Princeton Psych Ch 4 - Interacting with the Environment Flashcards

1
Q

There are two unique components to attention. Describe what selective attention means.

A

Selection attention is the process by which one input is attend to and the rest are tuned out. We don’t have the capacity to pay attention to everything.

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2
Q

What is the Broadbent filter Model of Selective Attention?

A

Inputs from the environment first enter a sensory buffer. One of these inputs is then selected and filtered based on phys characteristics of the input (sensory modality). Other sensory info stays in the buffer briefly but quickly decays. The next step involves the info entering short term memory storage, and semantic ( meaning making) processes occur.

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3
Q

What’s the flow of attended + unattended messages for Broadbent filter Model of Selective Attention.

A

attended + unattended messages –> sensory store –> selective filter (where unattended messages decay –> higher level processing –> working memory

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4
Q

What is the cocktail party effect?

A

When information of personal importance from previously unattended channels catches our attention.

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5
Q

What is Anne Triesman’s Attenuation Model?

A

Rather than a filter, the mind has an “attenuator” that turns down unattended sensory input but doesn’t eliminate it.

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6
Q

What is the flow of attended + unattended messages for the Attenuation Model?

A

attended + unattended –> sensory store –> attenuating filter (unattended is attenuated) –> higher level processing –> working memory

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7
Q

What is selective priming?

A

People can be selectively primed to observe something, either by encountering it frequently or by having an expectation. See page 98 for examples.

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8
Q

What’s the binding problem?

A

A problem with visual processing is the binding problem. The problem of how all these different aspects are assembled together and related to a SINGLE object.

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9
Q

There are two unique components to attention. Describe what divided attention means.

A

Concerns when and if we are able to perform multiple tasks simultaneously, depending on the characteristics of the activies one is trying to multitask.

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10
Q

Resource model of attention.

A

We have a limited pool of resources on which to draw when performing tasks.

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11
Q

Which three factors are associated with multitasking?

A

Task similarity ( more similar = few resources required), task difficulty, task practice ( practice diminishes task resource demand so we may free up resources to allow for multitasking).

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12
Q

Describe Alan Baddely’s model or working memory (short term memory). See page 101 for clues.

A

4 components: 1) phonological loop: allows us to repeat verbal info to help us remember; 2) visualspatial sketchpad - use of mental images for visual spatial information; 3) episodic buffer - integrate info from the loop and sketchpad with a sense of time and to interface with long-term memory stores; 4) central executive - oversees entire process, orchestrates process by shifting and dividing attention.

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13
Q

What are Jean Piaget’s Schemas?

A

Schemas are mental frameworks that shape and are shaped by our experience. As we encounter new experiences, we either assimilate those experiences by conforming them into our existing schemas or we accommodate by adjusting our schemas to take into account the new experience. Think of the monster under bed example.

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14
Q

Piaget’s 1st stage of development.

A

Sensorimotor stage - from birth to 2. Babies experience the world through their senses and movement.

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15
Q

Object permanence is learned in which stage of Piaget’s stages of development?

A

Sensorimotor stage - from birth to about 2.

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16
Q

Piaget’s 2nd stage of development.

A

Preoperational stage - roughly 2 -7. Children learn things that can be represented through symbols such as words and images. Pretend play. Still lack logical reasoning. Egocentric.

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17
Q

Piaget’s 3rd stage of development.

A

Concrete Operational Stage - 7 -11. Children learn to think logically about concrete events.

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18
Q

The principle of conservation if learned in which stage of Piaget’s developmental stages?

A

Concrete operational. Conservation is the idea that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape. Think same amount of water and two vases with different shapes.

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19
Q

Piaget’s 4th stage of development.

A

Formal Operational Stage - 12 and through adulthood. People learn about reasoning ( eg. hypothesizing) and moral reasoning.

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20
Q

What cognitive changes occur during late adulthood (in terms of memory)?

A

When you old ass hell, you show memory decline in recall ( retrieving information from memory w/o any clues), while recognition remains intact. Recog = retrieving info from memory with clues.

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21
Q

Name 2 other cognitive changes that occur with the elderly, aside from memory deficits.

A

Time based tasks such as taking medication 3x a day; they also have slower information processing abilities as evidenced by slower reaction times and speech.

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22
Q

Biological factors affect cognition. Comment on the frontal lobe and hippocampus.

A

The frontal lobes play a role in executive functions, including organizing, inhibiting impulses and flexible thinking. The hippocampus = involved in formation of new memories.

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23
Q

List and describe the three approaches to problem solving.

