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RD Exam > Principle of Dietetics > Flashcards

Principle of Dietetics Flashcards

1
Q

Describe heme v non-heme iron

A

Heme: does NOT require a reducing agent to make it absorbable in the body. Found in meats and animal tissues. Only 50% of iron from animals is heme iron

Non-heme: found in plants and must have a reducing agent like vitamin C

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2
Q

What constitutes a lean fish and give examples.

A

0-5% fat; flounder, red snapper, halibut and sea trout

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3
Q

Name the function of nitrites

A

Antimicrobial action, kills clostridium botulinum (also gives smoked meat its pink color)

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4
Q

Name the function of glycerol monostearate

A

dough conditioner

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5
Q

Describe the difference between natural cheese and processed cheese

A

Natural: no additives
Processed: has emulsifiers (binds water and fat- making it so that they don’t separate when heated) which makes them softer and easier to cook with

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6
Q

Describe overrun in ice cream

A

Increased volume that occurs when ice cream is agitated during freezing.

Weight of the product tells % of overrun (100% overrun is allowed, 70-80% is recommended)

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7
Q

Describe the effect of acid on egg foaming action (or whitening)

A

acid INCREASES the foaming action of egg

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8
Q

Describe whey

A

Watery part of milk left after separation of curd in cheese making

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9
Q

Describe USDA grading

A

A voluntary action paid by the processor to help untrained persons buy quality meat. The meat is given in quality grades

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10
Q

Name the eight quality grades of meat.

A

Prime, Choice, Select, Standard, Commercial, Utility, Cutter and Canner

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11
Q

Describe Sous Vide method

A

Food is vacuum packed when fresh, then refrigerated. (anaerobic conditions- absence of O2)

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12
Q

Describe the FDA

A

Responsible for regulating all foods except red meat, poultry and eggs. Involved in nutrition labeling and accuracy of the listing of ingredients.

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13
Q

Name the four basic parts of a research study and describe each.

A
  1. Introduction: reviews the literature and gives a brief outline of the study
  2. Method: describes how the data was obtained through its research design.
  3. Results: the outcome of the study and statistical analysis
  4. Discussion and Conclusions: Describes the relationship between the hypothesis and the results including significance of the study
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14
Q

Give the difference between goal and objective

A

Goal: general purpose that is stated in broad outcomes

Objective: is specific. Stated in measurable terms and is characterized by action verbs such as identify, explain, etc.

Goals may be obtained through objectives

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15
Q

Define the counseling skill of summarization

A

a listening response from the counselor.

Paying attention to both content and feelings. This response extends both the paraphrase and reflection responses.

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16
Q

Define the counseling skill of paraphrasing

A

A listening response from the counselor.

Restatement of the client’s message in the counselor’s own words. Usually touching on the main points of the client’s statement.

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17
Q

Name the kind of research that is exhibited in experimental and causal comparison studies. Describe each.

A

Both are analytic research studies.

Experimental: utilizes an independent variable and measures the dependent variable (this allows for more control by the researcher).

Causal comparison: an “after the fact” kind of measurement where there is no designated independent variable (this has less control by the researcher).

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18
Q

Define the counseling skill of self-disclosure.

A

an active response from the counselor.

The counselor shares information about themselves to provide a more open atmosphere

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19
Q

Describe the traditional or classical school of management.

A

People are motivated to work through money; emphasis on work and the organizational high productivity is expected.

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20
Q

Describe Fredrick Taylor

A

The father of scientific management. Promoted the though of working smarter, not harder.

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21
Q

Contrast the benefits between written v. oral communication

A

Written: provides a record for documentation and can be legally binding but response time is slower.

Oral: provides for more rapid response but is not legally binding

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22
Q

Name the benefit of nondirective interview.

A

The client is allowed to answer questions freely and more information can be derived.

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23
Q

Describe Elton Mayo

A

He integrated behavioral sciences such as psychology and sociology into management theory.

Employee participation was emphasized and the needs of the employee were stressed.

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24
Q

Describe Herzberg’s Dual Factor Theory

A

Humanistic approach to management. Realized that recognition and responsibility could improve productivity.

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25
Q

Describe null hypothesis

A

states that there is NOT a significant difference between the control and experimental groups

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26
Q

Describe the difference between validity and reliability

A

Validity: describes the adequacy with which the measurement or index reflects the parameter of interest “a measure of accuracy”

Reliability: describes the degrees that repeated measurements give the same response. “a measure of consistency”

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27
Q

Name the kind of research that is exhibited in surveys and correlation studies and describe each.

A

Both are descriptive research studies.

