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Essential shit > Principles > Flashcards

Principles Flashcards

1
Q

opposite of medial

A

lateral

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2
Q

opposite of cranial

A

caudal

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3
Q

opposite of proximal

A

distal

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4
Q

opposite of lateral rotation

A

medial rotation

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5
Q

when pinky and thumb touch

A

opposition

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6
Q

same side of the body

A

ipsilateral

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7
Q

opposite sides of the body

A

contralateral

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8
Q

what is the largest bone of the foot

A

calcaneus

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9
Q

What are Primary cartilagenous joints

A

joined by hyaline cartilage
long bone epiphseal growth plates

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10
Q

What are Secondary cartilagenous joints

A

strong, joined by fibrocartilage
intervertebral discs

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11
Q

what type of joints are sutures and syndesmoses

A

fibrous

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12
Q

stages of embriogenesis

A

Gametogenesis, fertilisation, cleavage, gastrulation, formation of body plan, organogenesis

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13
Q

what is morphogenesis

A

formation of body plan

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14
Q

describe cleavage

A

earliest cell divisions. cell division is rapid, body axes are also formed

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15
Q

What is gastrulation

A

migration of cells through the primitive streak to form germ layers (Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm)

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16
Q

How fast is the innate immune response

A

within hours, fast

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17
Q

how fast is the adaptive immune response

A

within days, slow

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18
Q

what immune response is specific

A

adaptive
immune response is tailored to each individual antigen

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19
Q

which immune system displays memory

A

adaptive

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20
Q

what is the more diverse immune response

A

adaptive
highly diverse, respinds to a vast amount of different structures

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21
Q

Features of a neutrophil

A

multi-lobed nucleus, main target is bacteria and fungi

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22
Q

Features of an eosinophil

A

bi-lobed nucleus, stains red. targets large parasites, modulates allergic inflammatory responses

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23
Q

features of a basophil

A

large granulocyte
releases histamine for inflammatory response

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24
Q

difference between basophil and mast cell

A

basophils leave bone marrow already mature, whereas mast cell circulates in an immature form, only maturing once in a tissue site

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25
Q

features of lymphocytes

A

B Lymphocytes : release antibodies, assist in activation of T cells
T lymphocytes : mature in thymus
NK cells : kill virus infected and tumour cells

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26
Q

what is C-reactive protein (CRP)

A

Binds to microbial protein
- acts as opsonin for phagocytes
Levels rise dramatically in response to infection/inflammation
- useful clinically for monitoring of inflammatory responses

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27
Q

what are the roles of complement in immunity

A
  • make holes in membranes of bacterial cells
  • opsonisation and cell activation
  • clearance of immune complexes
  • chemotaxis
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28
Q

what are chemotaxis

A

signalling molecules that recruit WBC to site of infection
C5a, C3a

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29
Q

what are three pathways of complement activation

A

classical
lectin
alternative

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30
Q

what is the classical pathway of complement activation

A

Activated by antibodies
C1, C4, C2, C3

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31
Q

what is the lectin pathway

A

lectins bind specifically to carbohydrates

carbohydrates in cell wall of microorganisms bind to MBL

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32
Q

what is the alternative pathway

A

amplifies production of C3

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33
Q

what are inclusions

A

components synthesised by the cell itself

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34
Q

what are C3a and C5a responsible for

A

acute inflammation

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35
Q

describe some structural features of antibodies

A

large globular glycoproteins, Y shaped molecules held togehter by disuphide bridges
- two heavy chains
- two light chains

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36
Q

What Ig is pentameric? Describe some functions

A

IgM,

First Ig to be produced in an immune response

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37
Q

What is the most abundant Ig in the blood? Describe some functions

A

IgG

Actively transported across placenta. provides foetal immunity

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38
Q

What is second most abundant Ig in blood? describe some functions

A

IgA

secretory Ig, primary defence mechanism at mucosal surfaces

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39
Q

What is least abundant Ig? describe some functions

A

IgE

produced in response to parasitic infection, type 1 hypersensitivity

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40
Q

Function of IgD

A

unknown in secreted form

B cell antigen receptor on cell surfaces

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41
Q

What is the Fab fragment of an antibody involved in

A

Antigen binding

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42
Q

What is the Fc region of an antibody involved in

A

Responsible for major biological action of antibodies

IgE binds here in hypersensitivity type 1 reactions

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43
Q

Characteristics of B cells

A

Develop in Bone marrow, produce antibodies

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44
Q

Characteristics of T cells

A

Develop in bone marrow, mature in thymus
- CD4+ T cells - regulate innate and adaptive immune response
- CD8+ T cells - kill infected body and cancer cells

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45
Q

Class I MHC cells

A

expressed on all nucleated cells

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46
Q

Class II MHC

A

Expressed only on antigen presenting cells

Dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells

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47
Q

What are some physical signs of acute inflammation

A

Rubor, Calor, Tumor, Dolor

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48
Q

Describe the Vascular phase of Acute Inflammation

A

Vasodilation of blood vessels, increased blood vessel permeability, circulation slows and increased stasis at injury

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49
Q

Describe the cellular phase of acute inflammation (5)

A
  • Margination - neutrophils line up along vessel wall
  • Rolling - close contact with and rolling along vessel wall
  • Adhesion - connecting to vessel wall
  • Migration - neutrophils move through vessel wall to affected area in tissues (diapedesis)
  • neutrophils phagocytoses pathogen
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50
Q

What are the major cells involved in chronic inflammation

A

Monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells, fibroblasts

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51
Q

Outcomes of chronic inflammation

A

tissue destruction, fibrosis, necrosis

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52
Q

outcomes of acute inflammation

A

resolution, abscess formation, chronic inflammation

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53
Q

Define necrosis

A

Premature cell death by external factors, always pathological

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54
Q

Define apoptosis

A

Predefined programmed cell death, requires an energy source

removes unwanted cells and viral cells and tumour cells

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55
Q

What is coagulative necrosis

A

cell death due to a lack of blood supply

MI etc.

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56
Q
A
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57
Q

What is colliquative necrosis? where does it occur

A

partial or complete dissolution of tissue

occurs in brain

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58
Q

Caseuous necrosis

A

cheese like

Tuberculosis

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59
Q

Gangrenous

A

Necrosis with secondary infection by anaerobic bacteria

60
Q

Fibrinoid necrosis

A

found in blood vessel walls, death of blood vessels replaced by fibrin

most common in liver

61
Q

Characteristics of benign neoplasms

A

slow growth rate, well differentiated, normal nuceli, no invasion, no metastasis

62
Q

Characteristics of malignant neoplasms

A

poorly differentiated, unusual mitotic figures, ill defined border, invasion and frequent metastasis

63
Q

glandular benign and malignant neoplasm name

A

adenoma, adenocarcinoma

64
Q

squamous benign and malignant neoplasm name

A

papilloma, squamous cell carcinoma

65
Q

Fat benign and malignant neoplasm name

A

lipoma, liposarcoma

66
Q

Smooth muscle benign and malignant neoplasm name

A

Rhabdomyoma, Rhabdomyosarcoma

67
Q

Blood Vessel benign and malignant name

A

haemangioma, angiosarcoma

68
Q

Bone benign and malignant neoplasm name

A

osteoma, osteosarcoma

69
Q

Define metaplasia

A

change from one mature cell to another

70
Q

Define hyperplasia

A

physiological increase in cell number (reversible) can be benign

71
Q

Neoplaisa

A

abnormal cell proliferation not in response to a stimulus

72
Q

Define hypertrophy

A

increase in cell size

73
Q

Hypoplasia

A

physiological decrease in cell number

74
Q

Staph aureus appearance

A

golden

75
Q

Streptoccoci features

A

strips, gram positive

76
Q

Test to identify staph aureus

A

coagulase test

+ve if staph aureus, -ve means coagulase negative staph

77
Q
A
78
Q

Test to identify streptococci

A

haemolysis
alpha - partial, dark green
beta - complete, yellow
gamma - no haemolysis, red

79
Q

what colour does gram positive bacteria stain

A

purple due to thick peptidoglycan layer that stains as well as a phospolipid bilayer

80
Q

what colour do gram negatie organisms stain

A

pink, thinner peptidoglycan wall

81
Q

What can pseudomonas aeruginosa be treated with

A

ciproflaxin

resistant to most antibiotics

82
Q

Define bactericidal and bacteriostatic

A

cidal - kills bacteria

static - inhibits bacterial growth

82
Q

what is C.Diff treated with?

A

metrodizanole (mild)
vancomycin (severe)

both oral

83
Q

What are the 4 Cs of C.diff infection

A

ciproflaxin
clinamycin
cephalosporins
co-amoxiclav

84
Q

what are the 5 ways infecion is spread

A

inhalation, ingestion, innoculation, mother to indant, intercourse

85
Q

what is MRSA resistant to

A

all beta-lactam antibiotics

86
Q

name two aerobic gram negative organisms

A

nesseira gonnorhoea, nesseria meningitis

87
Q

what are some antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis

A

penicillins, cephalasporins

88
Q

what are some antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis

A

macrolides, aminoglycosides (gentamicin)

89
Q

what are some antibiotics that act on bacterial DNA

A

metrodizanole (anaerobes), trimethropin +/- sulphonamide, fluoroquinolones (G+ve, G-ve)

90
Q

what is transformation ABR

A

dead bacterial DNA is combined into living bacterial plasmid

91
Q

Transduction ABR

A

bacterial DNA is transferred between viruses

92
Q

what is mechanism of action with antibiotics with a beta-lactam ring

A
  • bactericidal
  • inhibits cross linking of peptidoglycan cell wall through bidning to penicliin binding proteins
93
Q

Conjugation ABR

A

Plasmid DNA is transferred betweeen bacteria

advantegous mutations

94
Q

what is a virus

A

DNA or RNA core wrapped in a capsid

95
Q

How does our immune system respond to viral infection

A
  • cytotoxic T cells reciognise virally infected DNA and can induce apoptosis of virally infected host cell
  • neutralising antibodies
96
Q

how to confirm pressence of a viral infection

A

antibody response
- IgM rises during infection
- IgG rises after infection and indicated previous exposure

PCR, Antigen detection

97
Q

What is an agonist

A

Drug that activates the receptor to produce a response to cause a biological response

98
Q

What is affinity

A

how readily a drug binds to a specific repector

99
Q

what is efficacy

A

how able a drug is to produce a response when bound to its receptor

100
Q

Potency

A

concentration/ dose of a drug required to evoke a response

101
Q

what is an antagonist

A

drug that blocks a receptor to prevent its activation

102
Q

what is a competitive antagonist

A

competes for the same binding site as agonist, and prevents it from binding

103
Q

what is a non-competitive agonist

A

drug occupies an allosteric site, causes conformational change to agonists binding site

104
Q

Ligand gated ion channels

A

agonist binds, channels open, ions flow in

105
Q

G-coupled protein receptors

A

agonist binds to receptors extracellular domain and triggers response that involves intracellular signalling cascade involving G-proteins. coverts GDP to GTP which allows it to complete other functions

salbultamol binding to b2 receptors, beta blockers

106
Q

Tyrosine kinase

A

agonist binds to membrane receptor, series of steps ocur intracellularly, phosphorylation of targets, effects…

insulin

107
Q

Nuclear receptor

A

agonist binds to receptor in nucleus (must be lipid soluble) causes increased or decreased gene transcription

108
Q

membrane potential

A

separation of opposite charges across cell membrane, due to unequal distribution of Na ions and K ions

more Na out of cell and K inside

109
Q

decribe the pathway of sympathetic divison in the ANS

A
  1. “Thoracic/lumbar outflow”
  2. Short preganglionic neurone
  3. At the first synapse, acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that binds to a cholinergic (nicotinic acetylcholine) receptor on postganglionic neurone
  4. At the second synapse, noradrenaline is the neurotransmitter that binds to an adrenoceptor (on effector cell)
110
Q

what type of receptors are Choligernic and adregernic

A

G-protein coupled

111
Q

Describe the pathway of parasympathetic divison in the ANS

A
  1. “cranio-sacral outflow”
  2. Long preganglionic neurone
  3. At the first synapse, acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter, that binds to a cholinergic (nicotinic acetylcholine) receptor on the short postganglionic neurone
  4. At the second synapse, acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter, that binds to a cholinergic(muscarinic acetylcholine) receptor (on effector cell)
112
Q

where in the nervous system does the ANS originate from

A

Sympathetic originates from T1-L2
Parasympathetci orginates from cranial nerves 3.7.9.10)

113
Q

M2 receptor causes

A

decreased heart rate and reduced cardiac conduction velocity

114
Q

M3 receptor causes

A

bronchoconstriction, penile erection in smooth muscle
increased secretion glandularly

115
Q

Descibe the different phases of the cell cycle

A

G1 phase
Cell increases in size
Cellular contents are duplicated
S phase
DNA replication
Each of the 46 chromosomes (23 pairs) is replicated by the cell
G2 phase
Cell grows more
Organelles and proteins develop in preparation for cell division
M phase
Mitosis (cellular division) followed by cytokinesis (cell separation)
Formation of two identical daughter cells

116
Q

what is phase where cells are quiescent

A

G0

117
Q

Describe mitosis

A
  1. Prophase
    Chromatin condenses into chromosomes
    Nucleolus disappears
  2. Prometaphase
    Nuclear membrane/envelope breaks down
    -> spindle fibre attach to chromosomes at site called kinetochore (on centromere of each sister chromatid)
  3. Metaphase
    Chromosomes line up along metaphase plate
    NB – any error in chromosomal alignment or spindle attachment will result in cell haling further progress until problem is fixed
  4. Anaphase
    Chromosomes break at centromeres and sister chromatids move up to opposite ends of the cell
  5. Telophase
    Reformation of two nuclei, chromosomes de-condense and mitotic spindle fibres break down
  6. Cytokinesis
    Division of cytoplasm to form two new cells
118
Q

what is a nucleoside

A

base + sugar

119
Q

what is a nucleotide

A

base + sugar + phosphate

120
Q

what end are nucleotides always added to

A

3’

121
Q

What way does DNA polymerase work?

A

5’ to 3’

122
Q

what enzyme unwinds double helix

A

Helicase

123
Q

What enzyme synthesises RNA primer that starts replication

A

DNA primase

124
Q

What enzyme combines okazaki fragments

A

DNA ligase

125
Q

rRNA

A

combines with proteins to form ribosomes

126
Q

tRNA

A

act as transducter molecules to bring amino acids together

127
Q

mRNA

A

carries a copy of the genetic code for protein synthesis

128
Q

what is a gene

A

region of DNA that codes for a specific protein

129
Q

what functional group of AA contributes to polypeptide chain in tertiary protein structure

A

R group

130
Q

what is transcription

A

DNA to mRNA

131
Q

what direction is mRNA synthesised

A

5’-3’

132
Q

how is mRNA transcript modified prior to translation

A
  • splicing - introns spliced out
133
Q

what is an anticodin

A

3 bases on the tRNA that are complementary to the mRNA codon

134
Q

What are the functions of the two mRNA binding sites, P and A, on the ribosome

A

P site holds peptide chain
A site Accepts the tRNA

135
Q

what are telomeres

A

DNA caps at chromosome ends, ensure complete replication of genome and protect coding sequences at the chromosome ends from damage

136
Q

acrocentric

A

if P arm is so short its hard to observe

137
Q

telocentric

A

chromosomes centromere located at terminal end of chromosome

138
Q

what is acCGH

A

1st line chromosome test, finds polymorphisms in DNA sequence

139
Q

what is a polymorphism

A

a variation in the human genome that has a frequency of at least 1%

140
Q

what is penetrance

A

likelihood of having disease if you have genetic mutation

141
Q

what is robertsonian translocation

A

two acrocentric chromosomes attach to one another

trisomy

142
Q

what are reciprocal translocations

A

segments from two different chromosomes have been exchanged

143
Q

what is prevalence

A

number of people that currently have a specific disease

144
Q

what is incidence

A

number of people that catch a specific disease in a year

Essential shit (5 decks)

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