A

1) Trial and error; 2) algorithm - a step by step procedure; 3) heuristics - mental shortcuts; sometimes we get a sudden flash of inspiration without actively thinking about a problem, an insight.

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24
Q

Explain confirmation bias.

A

Barrier to effective problem solving. A tendency to search only for information that confirms our preconceived thinking, rather than information that might not support it.

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25
Q

Explain fixation.

A

Barrier to effective problem solving. An inability to see the problem from a fresh perspective. Two types: mental set ( tendency to fixate on solutions that worked in the past but not apply to the current situation) and functional fixedness ( tendency to perceive the functions of objects as fixed)

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26
Q

Explain the two types of heuristics.

A

Availability - memory of specific instances (ex. who’s better: Beethoven or Haydn?); representative - our generalizations about people and events (ex.one bad incident with postal worker means everyone at USPS is bad).

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27
Q

Explain belief bias.

A

The tendency to judge arguments based on what one believes about their conclusions rather than on whether they use sound logic. We tend to accept conclusions that fit without beliefs. We assume doctors are good people and believe the person is innocent if charged with a heinous crime.

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28
Q

Define consciousness.

A

The awareness that we have of ourselves, our internal states, and the environment.

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29
Q

Explain alertness/arousal and which structures in the brain control them.

A

Alertness and arousal involve the ability to remain attentive to what’s gong on. They are controlled by structures within the brainstem known as the “reticular formation” or RAS. “activating system”

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30
Q

What does polysomnography test and what are its components?

A

Measures physio processes during sleep. 1) EEG - electrical impulses in brain; 2) EMG - skeletal muscle movements; 3) EOG - eye movement

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31
Q

Describe the “awake stage” in stages of sleep.

A

The person is awake, but sleepy and relaxed. EEG = alpha waves, which have low amplitudes and high frequencies. Indicates person about to drift to sleep.

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32
Q

Describe Stage 1 of sleep.

A

First stage of non-REM. EEG = theta waves ( low to moderate intensity and intermediate frequecy). EOG - slow rolling eye movements; EMG - moderate activity.

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33
Q

Describe Stage 2 of sleep.

A

EEG = theta waves mixed with K-complexes (large and slow) and sleep spindles ( bursts of waves that don’t last long. EOG - NO eye movement. EMG - moderate activity.

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34
Q

Describe Stage 3 and Stage 4 of sleep.

A

Person transitions to slow wave, deep sleep. EEG = delta waves ( high amp and low frequency). EOG - NO eye movement. EMG - moderate muscle movement. Pulse + digestion = slow; GH secreted.

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35
Q

Describe the final stage of sleep ( REM).

A

REM sleep is characteristic of quick eye movements. EEG = low intensity and variable frequency ( analogous to when someone is awake) like beta or alpha. EMG - low skeletal muscle movement –> “paradoxical sleep”

36
Q

During normal sleep, a person passes through ____ sleep and then ____ sleep, and then back through the ______ sleep stages.

A

Non-Rem; Rem; Non-Rem

37
Q

Describe the hours spent on Non-Rem and Rem sleep.

A

Periods of REM sleep are shortest early in the night, and get longer as the night progresses. Periods of deep sleep are longest early in the night and less frequent as the night progresses. Rem sleep happens in sequence (1,2,3,4,Rem) but it’s possible to jump.

38
Q

What are some theories behind why we need sleep?

A

1) Better survival at daytime; 2) heals body + long term memory consolidation; 3) growth ( as growth hormones are released).

39
Q

Define circadian rhythms.

A

The biological clock. The biological waxing and waning of alertness over the 24 hr day.

40
Q

How is sleep regulated?

A

The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the hypothalamus signals other parts of the brain which regulate temp and control the production of hormones. Our internal clock. When exposed to light, temp ^ and hormones are released to signal us to wake.

41
Q

Describe the role of melatonin.

A

Melatonin is made by the pineal gland. Darkness causes the SCN to signal the pineal gland to produce melatonin. Bright light both regulates the function of the SCN and directly inhibits the release of melatonin.

42
Q

At which sleep stage do dreams typically occur?

A

During REM sleep.

43
Q

What are some theories behind why we dream?

A

1) Manifest content - symbolic of underlying latent content, unconcious drives and wishes that are difficult to express. 2) Dreaming improves learning. 3) “activation-synthesis theory” dreams are byproducts of the brain activation during REM sleep - purposeless?

44
Q

What are dyssomias? Name three and define them.

A

Dyssomnias are abnormalities in the amount, quality, of timing of sleep. 1) narcolepsy - periodic excessive sleepiness during waking periods that lasts ~5 mins; 2) sleep apnea - intermittently stop breathing during sleep; 3) insomnia - most common characterized by difficulty falling or staying asleep.