Surveys: gather data for the purpose of identifying specific data.

Correlational studies: describe and strengthen the relationship between 2+ factors (ie fat and weight gain)

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28
Q

Name the two types of evaluations and describe each

A
  1. Formative: a “before and after” eval where one is able to formulate or draw conclusions based on prior testing (ie. a pretest and a post-test)
  2. Summative: an “after” eval with no basis of prior testing (ie an IQ test or the RD exam)
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29
Q

Define the counseling skill of confronting

A

an active response from the counselor. identifying the client’s mixed or distorted messages and to explore other ways of perceiving the clients self or situation

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30
Q

Define the counseling skill of interpreting

A

an active response from the counselor.

An active reply that gives a possible explanation of or association among various client behaviors.

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31
Q

Name the 3 learning domains and describe each.

A
  1. Cognitive: involves memory and problem solving
  2. Psychomotor: involved physical manipulation or movement
  3. Affective: involved emotions and attitudes
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32
Q

Define the counseling skill of clarification

A

a listening response from the counselor.

Posing a Q, often after an ambiguous client message to clarify a comment.

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33
Q

Describe the Duo-trio test in evaluation food.

A

A control sample is presented first, then a control and experimental sample is presented for identification of the different item. Gives a 50% change of guessing.

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34
Q

What do you need to know when converting weight to volume

A

specific gravity.

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35
Q

Describe irradiation of meat

A

Cold sterilization that breaks up bacteria DNA so it cannot reproduce

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36
Q

Name the department responsible for inspection of meat, fish and poultry.

A

Meat and poultry: USDA

Fish: US Dept of Commerce

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37
Q

Describe the difference between egg white and egg yolk.

A

White: B vitamins, more protein

Yolk: fat soluble vitamins, chol, less protein, iron (greater emulsifier b/c it contains lecithin)

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38
Q

Describe why erythorbate is used as an additive in some foods.

A

It prevents nitrite from forming nitrosamine (a cancer causing agent).

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39
Q

Describe the Delaney Clause

A

The amendment to the Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act stating that no food substance/additive can be considered safe if it produces cancer

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40
Q

Name the most frequently used additive in food

A

Sugar

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41
Q

Name the function of mono & diglycerides

A

Emulsifiers

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42
Q

What is the effect of fat on ice crystals?

A

Increases in fat, decrease in ice crystal formation making a smoother product (this is why ice cream is smoother than ice milk)

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43
Q

Name the least effective way to learn

A

Self-instruction modules that are done on one’s own time.

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44
Q

Name the difference between replication and duplication in research

A

replication: repeating the study a number of times to gather different sets of data
duplication: repeating the research and arriving at the same results

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45
Q

Describe Henry Gantt

A

The father of scheduling. Developing Gantt charts for charting time and tasks.

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46
Q

What is the advantage of the Formal Lecture method in education?

A

allows for the most material to be covered in the shortest amount of time

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47
Q

Name the reading level that most nutrition education material is written

A

8th grade

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48
Q

Describe the human relations school of management

A

employees are motivated to work through respect, responsibility, etc (money is not a factor); emphasis is on the employee; human element is important

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49
Q

Describe the result of overcooked hard boiled eggs

A

they turn green due to iron combining with sulfur

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50
Q

What has the most effect on cooking losses of meat?

A

the temp of cooking and length of time

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51
Q

Describe the FTC (federal trade commission)

A

investigates false advertising claims, oral misrepresentation and promotes free and fair competition

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52
Q

Describe the difference between independent and dependent variables

A

Independent: the variable that is exposed to the experimental group in research

dependent: the outcome or effect of the independent variable in research
(i. e. fat is the independent variable, while weight gain is the dependent variable)– all are measures of central tendency from frequency distributions

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53
Q

Define the counseling skill of probing

A

an active response from the counselor

A questioning technique that encourages client elaboration to obtain information. Open-ended questions that begin with who, what, where, how, etc

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54
Q

When would you use moist heat cookery?

A

For all beef other than loin cuts, older animals, veal, and uncured pork products

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55
Q

Papain, Bromelin, and Ficin are 3 kinds of chemical tenderizers, where do they originate?

A 
Papain= papaya
Bromelin= pineapple
Ficin= figs

any acids can be tenderizers; ie- lemons and tomatoes

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56
Q

Describe the Triangle test in evaluating food.

A

3 samples presented at one time, 2 are identical.

Gives a 33% chance of guessing

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57
Q

Define the mean, median and mode

A

Mean: average of scores
Median: score located at the midpoint
Mode: score that occurs most frequently

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58
Q

Define the counseling skill of attributing

A

an active response from the counselor

Encouraging the client’s potential for being successful in a designated activity.

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59
Q

Describe the USDA

A

responsible for red meat, poultry and eggs

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60
Q

When should a lit review section of a research paper be complete?

A

Before the beginning of the actual research

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61
Q

Define the counseling skill of reflection

A

a listening response from the counselor

reflections of feelings are used to rephrase the affective part of the message– “you feel depressed b/c the lower sodium foods taste bland and are hard to find”

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62
Q

List some verbs that can be considered measurable terms for use in goals and objectives

A

Discuss, Apply, Compare and Illustrate (understand and comprehend are not considered to be measurable)

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63
Q

Describe the difference between elastin and collagen

A

Elastin fibers stretch and are not disintegrated upon heating with water (yellow)

Collagen fiber do not stretch and will soften and disintegrate during moist heat cooking (white)

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64
Q

Describe the Handbook 8

A

A USDA publication listing nutrition content of all foods on the market (best resource for evaluating food)

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65
Q

Describe the difference between etiology and epidemiology

A

Etiology: study of the cause of disease
Epidemiology: the study of the frequency of the disease

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66
Q

What learning technique permits the greatest retention?

A

Application or Hands-on

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67
Q

What is the process of adding hydrogen into a structure (ie as in margarine)?

A

Hydrogenation (makes oils more solid/spreadable)

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68
Q

What effect does alkaline have on thiamin?

A

destroys thiamin (keep in mind when adding baking powder to a recipe)

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69
Q

Name the optimal growing conditions for bacteria

A

Neutral pH, moisture, warm temp

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70
Q

Name the correct way to store leftovers

A

Use a container with increased surface area, cover the container and label/date the container

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71
Q

Describe the Food Chemical Codex

A

Guide for use and control of food additives

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72
Q

Describe the desirable method of cooking cheese

A

cook at a low temp, for a short time to prevent toughening of protein

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73
Q

Describe the fat content of heavy whipping cream, light whipping cream, half n half, whole milk and lowfat milk

A 
heavy whipping cream= 35%
light whipping cream= 30% 
half n half= 10% 
whole milk= 3-5% 
lowfat milk = 2%
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74
Q

Describe USDA inspection of meat

A

Mandatory inspection to insure wholesomeness and slaughtered under sanitary conditions. This is mandatory is sold across state line. (not an inspection of quality)

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75
Q

Describe the Delphi Technique

A

A technique utilizing 3 surveys to get the group to come to an agreement

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76
Q

Describe Drucker’s Management By Objectives

A

Supervisor and employee determine, together, performance objectives and criteria.

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77
Q

Describe McGregor’s Theory Y

A

Theory Y states that people thrived while working, could exercise self-control and revel in responsibility. A humanistic thought of management.

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78
Q

Describe filled milk.

A

Vegetable fat replaces butterfat, thus decreasing the cholesterol content

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79
Q

Name the cause of “sandiness” in ice cream

A

high proportion of dried milk solids in ice cream

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80
Q

Describe the correlation coefficient

A

the correlation coefficient is strong at -1.0 and 1.0. As the correlation gets closer to 0, it becomes weaker. (0 is the weakest)

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81
Q

What level is the P-value considered significant?

A

at 0.05 and below

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82
Q

Describe McGregor’s Theory X

A

Theory X states that people dislike to work and need direction and close supervision. A traditional or classical thought of management.

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83
Q

Describe the difference between buttermilk and whole milk.

A

Buttermilk has less calories, less fat and is more acidic than whole milk. (if replacing buttermilk for whole milk in a recipe; add baking soda)

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84
Q

Name factors affecting ice crystal formation

A

Fat, sugar, milk solids, emulsifiers and gelatin

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85
Q

Describe the difference between saturated, polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fatty acids

A

SFA: contain all hydrogen is can hold (raises LDL and lowers HDL)
PUFA: contain 2 or more double bonds (lowers LDL but also lowers HDL)
MUFA: contains one double bond (lowers LDL and keeps HDL the same)

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86
Q

Name the nutrients required to be added back in enriched bread

A

thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, iron

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87
Q

Describe the difference in %fat of ground beef, ground chuck and ground round

A

ground beef= <30%
ground chuck= <25%
ground round = <20%

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88
Q

Describe Listeria poisoning

A

Aerobic microorganism that survives in low temps found in seafood, soft cheese and unpasteurized milk. Also found in uncooked, processed meats.

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89
Q

Describe the effect of adding an acid or cream of tartar to an angelfood cake.

