Prodigy- Patient Monitoring Flashcards
T/F: the removable oxygen sensors seen on anesthesia machiens are most commonly galvanic sensors
True
uses the current produced at the anode of an electrical circuit as oxygen diffuses across a membrane
T/F: oxygen analyzers should be removed from the circuit and exposed to room air when not in use
True
Technique thats used in analzying the changes in amplitude of hte ECG signal and the change in the QRS axis to determine respiratroy rate
impedeance plethysomography
Where would you mark a hot spot for the peak expiratory flow rate?
At the top left coner next to 7.5L (flow)
Just to see it again bc i cant seem to keep it straight - pulseox red light wavelengths vs infrared wavelengths
red = 660
infrared= 940
Standard BP should be measured at least how often?
Every 5 mins
just think of paper charting
Inferior leads
ischemic changes could result from blockage in which coronary artery?
II, III, AVF
RAC or one of it’s branches
When grouped together, which 2 leads can provide a view of the posterior heart?
ischemic chagnes here could indicate blockage where?
V1 & V2
posterior
PDA
Lateral leads
what are tehy supplied by?
I, aVL, V5, V6
left circumflex
Which leads assess the front/anterior heart?
ischemic changes could represent an occlusion of what artery?
I, AvL, V1-V4
LAD
so both LAD and left circ = I and aVL
LAD = V1-V4
Circ = V5, V6
Leads V1-V4 by themselves are which region
suppplied by what
Anterioseptal
LAD
Match: ST depression and elevation with:
Transmural ischemia vs subendocardial ischemia
ST depression + Subendocardial ischemia
ST elevation = Transmural ischemia
when using TOF, a twitch response disappears when what % of the receptors are blocked?
90%
Which twitch response of which muscle most colsely correlates with the laryngeal muscles? The adductor pollicis or corrugator supercilii
Corrugator superccilii
You are inserting a pulmonary artery catheter via the right internal jugular vein. At what distance would you expect to reach the right atrium?
A. 35-45 cm
B. 25-35 cm
C. 45-55 cm
D. 15-25 cm
D
Which electroencephalogram (EEG) findings would be consistent with light anesthesia or profound surgical stimulation?
A. Low frequency, low voltage activity
B. Low frequency, high voltage activity
C. High frequency, high voltage activity
D. High frequency, low voltage activity
D
If no twitches are visible on a train-of-four, what test would best help estimate when the first twitch would return?
A. Double-burst stimulation
B. Single twitch monitoring
C. Posttetanic count
D. Tetanic stimulation
C
Which evoked potential test is used the least in surgical patients?
A. Motor evoked potentials
B. Somatosensory evoked potentials
C. Brainstem auditory evoked potentials
D. Visual evoked potentials
D
When monitoring evoked potentials, the delay in response to a stimulus is known as the
A. amplitude
B. frequency response
C. onset trigger delay
D. latency
Not C
You are performing single-twitch monitoring using a peripheral nerve stimulator. You know that a decrease in the twitch response won’t occur until
A. 20% of the receptors are blocked
B. 80% of the receptors are blocked
C. 50% of the receptors are blocked
D. All of the receptors are blocked
B
What is the ideal location of an esophageal temperature probe?
A. In the lower third of the esophagus
B. In the middle third of the esophagus
C. In the upper third of the esophagus
D. Any position within the esophagus exhibits an equivalent temperature reading
A
A peripheral nerve stimulator used to assess neuromuscular blockade is designed to produce
A. sine wave signals
B. monophasic, square wave signals
C. biphasic, square wave signals
D. alternating current signals
B
Which agent would be most likely to produce an increase in the amplitude of somatosensory evoked potentials?
A. etomidate
B. fentanyl
C. propofol
D. sevoflurane
A
What is the gold standard for confirming placement of an endotracheal tube?
A. Visualization of placement through the vocal folds
B. Positive gastric auscultation
C. Sustained detection of exhaled CO2 by capnography
D. Absence of condensation in the endotracheal tube during ventilation
C
What is the term for a condition where a valid alarm triggering condition exists, but no alarm is signaled by the monitor?
A. False-negative alarm
B. Low priority alarm
C. Alarm hypersensitivity
D. False-positive alarm
A
Brainstem auditory evoked potentials
A. are useful for monitoring basic brainstem function
B. evaluate the integrity of the corticospinal tract
C. assess the integrity of the auditory pathways below the pons
D. assess the integrity of the 10th cranial nerve
A
What is the gold standard for measuring core body temperature?
A. pulmonary artery catheter
B. esophageal temperature probe
C. bladder temperature
D. postauricular temperature
A
What does the y descent on a central venous pressure waveform represent?
A. Opening of the aortic valve
B. Opening of the pulmonic valve
C. Opening of the mitral valve
D. Opening of the tricuspid valve
Not A
Methemoglobinemia will cause the pulse oximeter
A. to stop working altogether
B. produce a value of 75% regardless of the actual saturation
C. overestimate an oxygen saturation of 95%
D. underestimate an oxygen saturation of 95%
D
During inspiration, the end-tidal carbon dioxide waveform will
A. decrease towards baseline
B. remain flat at baseline
C. increase away from baseline
D. exhibit a plateau phase
Not B… maybe A
How are cortical somatosensory evoked potentials affected by the administration of volatile anesthetics?
A. Latency and amplitude both decrease
B. Latency decreases and amplitude increases
C. Latency increases and amplitude decreases
D. Latency and amplitude both increase
Not B… maybe A
You are inserting a pulmonary artery catheter via the right internal jugular vein. At what distance would you expect to reach the pulmonary artery?
A. 25-35 cm
B. at least 50 cm
C. 45-50 cm
D. 35-45 cm
D
Which type of visual evoked potential is performed on an awake patient?
A. Patterned VEPs
B. Constant simulus VEPs
C. Stochastic VEPs
D. Unpatterned VEPs
A
The time between an alarm triggering event and the system recognizing that an alarm condition exists is known as the
A. protracted alarm time
B. low priority alarm
C. alarm signal
D. alarm condition delay
D
Why is 50 Hz the most commonly used frequency when performing tetany with a peripheral nerve stimulator?
A. Higher frequencies produce responses that are too fast for the clinician to observe accurately
B. Frequencies above 50 Hz can cause serious muscle damage
C. It most closely resembles a maximal voluntary muscle contraction
D. It is the maximum frequency to which the muscles can respond
C
Which of the following leads would be most useful in assessing the lateral portion of the heart on a 12-lead electrocardiogram?
A. Lead aVF
B. Lead II
C. Lead V1
D. Lead I
D
The time it takes for a monitoring system to generate an alarm signal once it identifies a triggering event is known as the
A. alarm condition delay
B. alarm signal general delay
C. alarm limit
D. alarm hypersensitivity
Not A
Which bispectral index (BIS) score is defined as representing a ‘low probability of explicit recall and being unresponsive to verbal stimuli’?
A. 100
B. 10
C. 50
D. 80
C
40-60
