period (winter infertility)
– In the summer heat (summer infertility)
– In the spring, when the days get longer (spring infertility)

A

– In the summer heat (summer infertility)

135
Q 
On average, at what age do sows have puberty?
– 150-170 days old
– 180-210 days old
– 230-240 days old
– 250-280 days old
A

– 150-170 days old

136
Q 
Average ejaculation volume in boars?
– 2-3 ml
– 50-80 ml
– 100-150 ml
– 200-250 ml
A

– 200-250 ml

137
Q 
How long can you store the sperm?
– 1-2 days
– 3-7 days
– 2-3 days
– 1-2 months
A

– 3-7 days (at 16OC)

138
Q 
How is male boar sperm stored?
– Native ejaculate, freezer
– Native ejaculate, chilled (16-17 °C)
– Diluted ejaculate, chilled (16-17 °C)
– Diluted ejaculate, chilled (4 °C)
A

– Diluted ejaculate, chilled (16-17 °C)

139
Q 
What should not be used to monitor pigs during anesthesia?
– Mucosal color
– Pulse
– Skin temperature
– Heartbeat
A

– Pulse

140
Q 
Which statement is true about the effectiveness of xylazine?
– Pig > horse > cattle
– Horse > pig > cattle
– Horse > cattle > pig
– Cattle > horse > pig
A

– Cattle > horse > pig

141
Q 
What happens in swine after the use of Azaperone
– Malignant hypothermia
– Malignant hyperthermia
– Peripheral vasodilation
– Cardiac arrest
A

– Peripheral vasodilation

142
Q 
What could be the site of IM injection in a production pig?
– Thighs
– Neck musculature
– Both
– None of them
A

– Neck musculature

143
Q

Which statement is true about porcine anesthesia?
– Withdrawal of feed for at least 4 hours (abdominal surgery 6 hours)
– Withdrawal of feed for at least 6 hours (abdominal surgery 4 hours)
– Withdrawal of feed for at least 12 hours (abdominal surgery 6 hours)
– Withdrawal of feed for at least 6 hours (abdominal surgery 12 hours)

A

– Withdrawal of feed for at least 6 hours (abdominal surgery 12 hours)

144
Q

Which statement is true about azaperone in pigs?
– A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in lower weight animals
– A higher dose (mg/kg) is required in a lower weight animal
– A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in a heavier animal
– A higher dose (mg/kg) is required in a heavier animal

A

– A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in a heavier animal

145
Q 
Which vessel is suitable for TIVA infusion in pigs?
– V. cava caudalis
– V. cava cranialis
– V. jugularis
– Marginal ear vein
A

– Marginal ear vein

146
Q 
What is the most common cause of ineffective IM injection in pigs?
– Injection into adipose tissue
– Intravenous injection
– Needle too long
– Wrong needle diameter
A

– Injection into adipose tissue

147
Q 
Why is it hard to intubate the swine? Select the incorrect answer
– Frequent laryngospasm
– Narrow glottis
– Short soft palate 
– Sharp teeth
A

– Short soft palate (long soft palate)

148
Q

Which of the following statements is not true for thrombocytopenic purpura?
– Disease of suckling piglets
– Type II hypersensitivity reaction
– Most common at first birth
– Symptoms of weakness anemia, bleeding throughout the body

A

– Most common at first birth

149
Q 
Which of the following conditions is not a congenital skin disease?
– Pityriasis rosea
– Myoclonia congenita 
– Epitheliogenesis imperfecta
– Dermatosis vegetans
A

– Myoclonia congenita (tremor disease)

150
Q

Which form of tremor is hereditary?

  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type III
  • Type V
A
  • Type III
151
Q

Which of the following statements is true for oily dermatitis?

  • Caused by Streptococcus suis
  • It is most common in obese pigs
  • The most important clinical symptom is severe itching
  • Proper hygiene and prevention of injury can be avoided
A
  • Proper hygiene and prevention of injury can be avoided
152
Q 
Which of the following conditions is not subject to notification?
– Infectious swine paralysis 
– Swine pox
– Swine vesicular disease
– Bladder stomatitis
A

– Bladder stomatitis

153
Q 
Which of the following diseases is a zoonosis?
– Streptococcus Suis
– Aujeszky’s disease
– Glässer’s disease
– Teschen disease
A

– Streptococcus Suis

154
Q

Which of the following statements is not true for osteoporosis?

  • A characteristic symptom is sudden severe lameness
  • The amount of both trabecular and cortical bone decreases
  • Articular cartilage usually shows no changes
  • Vitamin Ca, P or D deficiency in growing animals (piglets, fatteners)
A
  • Vitamin Ca, P or D deficiency in growing animals (piglets, fatteners) (in adults)
155
Q

Cause of gastric ulceration?

  • Vitamin U deficiency
  • Vitamin C deficiency
  • The feed is not the correct particle size
  • Haemophilus species
A
  • The feed is not the correct particle size
156
Q

What can cause constipation?

  • Water poisoning
  • Prolonged fever
  • Meningitis can be a consequence
  • Incorrect particle size of granulated feed
A
  • Prolonged fever
157
Q

True for megacolon in swine?

  • It is often a self-healing disease with a good prognosis
  • Treated with motility enhancing drugs
  • Secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis
  • The surgical solution of the primary mega> colon promises a good prognosis
A
  • Secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis
158
Q

Enteritis differential diagnosis in different age groups?

  • E. coli infection typically develops in sows after weaning
  • Coccidiosis can develop as early as a few days of age
  • Trichuris suis infection typically develops after 1 week of age
  • Rotavirus infection is most common after choice
A
  • Coccidiosis can develop as early as a few days of age
159
Q

Which is not the cause of rectal prolapse?

  • Mycotoxin (zearalenone)
  • Increased motility due to intestinal disease
  • Inappropriate floor
  • Increased stomach upset due to cough
A
  • Inappropriate floor
160
Q

Therapy for oesophagus ulcer (eller gastric ulcer??)

  • Separation by age group
  • Eliminate technological stress
  • Metoclopramide
  • Prostaglandin F2 alpha
A
  • Eliminate technological stress
161
Q

Swine enteritis

  • Pathogen may cause clinical signs resulting from specific lesions
  • Hypersecretion develops after Lawsonia infection, so specific diarrhea may occur
  • With an appropriate diet for the treatment of edema, a cure rate of over 90% can be achieved
  • Inflammatory lesions of varying degrees in the gut occur in both bacterial and viral infections
A
  • Hypersecretion develops after Lawsonia infection, so specific diarrhea may occur
162
Q

It is characteristic of porcine pericarditis
– It is mainly caused by the barn at the wrong temperature
– It is primarily associated with the formation of transsudates
– The differential diagnosis includes an infectious disease (Glasser disease)
– The presence of fibrous sweat is unlikely

A

– The differential diagnosis includes an infectious disease (Glasser disease)

163
Q 
Symptoms of iron deficiency anemia in piglets
– Salivation
– Melaena feces
– Sudden death
– Erythema
A

– Sudden death

164
Q

Examination of the heart?

  • By listening on the right side, all the heart sounds in the 7-8 ribs will go away
  • Pulse of the a.facialis and the a.femoralis difficult to palpate
  • Absolute heartbeat can be knocked out
  • Listening is only possible in young animals
A
  • Pulse of the a.facialis and the a.femoralis difficult to palpate
165
Q

Therapy for mulberry heart disease

  • Restricting the movement of the animal
  • Vitamin E and selenium supplement through feed
  • Digoxin 2 ppm with feed
  • Furosemide 2-4 mg/kg PO
A
  • Vitamin E and selenium supplement through feed
166
Q

What can stress cause in pigs? Choose the correct answer

  • Malignant hypothermia
  • Malignant hyperthermia
  • Cardiac arrest
  • It’s burning
A
  • Malignant hyperthermia
167
Q

Which vitamin deficiency causes hepatosis dietetica in pigs?

  • Vitamin A
  • Vitamin B1
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin E
A
  • Vitamin E

Production midterm (3 decks)

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