A

Turns the pale yellowish green flavonoid pigment while and makes the grain of the cake thinner.

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90
Q

Name the 3 ingredients found in all baking powders

A
  1. bicarb of soda
  2. an acid
  3. cornstarch
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91
Q

Describe the effect of saturated FA and mono & diglycerides on smoke point.

A

lowers the smoke point

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92
Q

Describe smoke point of fat

A

the temp at which fat smokes and acrolein appears (which is irritating to the mucous membranes)

(Acrolein (systematic name: propenal) is the simplest unsaturated aldehyde. It is a colorless liquid with a piercing, acrid smell. The smell of burnt fat (as when cooking oil is heated to its smoke point) is caused by glycerol in the burning fat breaking down into acrolein.)

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93
Q

Describe the role of VLDL

A

transports TGs from the liver to muscles and adipose tissues

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94
Q

Define gluconeogenesis

A

formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like protein and fat

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95
Q

Who is most likely in nitrogen balance?

A

A healthy adult (non-pregnant or lactating)

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96
Q

Describe pepsin and trypsin

A

Needed for hydrolysis of peptide bonds in proteins and polypeptides

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97
Q

Where is lactose mainly broken down to its monosaccharide parts?

A

in the small intestine

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98
Q

Name the major function of thiamin (B1)

A

Metabolism of CHO (decarboxylation of pyruvate)

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99
Q

Name the vitamins involved in pernicious anemia

A

B12 and folate

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100
Q

Name the best sources of vitamin K

A

Leafy green veggies (broccoli, cabbage, turnip greens, lettuce)

101
Q

Name the active form of vitamin D

A

1,25- dihydroxycholecalciferol (Calcitriol) // 25OHD

102
Q

Name the environment which vitamin C is most stable

A

acidic environment (pH <6.5)

103
Q

Name the mineral involved in lipid transportation through the lymph and blood system

A

Phosphorus (phospholipids)

104
Q

Describe the difference between active transport, passive transport, and facilitated diffusion

A

active transport= requires energy
passive transport= movement from greater concentration to lower concentration
facilitated diffusion= requires carriers

105
Q

Name the essential AA

A

TV TILL PM HA

Threonine, Valine, Tryptophan, Isoleucine, Leucine, Lysine, Phenylalanine, Methionine, Histidine (conditional), Arginine (conditional)

106
Q

Describe which life cycle stage has the highest growth rate and protein need per kg of body weight.

A

infancy

107
Q

Why is chicken meat often darker near the bone?

A

Hemoglobin causes staining during freezing and thawing. (myoglobin is found in muscle and gives an overall red coloring to the meat)

108
Q

Describe TVP (textured vegetable protein)

A

a meat extender and decreases the total amount of fat in meat dishes

109
Q

Name the temp that fruits and vegetables should be frozen

A

0-10 degrees F

110
Q

Describe the advantage of cooking vegetables in the microwave

A

Better retention of nutrients

111
Q

Describe phenophytin and chlorophyllin

A

Both are products of chlorophyll cooking.

phenophytin= yields a dull yellow color due to cooking in an acid (Mg+ is replace with H+) 
chlorophyllin= yields a bright yellow color and turns vegetables mushy due to cooking in an alkaline, like baking soda
112
Q

Describe the proper heating of canned foods

A

Boil for at least 10 min to prevent botulism

113
Q

Describe the benefit of cooking vegetables in a pressure cooker

A

Retains the nutritive value but decreases the color

114
Q

Describe the humidity conditions for vegetables requiring cool, dry storage

A

65-70% humidity

115
Q

Describe the effect of a high CO2 environment, or low O2 on fruits and veggies

A

Extends the life and improves market quality

116
Q

Describe the Maillard reaction

A

non-enzymatic browning. Reaction occurring b/w the combination of an amino group with a reducing sugar (happens with baking bread or frying potatoes)

117
Q

Describe the difference between osmosis and diffusion

A

Osmosis= water crossing a membrane to establish equilibrium (ie water entering lettuce leaves)

Diffusion= a substance goes from an area of higher conc to lower conc (ie sugar dissolving in water)

118
Q

describe solanine alkaloid production

A

Green tissue formed under the skin of potatoes due to storage in the sunlight. Causes a bitter taste and burning sensation

119
Q

Describe the proper way to cook broccoli and cauliflower

A

Remove the lid for the first 2-3 minutes to remove volatile acids

120
Q

Describe the different flours and gluten strengths (% protein)

A 
Gluten flour- 41% protein 
Hard wheat- 11.8% 
All purpose- 10.5% 
Self-rising- 9.3% (has added baking soda and salt) 
Pastry flour- 9.7% 
Cake flour- 7.5%

It is more important to know which flours are higher in gluten than exact percentages

121
Q

Describe the conversion of tryptophan to niacin

A

60 mg tryptophan yields 1 mg niacin. If protein or tryptophan intake increases, then there is a decreased need for intake of niacin.