45
Q

What are parsomnias. Name two common ones.

A

Abnormal behaviors that occur during sleep. 1) Somnambulism - sleepwalking that occurs during slow wave sleep. 2) Night terrors - stage 3 + appear terrified.

46
Q

Define hypnotism.

A

A social interaction in which a hypnotist has a subject focus attention on what is being said, relax and feel tired, and accept suggestions easily through use of vivid imagination. This is real but cannot be used for extreme things. Might for work stress, headaches. Hypnotism works by BLOCKING attention to sensory inputs, not by preventing sensory input.

47
Q

What are depressants? What do they do?

A

Includes EtOH, barbiturates, and opiates. They work by depressing neural activity. EtOH works by stimulating GABA and dopamine systems. GABA is an inhibitory NT and is associated with reduced anxiety, while dopamine causes minor feeling of euphoria. EtOH + Barbs depress the sympathetic NS.

48
Q

What do opiates do to neural function?

A

Opiates depress neural functioning. This temporarily reduce pain by mimicking the brain’s own pain relievers ( NT endorphins); pain is replaced with a blissful feeling.

49
Q

What are stimulants. What do they do?

A

Include caffeine, nicotine, coke, and amphetamines. They typically work by increasing the release of NT, reducing uptake NT, or both. Stunykates are used to stay awake + enhance performance + boost mood. Coke - causes a rush, release of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.

50
Q

What are hallucinogens. What do they do?

A

AKA psychedelics, distort perceptions in the absence of any sensory input, creating hallucinations. Includes LSD and marajuana. Pot/THC simulates cannabinoid receptors in the brain. It relaxes and inhibits like alcohol, but also amplify sensory perceptions ( hallucinates).

51
Q

Difference between psychological dependence and physical dependence.

A

Psychological dependence is often associated with use of drug in response to painful emotions related to depression, anxiety, or trauma. Physical dependence is evidence by withdrawal. W/D is a physically painful experience without use of a drug.

52
Q

Explain the biology behind addiction.

A

Enjoyable behaviors produce activity in the dopamine circuits in the brain, most notably the nucleus accumbens, the “ pleasure center” of the brain.

53
Q

What are three components of emotion?

A

1) Physiological - excitation of body’s internal state; 2) Behavioral- some kind of expressive behavior; 3) Cognitive - interpretation of the situation.

54
Q

What is the Yerkes - Dodson Law?

A

The relationship b/t performance and emotion arousal is a U-shaped correlation. People perform best when they are moderately aroused. Emotion moderates performance.

55
Q

Why are emotions important?

A

1) Moderates performance. 2) Enhances survival - feeling of fear = suggest dangerous situation. 3) social conformity - ex. embarrassment 4) imagining emotional responses prevents risky behaviors.

56
Q

What’s the James Lange Theory of Emotion?

A

Late 1800s theory. We experience the physiological response (automatic activity) and then we experience the emotion. Ex. A dog chases you, your HR increases, then you experience emotion.

57
Q

What’s wrong with James Lange Theory of Emotion?

A

It assumes that each emotion orgifinates from a distinctive physiological state. However, many emotions share very similar if not identical physiological profiles. For example: fear and sexual arousal.

58
Q

What’s the Cannon Bard Theory of emotion?

A

After a stimulus, the physiological response and the experience of emotion occur simultaneously and independently of each other.

59
Q

What’s wrong with the Cannon Bard Theory of emotion.

A

It fails to explain the phenomena in which controlling the physiological response influences the experience of emotion (eg. deep breathing causes us to feel more calm).

60
Q

What’s the Schachter Singer Theory of emotion?

A

Once we experience physiological arousal, we make a conscious “cognitive interpretation” based on our circumstances, which allows us to identify the emotion that we are experiencing. Shortcoming is same as Cannon Bard - what about physiological responses to influence cognitive aspects of emotion?

61
Q

Instead of emotional “centers” in the brain, it appears we have emotional _____.

A

We have emotional circuits that involve many brain structures.

62
Q

The ________ system is a collection of brain structures that lies on both sides of the thalamus and appear to be primarily responsible for _____.

A

Limbic system; emotional experience.

Includes: amygdala, hypothalamus, hippocampus, thalamus, basal ganglia, cingulate gyrus.

63
Q

What’s the function of the amygdala in terms of emotion?

A

The conductor of our emotional experiences. Plays role in the identification and expression of fear and aggression.

64
Q

What’s the function of the hypothalamus in terms of emotion?

A

Controls the physiological aspects of emotion. Amygdala communicates with this structure.

