Princeton Psych Ch 3 - Biological Functions of Behavior Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the structure of a neuron and its function.

A

Nuerons process and transmit action potentials. Neurons have a central cell body, the nucleus containing soma where most of the biosynthetic activity takes place; axons and dendrites extend from the cell body. Neurons with one dendrite are termed bipolar.

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2
Q

Two primary membrane proteins establish the resting membrane potential of -70mV. What are they?

A

The Na+/K+ ATPase and the potassium leak channels. The are very few Na+ leak channels relative to K+. Hence the leaving K+ makes the MB potential more negative.

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3
Q

How many sodium and potassium ions does the Na+/K+ pump?

A

The Na+/K+ pumps three sodium ions out of the cell and two potassium ions into the cell with the hydrolysis of one ATP molecule. Example of primary active transport.

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4
Q

What is depolarization? Repolarization?

A

Depolarization is the change in the MB potential from the resting of -70mV to a less negative or positive potential. After depolarization, repolarization returns the MB potential to normal.

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5
Q

The first step of an AP is a change in MBΨ caused by the movement of ions into and out of the neuron through ion channels. What happens next? Hint: this step is called depolarization.

A

Voltage-gated Na channels are opened by the depolarization of the membrane from the resting potential of -70mV to a threshold potential of approximately -50mV. Once this threshold is reached, the VOLTAGE gated Na channels are opened fully. Before, they are closed shut.

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6
Q

How does an AP propagate down a neuron?

A

Some of the Na ions flow down the axon interior, depolarizing the neighboring section of the MB. When the next section of the MB reaches a threshold, those voltage-gated Na sodium channels open as well. AP go to COMPLETION.

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7
Q

Describe the first two steps of repolarization.

A

1) Voltage-gated Na channels inactivate quickly after they open. 2) Voltage-gated K+ channels open slower than voltage Na, but they stay open longer. As K+ leaves the cell, the MBΨ returns to neg values, overshooting to -90mV. At this point voltage K+ channels close.

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8
Q

Describe what happens after voltage-gated K+ channels close after repolarization.

A

3) K+ leak channels and the Na/K ATPase continue to function (as they always do) to bring the MBΨ back to resting.

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9
Q

Saltatory Conduction. Axons of neurons are wrapped in insulating sheath called ___. The sheath is created by glial cells called _____.

A

Myelin, Schwann Cells. There is no MB depolarization and no voltage-gated Na channels in regions of MB wrapped in myelin. Rather than impeding AP, the MS dramatically speeds up the movement of AP by forcing the AP to jump from node to node. The jumping is called saltatory conduction.

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10
Q

There are periodic gaps, called ______.

A

Nodes of Ranvier. Na gated and K+ channels are concentrated in these gaps.

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11
Q

What are glial cells?

A

Specialized non-neuronal cells that typically provide structure and metabolic supports to neurons. Examples include Schwann (PNS) and Oligodendrocytes (CNS), which form myelin for increased AP speed conduction.

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12
Q

Describe what equilibrium potential is.

A

The EQΨ is the MBΨ in which there is no net movement of ions across the MB. The EQΨ is specific for a particular ion. For Na + it’s +50mV and for K+ it’s -90mV. It is the balance of electrical and chemical gradients. Chemical would drive Na in but being too positive in the cell would drive it out.

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13
Q

Explain the refractory period when it comes to action potentials.

A

The passage of 1 AP makes the neuron nonresponsive to MB depolarization and unable to transmit another AP for a short period of time.

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14
Q

What is the difference between absolute and relative refractory period.

A

Absolute - a neuron will not fire another AP no matter how strong a MB depolarization is induced. During this time, VG Na channels have been inactivated (not same as closed) after depolarization. During the RR period, a neuron can be induced to transmit an AP, but the depolarization required is > normal bc the MB is hyperpolarized.

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15
Q

What is a synapse?

A

A junction between the axon terminus of a neuron and the dendrites, soma, or axon of a second neuron.

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16
Q

What is the difference between electrical and chemical synapses?

A

E synapses occur when the cytoplasms of two cells are joined by gap junctions. C synapses are more common and are found at the ends of axons where they meet their target cell; here, the AP is converted to a chemical signal.

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17
Q

Describe the steps in the transmission of a signal across a chemical synapse.