122
Q

Name some symptoms of vitamin A deficiency

A
  • keratinization of the skin and mucous membrane

- night blindness

123
Q

Describe the difference between bone resorption and bone absorption

A 
Resorption= break down of bone 
Absorption= making of new bone
124
Q

Describe oxalic acid

A

Found in chocolate, spinach, cranberry and leafy green veggies. Binds with calcium and iron and inhibits absorption.

125
Q

Name the average amount of dietary iron per 1000 kcals in the US diet

A

6 mg

Americans only consume appx 60% of RDA for iron

126
Q

Describe aldosterone

A

regulates sodium reabsorption

127
Q

Describe lipase and name the organs that release it

A

an enzyme that digests lipids. the stomach and pancreas release lipase for digestion

128
Q

Describe catecholamines

A

stress hormones produces by the body, causing elevation of the metabolic rate, hyperglycemia and glucagon release. (ie epinephrine, norepi and dopamine)

129
Q

Name the common feature that protein, lipid and CHO catabolism have in common.

A

Acetyl Co-A is produced

130
Q

Name the tenderest cut of meat

A

Loin cuts (cuts from the backbone); Sirloin, Short Loin, Rub

131
Q

Describe Salmonella poisoning

A

Aerobic bacteria found in poultry, eggs and pasta. Causes a fever. Incubation time is 6-28 hours.

132
Q

Name the function of MSG (monosodium glutamate)

A

Flavor enhancer

133
Q

Describe Wilson’s disease

A

Excessive accumulation of copper in the liver, brain, kidney and cornea. An inherited disorder of copper metabolism

134
Q

Describe the proper storage of potato chips

A

Dark, cool place to prevent fat from becoming rancid

135
Q

describe blanching

A

Small amounts of food are plunged into boiling water to retard enzymatic action

136
Q

Describe the cause of browning in fruits. Give examples of retarding this action.

A

Oxidation (respiration) causes the enzymatic browning.

Antioxidants, sugar, acid, covering the item and cooking the item can retard this.

137
Q

Describe the basic structure of quick breads

A

flour and eggs

138
Q

Describe the effects of too much sugar and too much baking soda in bread.

A

Sugar: causes a crunchy, moist texture

Baking soda: causes an alkaline taste

139
Q

Describe the effect of protein in flour on breads

A

the increased concentration of protein in the flour yields a harder and tougher bread product. (ie cake flour produces a softer product compared to all-purpose flour)

140
Q

Describe the effect of cornstarch in cooking

A

Prevents clumping (anti-caking), becomes clear when cooking. Mainly amylopectin in structure.

141
Q

Describe syneresis and retrogradation

A

Syneresis= weeping of liquid (expulsion of liquid) from a gel from over stirring, dehydration and too much sugar

Retrogradation= breaking of hydrogen bonds holding the gel together. Results in staling of bread and gritty texture in puddings. Heating slowly prevents this.

142
Q

Describe winterization of fats

A

Chilling the oil to remove saturated fat. Used to protect a liquid consistency found in salad dressing.

143
Q

Name the most important factor when choosing fat for deep frying

A

Smoke point temp

144
Q

What fat has the greatest shortening power?

A

Lard

Shortening power is the ability to shorten gluten strands (causes flakiness in pastries)

145
Q

Name the best metal to use when frying

A

Stainless steel yields the least breakdown of fat when frying

146
Q

What constitutes a fatty fish? Give examples.

A

10-22% fat.

Herring, mackerel, salmon, lake trout

147
Q

What part of park is leanest?

A

Loin cuts (tenderloin)

148
Q

Describe soluble fiber and give examples

A

Has the ability to hold water, form gels and plays a role in fermentation by colonic bacteria. Includes pectins, gums and some hemicelluloses.

Helpful if struggling with diarrhea.
Foods include: oats, fruits and vegetables without peels, white bread/rice/pasta, psyllium

149
Q

Describe insoluble fibers and give examples

A

Major source is from bran layer of cereal grains. Includes cellulose and some hemicelluloses.

Can be helpful if constipated or having irregular BMs.
Food sources include: fruits and vegetables with peels, whole grains, legumes/beans

150
Q

Describe ethylene

A

A gas naturally emitted during ripening. Used to hasten the ripening of fruits and vegetables.