65
Q

What’s the function of the prefrontal cortex in terms of emotion?

A

The prefrontal cortex controls approach and avoidance behaviors. It’s important for emotional experience and in temperament and decision making.

66
Q

Which brain structure that’s also part of the limbic system plays a key role in forming memories?

A

The Hippocampus.

67
Q

Other than emotional experience, what other roles does the prefrontal cortex play?

A

Executive function - higher order thinking processes such as planning, organizing, inhibiting behavior, and decision making. Phineas Gage damaged this area and was prone to impulsivity, disorganization, and unsympathetic.

68
Q

The _____ is responsible for controlling the activities of most of the organs and glands, and controls ____.

A

Autonomic nervous system; arousal.

69
Q

What’s the SNS role in terms of emotion?

A

The SNS provides the body with brief, intense response. It increases HR, BP, and blood glucose in preparation for action. It also directs the adrenal glands to secrete stress hormones epi and norepi.

70
Q

What is most important for determining the stressful nature of an event is its ______, or how it is interpreted by the individual.

A

Appraisal.

71
Q

Name three different types of stressors.

A

1) catastrophes - unpredictable, large scale events like natural disasters and wartime events; 2) significant life changes - includes moving, leaving home, losing job, etc. 3) Daily hassles - everyday irritations in life including bills, traffic.

72
Q

What is learned helplessness?

A

A sense of exhaustion and lack of belief in one’s ability to manage situations.

73
Q

Our bodies respond to stress through activating two parallel systems. Comment on the one involved with “flight or flight”.

A

The first is the SNS, “fight or flight” response. This sys respond to acute stress situations; it releases the stress hormones epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (non-adrenaline) from the adrenal glands. The response results in increased HR and RR, directs blood toward skeletal muscles.

74
Q

Our bodies respond to stress through activating two parallel systems. Common on the “cognitive system”

A

Activation of the cognitive system is initiated by the hypothalamus, located above the brainstem. The hypo releases CRH, which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH, which signals the adrenal glands to release cortisol, “energy sparing” hormone, into the bloodstream.

75
Q

Explain the role of cortisol in the cognitive system.

A

Cortisol shifts the body from using glucose to fat as the E source. Prolonged release due to chronic stressors can be harmful. Prolonged cortisol release inhibits the activity of WBC and other functions of the immune sys, increasing vulnerabilty for illess.

76
Q

What does PTSD entail?

A

Avoidance - avoiding circumstances that remind person of the trauma; hyperarousal - heightened sensitivity and hypervigilance; re-experiencing - responses to triggers relaed to the traumatic event.

77
Q

What is biofeedback?

A

A means of recording and feeding back info about subtle autonomic responses in an attempt to train the individual to control those involuntary responses. Ex. Ppl can be trained to adjust muscle tension, HR, and RR.

78
Q

What are three ways we can manage stress?

A

1) aerobic exercise. 2) biofeedback. 3) social support.

79
Q

What are three arguments for what is language?

A

1) Behaviorist/empiricist language is an ex. of conditioned behavior; psych of language should focus on observable environmental factors. 2) Rationalist - certain ideas cannot come from experience; must be innate. 3) Materialist - all discussion of “ideas” is a set of convenient metaphors for real physical changes in the brain.

80
Q

What is language acquisition.

A

The way infants learn to understand and speak their native language. The process of language learning in school or that of learning a foreign language.

81
Q

Explain BF Skinner’s behaviorist model of language acquisition.

A

This model holds that infants are trained in language by operant conditioning. Positive reinforcement can condition infants to make sound associate with a stimulus ( like a bottle), and second encourages imitative behavior.

82
Q

Explain why Noam Chomsky disagrees with BF Skinner and his model of language acquisition.

A

Chomsky suggests that humans have an innate ability to make grammatical distinctions and so so naturally when exposed to (not actively taught) language at a young age. Called “universal grammar”

83
Q

Explain the “linguistic relativity hypothesis”

A

Not only do language and though overlap, but cognition and perception are determined by the language one speaks.

84
Q

Describe Broca’s area and its significance.

A

Located in the frontal lobe of the brain and involved in the complicated process of speech PRODUCTION. Pts with damage to this area lose the ability to speak. They know what they want to say but are unable to communicate it. Ex. Stroke pt has trouble telling MD his feelings.

85
Q

Describe Wernicke’s area and its significance.

A

In the posterior section of the temporal lobe. Involved in the comprehension of speech and written language. Pts with damage to this area have natural sounding syntax, but are incapable of producing intelligible, meaningful language. Ex. “You know how go moodle winkered at.” Also great difficulty understanding speech + often unaware of their mistakes.