A

1) an AP reaches the end of an axon. 2) depolarization of presynaptic MB opens VG Ca channels. 3) Ca influx into the pre-syn cell causes exocytosis of NT stored in secretory vesicles. 4) NT diffuse across cleft. 5) NT binds to receptor proteins in the post syn MB. These receptors are ligand-gated ion channels. 6) opening of ion channels alters the MB polarization 7) If the MB depolarization of the post syn cell reaches the threshold of VG Na channels (-50mV), an AP is initiated. 8) NT is the cleft is degraded an/or removed to terminate signal.

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18
Q

Role of Acetylcholine?

A

Acetylcholine is commonly used in neuromuscular junctions. It stimulates muscle contractions. It is excitatory.

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19
Q

Neurotransmitters than induce hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic MB are termed ____.

A

Inhibitory.

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20
Q

Describe the all or nothing concept when it comes to AP.

A

Once an AP is initiated in a neuron, it will propagate to the end of the axon at a speed and magnitude of depolarization that do not vary from one AP to another. This is an all or nothing event. An AP is initiated when a threshold of -50mV is reached

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21
Q

Excitatory NTs can postsynaptic depolarization or _____. Inhibitory NTs cause _______.

A

Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs); the other is inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)

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22
Q

Explain the difference between temporal and spatial summation.

A

Temporal summation: presynaptic neuron fires AP so rapidly that the EPSPs or IPSPs pile on top top of each other. Spatial summation: EPSPs and IPSPs from all of the synapses on the postsynaptic membrane are summed at a given moment in time.

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23
Q

What is the function of the PNS and CNS?

A

PNS - receiving information is the sensory function of the NS; acting on integrative function is the motor functino of the NS; CNS - processing information is the integrative function of the NS.

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24
Q

Describe the function of motor neurons.

A

Motor neurons carry info from the NS toward organs which can act upon that info, called effectors (muscles and glands). Since motor neurons carry info away from the CNS and innervate effectors, they are called efferent neurons.

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25
Q

Describe the function of sensory neurons.

A

Sensory neurons carry info toward the CNS; these are afferent neurons.

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26
Q

Describe what a reflex is.

A

A direct motor response to sensory input which occurs without conscious thought. Simplest reflex can occur without brain involvement. Ex. muscle stretch reflex, which is a simple, monosynaptic reflex arc.

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27
Q

When the muscle stretch reflex with the patellar tendon, the quadriceps contract, but the hamstrings also relaxes. Explain the neuron responsible for relaxing.

A

The sensory neuron that detects stretch synapses with not only a motor neuron for the quads, but also with an inhibitory interneuron. This short neuron forms an inhibitory synapse with a motor neuron innervating the hamstring.

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28
Q

What is the PNS and its subdivisions.

A

The PNS: all nerves and sensory structures outside of the brain and spinal cord; somatic: voluntary control of muscle; autonomic: involuntary control of glands and smooth muscle

Subgroups Autonomic: 1) sympathetic: fight or flight; 2) parasympathetic

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29
Q

What is the PNS’s autonomic division responsible for?

A

The autonomic division is responsible for digestion, circulation, perspiration, and other involuntary processes. It has afferent and efferent functions.

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30
Q

With the parasympathetic NS, what happens with the digestive, urinary, bronchial smooth muscle, CV, eyes, and genitals.

A

DG: glands - stim, motility - stim digestion, sphincter - relax; Urinary: bladder - contract, urethral spincter - relax; bronchials: constrict (close airways); CV - HR and contractility decreases; pupils constrict + near vision; genitals: erect/lubrication.

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31
Q

With the sympathetic NS, what happens with the digestive, urinary, bronchial smooth muscle, CV, eyes, and genitals.

A

DG: glands - inhibit, motility - inhibit digestion, sphincter - contract; Urinary: bladder - relax, urethral spincter - contract; bronchials: relax (open airways); CV - HR and contractility increases; pupils dilate + far vision; genitals: ejaculate, orgasm.

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32
Q

What is epinephrine and its role in the PNS.

A

a hormone secreted by the adrenal glands, especially in conditions of stress, increasing rates of blood circulation, breathing, and carbohydrate metabolism and preparing muscles for exertion.

33
Q

The great majority of cell bodies are found within the ____.

A

The CNS is the brain and spinal cord. The PNS includes all other axons, dendrites, and cell bodies. The great majority of cell bodies are found within the CNS.

34
Q

A group of cells bodies bunched together in the CNS is called _____. A group of cell bodies found outside the CNS are found in bunches known as ______.

A

CNS - structures called nuclei. Outside - structures called ganglia.

35
Q

What is the function of CSF?

A

Shock absorption, exchange of nutrients and waste with the CNS.

36
Q

What’s the function of the spinal cord?

A

It is the pathway for info to and from the brain. The SC can also be a site for information integration and processing (mostly brain). The SC is responsible for simple spinal reflexes and primitive processes such as walking, urination, and sex organ function.

37
Q

What is the function of the medulla?

A

Involuntary functions; b/t pons and SC; controls autonomic processes: BP, blood flow; HR, RR, swallowing, vomiting; controls reflex rxns: cough/ sneeze; relays sensory info to cerebellum + thalamus

38
Q

What are three components to the hindbrain?

A

Medulla, pons, and cerebellum. PMC

39
Q

What is the function of the pons?

A

Relay station and balance; controls antigravity posture and balance; connects SC and medulla w/ upper regions of the brain; relays info to the cerebellum and thalamus

40
Q

What is the function of the midbrain?

A

Eye movement; integration of visual and auditory info; visual and auditory reflexes; wakefulness and consciousness; coordinates info on posture and muscle tone.

41
Q

Which two parts of the hindbrain coordinates posture?

A

Cerebellum and pons. Midbrain is not a part of the hindbrain, but it also plays a role.

42
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Movement coordination; integrating center; coordination of complex movement; balance and posture; muscle tone; spatial equilibrium.

43
Q

Both the ____ and the ____ receive info from the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear, which monitors acceleration and position relative to gravity.

A

Cerebellum and pons.

44
Q

What structures constitute the brainstem?

A

Pons, medulla, midbrain.

45
Q

The diencephalon is a part of the forebrain. What is its function?

A

1) Thalamus: integrating center and relay station; relay center for somatic (conscious) sensation; relays info b/t SC and cerebral cortex. 2) Hypothalamus: homeostasis and behavior; controls homeostatic functions through neural and hormonal regulation; controls primitive emotions such as anger and sex drive; controls pituitary gland

46
Q

The telencephalon is a part of the forebrain. What is its function?

A

Consists of 2 cerebral hemispheres. Which is essentially the cerebral cortex.

47
Q

Generally speaking, the left and right hemispheres have the same functions. However, there are some differences. Describe them.

A

The left hemi primarily controls the motor functions on the right, and visa versa. In most poeple, the left side of the brain is said to be dominant and responsible for speech. The right hemi is concerned with visual-spatial reasoning and music.

48
Q

Describe the corpus callosum.

A

The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a thick bundle of axons called the corpus callosum. A person with a cut CC has two independent cortices and to a certain extent, two independent minds.

49
Q

Describe the anatomy of the cerebrum.

A

The cerebrum is the largest region of the brain and consists of paired cerebral hemispheres. The spheres consist of the cerebral cortex (an outer layer of grey matter) plus an inner core of white matter connecting the cortex to the diencephalon.

50
Q

Grey matter is mainly composed of _____. White matter is mainly composed of _____.

A

Somas and myelinated axons.

51
Q

In general, what is the cerebral cortex responsible for?

A

Conscious thought processes and intellectual functions.

Perception, skeletal muscle movement, memory, attention, thought, language, and consciousness.

52
Q

The function of frontal lobe.

A

Initiates all voluntary movement and are involved in complex reasoning skills and problem-solving.

53
Q

The function of the parietal lobe.

A

The parietal lobes are involved in general sensations (touch, temp, pressure, vibration) and in gustation (taste).

54
Q

The function of the temporal lobe.

A

Process auditory and olfactory sensation and are involved in short-term memory, language comprehension, and emotion.

55
Q

The function of the occipital lobe.

A

Process visual sensation.

56
Q

What is the function of the basal nuclei?

A

Movement. They are composed of gray matter and are located w/n the cerebral hemis. Broadly function is volutnary motor control and procedural learning to related to habits.

57
Q

Which two structures work together to process and coordinate movement?

A

The basal nuclei and cerebellum work together to process and coordinate movement initiated by the primary motor cortex. The nuclei is inhibitory (prevents excess movement) and the cerebellum is excitatory.

58
Q

What is the function of the limbic system?

A

Emotion, learning, and memory. Located b/t cerebrum and diencephalon. Includes amygdala, cingulate gyrus and hippocampus.

59
Q

True or false. More cortex is devoted to the lips than the entire leg.

A

TRUE. The motor and sensory regions of the cortex are organized such that a particular small area of cortex controls a particular body part.

60
Q

What are the function of cranial nerves?

A

All neurons entering and exiting the CNS are carried by 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 spinal. They convey sensory and motor info to and from the brainstem.

