Principles formative Flashcards

1
Q

which structure is located along the length of the testis at its posterior aspect and moves in a superior to inferior direction?

A

epididymis

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2
Q

which structure is cut and tied off in a common male sterilisation procedure?

A

vas deferens

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3
Q

which structure drains semen into the prostatic urethra?

A

ejaculatory duct

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4
Q

which bone is part of the axial skeleton and articulates with a cervical vertebra?

A

occipital bone

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5
Q

which bone does not articulate with any other bone?

A

hypoid bone

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6
Q

where is the hypoid bone located?

A

anterior part of the neck, at the level of C3

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7
Q

what structures from the pubic outlet?

A

ischium (ischiopubic ramus), coccyx, pubic symphysis, ischial tuberosities and the sacrotuberous ligament

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8
Q

what type of joint is the interosseus membrane?

A

fibrous joint

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9
Q

which joint is between the C1 and the neurocranium?

A

atlanto-occipital joint

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10
Q

what joint has approx 180 degrees of flexion?

A

shoulder joint

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11
Q

what is the site of ribosome production?

A

nucleolus

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12
Q

which structure spreads electrical activity directly from cell to cell?

A

communicating junctions (gap junctions)

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13
Q

what is the site of lipid synthesis?

A

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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14
Q

what is the name for an avascular, typically polarised tissue that forms cohesive sheets, covering surfaces and lining cavities?

A

epithelium

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15
Q

which structure is composed of very long elongated cells with each cell having multiple nuclei?

A

skeletal muscle

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16
Q

which two cell types are striated?

A

skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle

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17
Q

which cells appear striated, are branched and have a single nucleus that is located near their centre?

A

cardiac muscle fibres

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18
Q

which type of glia produces myelin in the CNS?

A

oligodendrocytes

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19
Q

what type of cells are microglia?

A

immune surveillance cells

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20
Q

which type of cells produces myelin in the peripheral nervous system?

A

schwann cells

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21
Q

what is an example function of astrocytes?

A

support and maintaining homeostasis in the extracellular environment

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22
Q

what are the three types of glia cells?

A

astrocytes, microglia and oligodendrocytes

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23
Q

when do most major abnormalities of development occur?

A

weeks 3-8

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24
Q

what is the azygous system?

A

a collective term given to the venous systems draining the thoracic wall and upper lumbar region including the azygos, hemiazygos, accessory hemiazygos veins and left superior intercostal vein.

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25
Q

what is the thoracic duct?

A

major lympathic vessel in the body that return lymph to large veins in the root of the neck

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26
Q

what layers (in order) does an average sized artery have?

A
  1. tunica intima
  2. internal elastic membrane
  3. tunica media
  4. external elastic membrane
  5. tunica adventitia
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27
Q

what is a oocyte?

A

a female gametocyte that develops into an ovum

28
Q

what is a acrosome?

A

a cap-like saccular organelle in the anterior half of the dead of the sperm that contains several enzymes

29
Q

what is a foetus?

A

a multicellular and developed from week 9 –> birth.

30
Q

what is a morulla?

A

a spherical shape of cells, 3-4 days after fertilisation

31
Q

what is a blastocyst?

A

a ball of cells with a cavity and inner cell mass, 4-5 days after fertilisation

32
Q

what is a zygote?

A

a single cell organism also called a fertilised ovum

33
Q

when is an unborn offspring considered an embryo?

A

fertilisation to week 8

34
Q

what do enzymes do?

A

increase the velocity of a reaction by decreasing the energy of activation

35
Q

how many ADP molecules are phosphorylated to ATP during the complete catabolism of glucose to pyruvate?

A

4

36
Q

what is a transcription factor?

A

a protein other than RNA polymerase that is involved in transcription

37
Q

what type of molecules do ribosomes consist of?

A

RNA and proteins

38
Q

what is quaternary structure?

A

the relative orientation of one polypeptide to another polypeptide in a multi-subunit protein

39
Q

what is the direction of synthesis of DNA?

A

5’ to 3’

40
Q

what is buffering capacity?

A

the extent to which a buffer solution can counteract the effect of added acid or base

41
Q

what is catabolism?

A

breakdown of complex structures to obtain the ‘building block’ of life

42
Q

what is anabolism?

A

assimilation of complex structures from the building block of life

43
Q

what is phosphorylation?

A

enzymatic addition of phosphate group to an amino acid residue in a protein

44
Q

which receptor in the human heart mediates the increase in rate and force due to the stimulation of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Beta1 adrenoceptor

45
Q

what is a example of a organ which receives only sympathetic innervation by pre-ganglionic fibres?

A

the medulla of the adrenal gland

46
Q

what is the normal range of mean arterial blood pressure?

A

70-105 mmHg

47
Q

what is the resting potential of a typical nerve cell?

A

-70mV

48
Q

what is the anterior hypothalamic centre stimulated by?

A

warmth

49
Q

what is the posterior hypothalamic centre stimulated by?

A

cold

50
Q

what is a malignant tumour derived from a glandular epithelial surface known as?

A

adenocarcinoma

51
Q

what is empyema?

A

a body cavity filled with pus

52
Q

what is metastasis?

A

spread of cancer from the primary anatomical site

53
Q

what is emphysema?

A

chronic lung disease with loss of elasticity of alveolar air spaces

54
Q

what is neoplasia?

A

abnormal uncontrolled growth of cells

55
Q

what is hypoplasia?

A

reduction in cell numbers

56
Q

what is hypertrophy?

A

an increase in cell size

57
Q

what is the initial response in the vascular phase of acute inflammation?

A

arteriole dilatation

58
Q

which two cell types does granulation tissue consist of?

A

endothelial cells and myofibroblasts

59
Q

what cell types does granuloma consist of?

A

macrophages and histiocytes

60
Q

what does tissue in the CNS undergo after a stroke and significant cell death?

A

liquefactive necrosis

61
Q

where is coagulative necrosis often found?

A

cardiac muscle

62
Q

what is caseous necrosis most commonly associated with?

A

tuberculosis

63
Q

if the cocci are arranged in grape-like clusters, they are likely to be?

A

staphylococci

64
Q

what do gram positive organisms produce?

A

exotoxins

65
Q

which type of organism stains purple?

A

gram positive

66
Q

what is malaria caused by?

A

protozoa called plasmodium