Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Past Paper Questions > CAP test > Flashcards

CAP test Flashcards

1
Q

where does the venous angle lie?

A

between the subclavian vein and the internal jugular vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does the thoracic duct drain into?

A

left venous angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does the right lymphatic duct drain into?

A

right venous angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what drains into the right atrium?

A

inferior/superior vena cave and the coronary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which vein does the intercostal veins from the anterior aspect of the intercostal spaces drain into?

A

internal thoracic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which vein does the intercostal veins from the posterior aspect of the intercostal spaces drain into?

A

azygous vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which layer lies immediately superficial to the myocardium?

A

visceral serous pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what layer is most closely associated with the route of the phrenic nerve through the chest?

A

fibrous pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is metaplasia?

A

the change from one mature cell to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is hyperplasia?

A

increase in cell number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is neoplasia?

A

abnormal cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is hypoplasia?

A

decrease in cell number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is dysplasia?

A

presence of abnormal cells within a tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which stage of embryogenesis are the germ layers formed?

A

gastrulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is morphogenesis?

A

formation of the body plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is organogenesis?

A

development of the primordia of all the organs of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is Km high or low when an enzyme has a high affinity for its substrate?

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what enzyme transcribes genetic material?

A

RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is FiFo ATPase?

A

a proton pore which utilises the energy yielded from the return of protons along their electrochemical gradient in a condensation reaction with ADP and Pi to yield ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

why do rapidly contracting cells start producing lactic acid?

A

they require large amounts of energy in the form of ATP. if they can’t produce enough by oxidative phosphorylation these cells require another way of regenerating NAD+, they use lactic acid as a substrate for gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are partial agonists?

A

drugs that bind to and activate a given receptor, but have only partial efficacy at the receptor relative to a full agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does SBAR stand for?

A

situation, background, assessment, recommendation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the most abundant antibody in the blood?

A

IgG

24
Q

which antibody exists as a dimer and is found in secretions of breast milk, saliva and tears?

A

IgA

25
Q

which antibody is a pentamer?

A

IgM

26
Q

what anti-microbial proteins are secreted by epithelial cells at mucosal surfaces?

A

defensins

27
Q

what are defensins?

A

small cysteine-rich cationic proteins that can bind to microbial cell membranes and assist in killing cells

28
Q

why is a decrease in circulating blood volume during sepsis?

A

due to endotoxins causing vasodilatation and intravascular fluid leaking into adjacent tissue

29
Q

which types of organisms are endotoxins part of their cell wall?

A

gram negative

30
Q

what pathology finding would be found on asthmatic inflammation responsive to corticosteroids?

A

chronic eosinophilic mucosal inflammation

31
Q

which microbe most commonly causes bronchiolitis?

A

respiratory syncytial virus

32
Q

what is the underlying pathology of sarcoidosis?

A

non-caseating granulomas develop in many body organs, including the lungs

33
Q

how do you calculate mean arterial blood pressure?

A

diastolic pressure + 1/3(systolic-diastolic pressure)

34
Q

leads v2-5 are what region most likely site of infarct?

A

anterior

35
Q

leads v1-3 are what region most likely site of infarct?

A

anteroseptal

36
Q

leads v4-6,1,aVL are what region most likely site of infarct?

A

anterolateral

37
Q

leads II,III,aVF are what region most likely site of infarct?

A

inferior

38
Q

leads v1-2 are what region most likely site of infarct?

A

posterior

39
Q

what shape is haemoglobin?

A

tetramer

40
Q

what is the initial management for SVT?

A

valsalva manoeuvre

41
Q

the rate of rescue breathing in an adult with a respiratory arrest should be?

A

10 times per minute

42
Q

what would the pulse rate of a person suffering from shock from blood loss be like?

A

fast

43
Q

which valvular abnormality produces an ejection systolic murmur?

A

aortic stenosis

44
Q

what medication helps improve survival in chronic congestive heart failure?

A

ACE inhibitors

45
Q

what causes the rising phase of depolarisation in contractile ventricular muscle?

A

fast sodium influx

46
Q

what valvular abnormality is likely to present with a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex of the heart when the patient is in the left lateral position?

A

mitral stenosis

47
Q

which valvular abnormality causes a pan-systolic murmur best heart at the apex of the heart?

A

mitral regurgitation

48
Q

what is the plateau phase of action potential causes by?

A

increased calcium influx

49
Q

what is the repolarisation (phase 3) caused by?

A

increased potassium efflux

50
Q

what is resistance to blood flow inversely proportional to?

A

radius of a blood vessel to the power of 4

51
Q

which vessel carries blood from the liver (from the stomach, pancreas and bowel) into the IVC?

A

hepatic vein

52
Q

which vessel is most inferior of the paired anterolateral branches of the abdominal aorta?

A

gonadal artery

53
Q

what does the coeliac trunk trifurcate into?

A

common hepatic, splenic and left gastric arteries

54
Q

what is the most common cause of food poisoning?

A

campylobacter

55
Q

which organism is associated with food poisoning after eating rice which has been stored too long at room temp?

A

bacillus cereus

56
Q

which organism infection may lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

E. coli 0157

57
Q

how are GI parasites diagnosed?

A

microscopy by stool

Past Paper Questions (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions