Primer quiz questions

Question 1

The structures of linoleic acid and gamma-linolenic acid differ in their:

a. chain lengths.
b. double bond positions.
c. numbers of double bonds.
d. side chain moieties.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

An example of a compound that is not considered to be a component of dietary
fiber is:
a. pectin.
b. hemicellulose.
c. amylose.
d. cellulose.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Dietary fats and oils primarily are composed of:

a. triglycerides.
b. polyunsaturated fatty acids.
c. saturated fatty acids.
d. monounsaturated fatty acids.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

A nutrient is considered to be conditionally essential when:

a. it cannot be replaced by a metabolic precursor.
b. it is malabsorbed.
c. its endogenous production becomes insufficient to satisfy needs.
d. it requires a second essential nutrient to be effective.

Answer 4

C

Question 5

Vitamin reserves can become depleted because all vitamins are:

a. synthesized inefficiently.
b. essential nutrients.
c. metabolized quickly.
d. excreted rapidly.

Answer 5

B

Question 6

20. The process of adding a nutrient to manufactured foods as a public health
measure is called:
a. restoration.
b. enrichment.
c. fortification.
d. supplementation.

Answer 6

C

Question 7

Food additives can be used:

a. as effective preservatives.
b. without restriction.
c. to compensate for improper processing practices.
d. without risk.

Answer 7

a

Question 8

Nutrification is the:
a. addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that
nutrient to a target population group.
b. specific addition of thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and iron to white flour.
c. structural modification of complex carbohydrates.
d. addition of at least 25% of the RDA of a nutrient to a food product that has
been designed to replace a meal or food item.

Answer 8

a

Question 9

23. Ketones result from the metabolism of:
    a. fatty acids.
    b. simple sugars.
    c. amino acids.
    d. complex carbohydrates.

Answer 9

a

Question 10

The plasmalemma does not incorporate:

a. vitamin A.
b. vitamin E.
c. cholesterol.
d. phospholipids.

Answer 10

a

Question 11

The failure of a tissue or organ to develop properlyis called:

a. neoplasia.
b. aplasia.
c. hyperplasia.
d. atrophy.

Answer 11

b

Question 12

Glutamine is the primary energy source for the:

a. liver.
b. heart.
c. small intestine.
d. brain.

Answer 12

c

Question 13

The metabolic effects of insulin include stimulation of:

a. adipocyte secretion of non-esterified fatty acids.
b. myocyte amino acid uptake.
c. hepatocyte gluconeogenesis.
d. myocyte glycogenesis.

Answer 13

b

Question 14

The most common skeletal complication of chronic renal failure is:

a. hyperostosis.
b. osteoporosis.
c. rickets.
d. secondary hyperparathyroidism.

Answer 14

d

Question 15

29. Most circulating cholesterol is eliminated from the body after metabolism to:
    a. lipoproteins.
    b. phospholipids.
    c. fecal fat.
    d. bile acids.

Answer 15

d

Question 16

30. Vitamin B12 is a required cofactor in the biochemical pathway through which
glucose is produced from the amino acid:
a. alanine.
b. valine.
c. methionine.
d. tyrosine.

Answer 16

b

Question 17

31. Copper is a component of:
    a. alkaline phosphatase.
    b. glycosyl transferase.
    c. ceruloplasmin.
    d. glucose tolerance factor.

Answer 17

c

Question 18

32. The decarboxylation of pyruvate involves a sequence of reactions that require, as
    coenzymes, the four vitamins:
    a. thiamin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin and vitamin B12.
    b. thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and vitamin B12.
    c. thiamin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, and niacin.
    d. biotin, niacin, pantothenic acid and vitamin B12

Answer 18

c

Question 19

The size of the free amino acid pool in the human body is regulated by the rate of:

a. oxidation of amino acids.
b. synthesis of nonessential amino acids.
c. urinary excretion of amino acids.
d. skeletal collagen metabolism.

Answer 19

a

Question 20

34. During maximal aerobic exercise, the primary energy source is:
    a. fatty acids.
    b. lactate.
    c. glycogen.
    d. glucose.

Answer 20

a

Question 21

A set of 150 observations has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1.5. The
95% confidence limits (95% CL) of the mean can be calculated by solving the
formula:
a. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)(1.5).
b. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)[(1.5)
2
/150)]
1/2
.
c. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)[(1.5)
1/2
/150].
d. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)(1.5/150)
1/2
.

Answer 21

b

Question 22

36. A cross-sectionalstudy compared cardiovascular risk factors and resting
    metabolic rate (RMR) in 400 sedentary (SED) and 400 resistance trained (RT)
    young women. The measured RMR (mean ± standard error of the mean) were
    4.31 ± 0.06 kJ/min and 3.99 ± 0.05 kJ/min, respectively. The valid interpretation
    of the RMR data is that:
    a. RMRSED and RMRRT are not significantly different (p>0.05).
    b. RMRSED and RMRRT are significantly different (p<0.05).
    c. RMRSED and RMRRT are significantly correlated (p<0.05).
    d. RMR is not affected by resistance training.