151
Q

Describe tannin

A

Gives the astringent (sharp) taste to fruits and veggies. Tannins in tea reduce non-heme iron absorption

152
Q

How should vegetables be stored?

A

Below 45 degrees F to delay the action of enzymes. (As vegetables ripen, the sugar molecules turn to starch. This is the opposite of what happens with fruits).

153
Q

Describe carotenoids

A

Yellow, orange and red-orange fat-soluble pigments

154
Q

What color would onions turn if cooked in an aluminum pan?

A

yellow (in iron and copper pans, it turns reddish-brown or blue-black)

155
Q

Describe flavonoids

A

water-soluble color pigments found in fruits and veggies.

Anthocyanins= blue and reddish blue (cabbage and radishes)

Anthoxanthins= whites and yellow

156
Q

Describe hemochromatosis

A

a potential fatal disorder in which cellular damage has occurred due to large amounts of hemosiderin (iron-storage complex) in the liver and spleen

157
Q

How is the size of a cell classified?

A 
macrocytic = large cell size 
normocytic = normal cell size
microcytic = small cell size
158
Q

define glycogenesis

A

cause of formation of glycogen; due to insulin or other anabolic condition

159
Q

Describe the protein needs for athletes

A

Apprx 1 g/kg to maintain muscle mass.

Apprx 1.4-1.8 g/kg to build muscle mass

160
Q

Describe the role of HCl in the stomach

A

Keeps the stomach in an acidic environment essential for proteolysis (proteins broken down to peptones and polypeptides down to AA).

161
Q

Compare sorbitol to sucrose

A

sorbitol has 2/3 the calories per gram and is not as sweet as sucrose

162
Q

What is the RDI for thiamin?

A

0.5 mg per 1000 kcals (mainly CHO; ie fortified cereals and whole grains)

163
Q

Name the major function of B6

A

Coenzyme in transamination related to protein metabolism (as protein intake increases, B6 requirements increase).

164
Q

Define provitamin

A

a compound that can be converted to a vitamin within the body.

Beta carotene–> vitamin A
tryptophan–> niacin
7-dehydrocholesterol –> vitamin D

165
Q

Name the nutrients involved in conversion of homocysteine to methionine

A

Vitamin B6, B12, and folate

166
Q

Name some anticoagulants and their role with vitamin K

A

Coumadin, Warfarin, Heparin: act as vitamin K antagonists (while on Coumadin and Warfarin, it is important to have consistent intake of vitamin K).

167
Q

Describe cholesterol

A
  • only found in animal products
  • precursor to vitamin D
  • key intermediate to estrogen, progesterone and androgens
168
Q

Name the preparation process that contributes to the most vitamin loss

A

Chopping and cutting foods into small pieces

169
Q

Name the factors increasing risk of bone loss

A

Immobility, lack of weight bearing activity, menopause (decrease in estrogen production) and increase intake of calcium

170
Q

Describe phytic acid

A

Found in husks of cereal grain, binds with calcium and inhibits absorption

171
Q

Name the 2 AA containing sulfur

A

Methionine and cysteine

172
Q

Name BCAAs

A

Isoleucine, Leucine and Valine

173
Q

Name a good source of monounsaturated fatty acids

A

Canola and olive oils

174
Q

Describe Ouchi’s Theory Z

A

States that teamwork and job “family” is important. Loyalty to the job is key.

175
Q

Name the types of dry heat cooking.

A

Broiling, roasting and frying used for the more tender cuts of meat

176
Q

Describe Clostridium Perfingens poisoning

A

Anaerobic bacteria found in meat and poultry, held warm for several hours. Known as the “lunchroom bacteria.”

177
Q

Name the minimum cooking temp for meat and poultry

A

Fresh Beef, Veal, Lamb & Pork = 145 degrees F and rest for 3 minutes.

Ground beef, veal, lamb & pork = 160 degrees F

Fresh poultry = 165 degrees F

Ground Poultry = 165 degrees F

178
Q

What does skim milk need to be fortified with?

A

Vitamin A and D

179
Q

What role does vitamin K play in blood clotting?

A

triggers the liver to make prothrombin (helps with coagulation)

180
Q

Describe the roles of vitamin E

A
  1. acts as an antioxidant
  2. enhances activity of vitamin A
  3. prevents peroxidation of PUFA
181
Q

Name the major function of folic acid

A

Transport single carbon fragments in AA metabolism and nucleic synthesis. Essential to cell division and RBC formation

182
Q

what role does estrogen play in bone loss.