61
Q

What is the function of spinal nerves.

A

All neurons entering and exiting the CNS are carried by 12 pairs of cranial and 31 spinal nerves. They convey sensory and motor info to and from the spinal cord.

62
Q

What is the function of the vagus nerve?

A

The vagus nerve decreases HR and increases GI activity. It is part of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic NS.

63
Q

Describe the organization of the somatic PNS.

A

All somatic motor neurons innervate skeletal muscles, use ACh as their NT, and have cell bodies in the brain stem or ventral portion of the SC. All somatic sensory neurons have a long dendrite extending from a sensory receptor toward the soma, which is located outside the CNS in a DRG. Sensory synapses in SC or BS.

64
Q

What the the function of the vagus nerve?

A

The vagus nerve is a cranial nerve responsible for decreasing the HR and stimulating GI activity. It is part of the parasympathetic division of the ANS.

65
Q

All somatic motor neurons innervate ____ muscles, use ____ as the NT, and have their cell bodies in the ventral portion of the SC.

A

All somatic (voluntary control of skeletal muscle) innervate skeletal muscles, use ACh as the NT, and have their cell bodies in the front portion of the SC.

66
Q

All somatic sensory neurons have a dendrite extending from a sensory receptor toward the soma, which is located outside the CNS in a _____.

A

A dorsal root ganglion. In all somatic sensory neurons, the first synapse is in the CNS.

67
Q

Define what a dorsal root ganglion is.

A

The DRG is a bunch of somatic and autonomic sensory neuron cell bodies located just dorsal to the back of the SC. The DRG are protected within the vertebral column but are outside the meninges (protective sheft of brain and SC).

68
Q

Describe the organization of autonomic efferents.

A

The efferents consists of the sym and parasym consists of a preganglionic neuron, which has its cell body in the brainstem or SC and sends an axon to an autonomic ganglion, where it synapses with a postganglionic neuron, which sends an axon to an effector (smooth muscle or gland).

69
Q

All autonomic preganglionic neurons release __ NT. All parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release ___ NT. Nearly all sympathetic postganglionic neurons release NT.

A

Autonomic PREganglionic neurons AND parasympathetic POSTganglionic neurons release ACh. Nearly all sympathetic POSTganglionic neurons release norepinephrine.

70
Q

Describe the relative sizes of the axons in the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Hint: para long pre.

A

Sympathetic: fight or flight; preganglionic soma located in thoracolumbar SC; SHORT preganglionic axons and release Ach, ganglia are close to the cord and far from target; LONG postganlgionic axons that release NE.
Parasym: rest + digest; store energy; craniosacral; LONG preganglionic axon; ganglia far fram cord and close to target; SHORT postganglionic axon release ACh.

71
Q

Describe the anatomy of the adrenal gland and the role of each part.

A

The adrenal gland is composed of the outer cortex (release glucocorticoids like cortisol, mineralocorticoids like aldoesteron, and some sex hormones). The medulla is part of the SNS and when the SNS is activated, the adrenal gland is stimulated to release epinephrine or adrenaline.

72
Q

What are common physiological effects of adrenaline?

A

Adrenaline, or epinephrine, produces rapid and short-lived effects. It causes sudden flushing and sweating when one is startled. It also stimulates the heart.

73
Q

True or false? Sensory receptors can detect one or more types of stimulus.

A

FALSE. Sensory receptors are designed to detect ONE type of stimulus from either the interior of the body or the external environment.

74
Q

What is a mechanoreceptor? Give examples.

A

Mechanoreceptors respond to mechanical disturbances. Ex. Pacinian corpuscles are pressure sensors located deep in the skin. Ex. Auditory hair cells detect vibrations caused by sound waves. Ex. Vestibular hair cells located in the semicircular canals detect acceleration and position relative to gravity.

75
Q

What is a chemoreceptor? Give example(s).

A

Chemoreceptors respond to particular chemicals. Ex. Olfactory receptors detect airborne chemicals and allow us to smell things. Taste buds are gustatory receptors. Autonomic chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic arteries respond to changes in arterial pH, PCO2, and PO2 levels.

76
Q

Nociceptors are what kind of receptors?

A

Nociceptors are pain receptors stimulated by tissue injury.

77
Q

What is a thermoreceptor?

A

They are stimulated by changes in temperature.

78
Q

What kind of receptors are rods and cones?

A

Rods and cones cells of the retina are photoreceptors/electromagnetic receptors. They are stimulated by EM waves.