A

decreases resorption of calcium from the bone

183
Q

Name 2 nutrients that compete with calcium’s absorption site that may prevent absorption

A

Zinc and iron (and visa versa).

vitamin D helps promote calcium absorption

184
Q

Describe glutathione peroxidase

A

active form of selenium that acts with antioxidants

risk fo selenium deficiency in TPN patients without supplementation

185
Q

Name some high phosphorus containing foods

A

Poultry, meat, milk, eggs, legumes, and nuts (protein sources)

186
Q

Name the 2 classes of essential FA and chief sources of both

A
  1. Linoleic acid. Common in vegetable oils (safflower, corn and soybean oils)
  2. Linolenic acid. Common in soybean and canola oil.
187
Q

Name the 2 types of plants that make a complete protein and name the limiting AA in each.

A

Grains and legumes make a complete protein.

  • legumes are limited in methionine
  • grains are limited in lysine
188
Q

Name the types of moist heat cooking

A

stewing and braising (indicated for less tender cuts of meat; all cuts except loin cuts)

189
Q

Describe Botulism poisoning

A

Anaerobic microorganism found in low acid canned foods (ie vegetables and soups)

190
Q

Describe Trichinosis poisoning

A

A parasite found in pork and wild game

191
Q

Role of Chylomicrons

A

transports dietary TGs to the liver, utilizing the lymph system

192
Q

Define glycolysis

A

a series of enzymatically catalyzed reactions by which glucose and other sugars are broken down to yield lactic acid (anaerobic glycolysis) or pyruvic acid (aerobic glycolysis).

193
Q

Who is most likely in a positive nitrogen balance?

A

Infants, pregnant women, adolescents and person recovering from illness

194
Q

Which stage of the lifecycle can one absorb intact proteins?

A

a newborn infant

195
Q

What is the average consumption of fiber in the US diet?

A

12-15 g/d

196
Q

Name the structure that closely resembles glucose

A

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

197
Q

How is the color of a cell classified?

A 
hyperchromic = high color index 
normochromic = normal color index 
hypochromic = low color index
198
Q

Define glycogenolysis

A

the breakdown of glycogen due to glucagon and other catabolic conditions

199
Q

Which AA can synthesize serotonin?

A

tryptophan

200
Q

Name the AA, which is lacking in gelatin, making it an incomplete protein.

A

tryptophan

201
Q

Describe the glucostatic theory

A

signals are sent to the hypothalamus indicating to the brain that satiety has been reached.

202
Q

What is the RDA for riboflavin?

A

0.6 mg/1000 kcals

203
Q

Which mineral controls the contraction/rhythm of the heart?

A

Calcium & Potassium

204
Q

describe lipid metabolism

A

TG are broken down to FA and glycerol by lipoprotein lipase. In the liver, FA are metabolized by beta oxidation (2 C at a time). The final product is acetyl CoA oxidation in the Kreb’s Cycle.

205
Q

Name the B-complex vitamins

A 
B1 (Thiamin) 
B2 (Riboflavin) 
B3 (Niacin) 
B6 (Pyridoxine) 
B12 (Cobalamin)
206
Q

Why must veal be cooked in moist heat?

A

It is not tender, has little fat and has increased amount of connective tissue.

207
Q

Describe Staphylococcal aureus poisoning.

A

Aerobic bacteria, resistant to heat. Incubation time is 30 min to 8 hours. Produced when food is left too long at room temp.

(HINT: “short staph”= short incubation time)

208
Q

Name the function of BHA (butylated hydroxyanisole) and BHT (butylated hydroxytoluene)

A

synthetic antioxidants

used as preservatives in lipsticks and moisturizers, among other cosmetics. They are also widely used as food preservatives.

209
Q

Define osteoblast

A

Cell that forms bone

210
Q

Name some effects of zinc deficiency

A
  • loss of taste (hypogeusia)
  • loss of smell (hyposmia)
  • poor wound healing
  • short stature and development
211
Q

Name some symptoms of essential FA deficiency

A

stunted growth and dermatitis (eczema) in infants

212
Q

Name the nutrients needs for the end product of glycolysis to enter the Kreb’s Cycle

A

Niacin, Thiamin, Pantothenic Acid and lipoic acid

213
Q

Name the required nutrients on a food label. aside from energy producing nutrients

A

Sodium

vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium and iron –> most common deficient nutrients in the US diet

214
Q

Name the toughest cut of meat

A

flank (long muscle fibers and little fat)

also the leanest cut

215
Q

Describe Escherichia coli poisoning

A

Aerobic bacteria, found in undercooked contaminated meat due to fecal contamination

216
Q

Name the function of calcium propionate and calcium sorbate.

A

preservatives

217
Q

Define osteoclast

A

Cell that breaks down bone

218
Q

Name some effects of iodine deficiency

A

Cretinism in children of deficient mothers (characterized by low birth weight, short stature, mental retardation, deaf, and/or mutism)

Goiter in adults (irregular growth of the thyroid gland)

219
Q

Describe how antibiotics can cause vitamin K deficiency

A

high doses of antibiotics can destroy intestinal flora which synthesizes intrinsic factor causes a decrease synthesis of vitamin K

220
Q

Describe collagen formation

A

proline (w/ the aid of vitamin C) yields hydroxyproline that in turn yields collagen.

221
Q

Name a risk to folic acid fortification in foods.

A

May mask symptoms of a B12 deficiency.

(When someone with a vitamin B12 deficiency eats a higher folate diet, such as on a plant-based diet, there is a constant supply of folate to create red blood cells and DNA, so red blood cells may appear normal in size. This is how folate can mask a vitamin B12 deficiency.)

222
Q

Which minerals are involved in CHO metabolism?

A

Phosphorus and chromium

223
Q

Name 4 forms of iron

A
  1. ferrous (heme)
  2. ferric (non-heme)
  3. ferritin (stored form)
  4. transferrin (transport form)
224
Q

Name an excellent source of potassium

A

Cantaloupe and dried fruits (also for vitamin A)

225
Q

Name the primary role of pantothenic acid

A

Acts as constituent of coenzyme A that is essential to cellular metabolism

226
Q

Name the best sources of B6

A

Whole grain cereals, yeast, legumes, liver, oatmeal

227
Q

Name some influences on iron absorption

A

Citrus juices INCREASE absorption.

tea, coffee and milk DECREASE absorption

228
Q

Name the main extracellular and intracellular electrolytes

A 
intracellular= potassium 
extracellular= sodium
229
Q

What increases absorption of iron?

A

basic intestinal tract and vitamin C (vitamin C helps convert ferric acid to ferrous in the stomach)

230
Q

Name Maslow’s 5 Hierarchy of Needs.

A
  1. Physiological needs
  2. Safety and security
  3. Sense of belonging
  4. Esteem
  5. Self-actualization
231
Q

describe the difference between insulin and glucagon

A

insulin is produces by the beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans and decreases blood glucose.

Glucagon is produced by the alpha cells in the Islets of Langerhans and causes a rise in blood glucose by increasing glucogenolysis and gluceoneogenesis.

232
Q

Describe the role of LDL chol.

A

Carries chol from the liver to tissues. Main cause of atherogenesis

233
Q

Define anemia

A

a reduction in the size, number of RBCs and/or the quantity of hemoglobin (color) resulting in the decreased ability of carrying oxygen in the blood.

234
Q

Name the nutrients destroyed by UV light

A

Riboflavin and vitamin C

reason why milk is packaged in opaque containers

235
Q

describe beta carotene

A

a precursor to vitamin A, converted in the small intestine

236
Q

Name the RDI for niacin

A

6.6 mg/1000 kcals

237
Q

Describe the role of HDL chol

A

transports excess chol to the liver to recycle into bile acids and excreted.

238
Q

Name the major nutrients to combat nutritional anemia

A

iron, protein, folate, vitamin C, B12 and E

239
Q

Name the major function of biotin

A

during energy metabolism, it adds or removes CO2 from compounds; Coenzyme for FA metabolism

240
Q

What is the mineral that plays an important role in blood clotting?

A

Calcium

241
Q

Name the chemical name and symbol for heme and non-heme iron

A

Fe+++ = non-heme iron or ferric iron

Fe++ = heme iron or ferrous iron

242
Q

Which AA is a precursor to another?

A

Phenylalanine yields tyrosine

243
Q

Name the 3 monosaccharides

A

Glucose, Fructose and Galactose

244
Q

Define hemosiderosis

A

Increased storage of insoluble iron in the spleen and liver without tissue damage

245
Q

Describe PKU

A

Due to an enzyme deficiency, phenylalanine is not converted to tyrosine causing a build-up of phenylalanine (Nutrasweet contains a lot of phenylalanine and has to be labeled on food products).

246
Q

Name the 3 disaccharides

A

Lactose (glucose + galactose)
Maltose (glucose + glucose)
Sucrose (glucose + fructose)

247
Q

Define anabolism

A

the build up of molecules

248
Q

define catabolism

A

the breakdown of molecules

RD Exam (4 decks)

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