Answer 22

b

Question 23

test

Answer 23

test

Question 24

The relationship between 2 correlated variables is:

a. causal.
b. random.
c. independent.
d. mathematical.

Answer 24

d

Question 25

39. Meta-analysis is a quantitative approach for systematically combining the results
    of previous, non-definitive researchin order to:
    a. improve the quality of the research data.
    b. allow a conclusion to be drawn.
    c. identify studies with positive results.
    d. improve the power of the research.

Answer 25

b

Question 26

The most difficult challenge facing a nutritionist or nutrition counselor is to:

a. classify individuals.
b. assess nutritional status.
c. motivate behavior modification.
d. recommend solutions.

Answer 26

c

Question 27

41. Dysgeusia may result from a dietary deficiency of the nutrient:
    a. iron.
    b. magnesium.
    c. manganese.
    d. zinc.

Answer 27

d

Question 28

42. Pantothenic acid is a component of:
    a. FAD.
    b. NAD.
    c. hemoglobin.
    d. coenzyme A.

Answer 28

d

Question 29

43. Selenium deficiency has been implicated in the development of:
    a. iron deficiency anemia.
    b. subclinical hypothyroidism.
    c. hyperthyroidism.
    d. night blindness.

Answer 29

b

Question 30

44. The dietary fatty acid considered to be essential in the diet of humans is:
    a. stearic acid.
    b. oleic acid.
    c. linoleic acid.
    d. palmitic acid.

Answer 30

c

Question 31

45. Iron is absorbed in the small intestine in the form of:
    a. ferrous iron.
    b. ferric iron.
    c. ferritin.
    d. transferrin.

Answer 31

a

Question 32

46. The risk of congenital microencephaly increases during pregnancy when habitual
    intake of pre-formed vitamin A exceed the RDA for vitamin A by:
    a. 5-fold. b.
    50-fold.
    c. 100-fold.
    d. 1000-fold.

Answer 32

a

Question 33

47. Vitamin C, vitamin E, and ȕ-carotene may exert cardioprotective effects by:
    a. enhancing the conversion of SFA to PUFA.
    b. stimulating hepatic synthesis of HDL.
    c. inhibiting the oxidation of LDL.
    d. increasing LDL receptor number.

Answer 33

c

Question 34

48. Signs of a deficiency in essential fatty acids include:
    a. soft fingernails.
    b. dull skin and dandruff.
    c. edema.
    d. sleep disorders.

Answer 34

b

Question 35

49. The form in which fatty acids usually are found in food is as:
    a. free fatty acids.
    b. mannan polymers.
    c. cholesterol esters.
    d. triglycerides.

Answer 35

d

Question 36

50. A dietary source of Ȧ-3 essential fatty acidsis:
    a. primrose oil.
    b. arachidonic oil.
    c. flax oil.
    d. milk fat.

Answer 36

c

Question 37

51. The disease associated with deficiency of vitamin B1 is known as:
    a. multiple sclerosis.
    b. beri-beri.
    c. scurvy.
    d. pellagra.

Answer 37

b

Question 38

52. Polyneuropathy may accompany chronic consumption of large amounts of:
    a. dairy foods.
    b. starch.
    c. alcohol.
    d. meats.

Answer 38

c

Question 39

53. Of beef, bacon, salmon, and broccoli, the food source with the greatest nutrient
density (g per 100 Kcal) for fat is:
a. beef.
b. bacon.
c. salmon.
d. broccoli.

Answer 39

b

Question 40

Chromium influences plasma glucose concentrations by stimulating:

a. starch blocker activity.
b. myocyte sodium-glucose transport.
c. absorption of dietary glucose.
d. hepatic gluconeogenesis.

Answer 40

b

Question 41

55. Most vegetables are generally considered to be nutritionally inferior to most
    animal proteins because typically they contain:
    a. indigestible polypeptide sequences.
    b. small amounts of abnormal amino acids.
    c. inadequate amounts of glutamine.
    d. fewer essential amino acids.

Answer 41

d

Question 42

56. Two vitamins which are very toxic when ingested in amounts 10-fold or more
greater than the current USRDA are:
a. vitamin A and thiamin.
b. vitamin A and folic acid.
c. vitamin A and vitamin D.
d. Vitamin E and Vitamin K.

Answer 42

c

Question 43

57. An early indicator of impending selenosis is:
    a. headache.
    b. easy bruising.
    c. numbness of hands and feet.
    d. garlic odor of breath.

Answer 43

d

Question 44

58. The consumption of 1750 excess Kcal will result in the deposition of new body
fat weighing:
a. 17.5 g.
b. 175 g.
c. 227 g.
d. 454 g.

Answer 44

c

3500kcal result in one pound of fat (or 454g); 1750 is half of that, and 227g is one half pound.

Question 45

59. Iron in foods is primarily in the form of:
    a. ferrous iron.
    b. ferric iron.
    c. ferritin.
    d. transferrin.

Answer 45

b

Question 46

Most of the activated folic acid in the human body is in the form of:

a. folate.
b. folacin.
c. S-adenosylmethionine.
d. methyltetrahydrofolic acid.

Answer 46

d

Question 47

61. A good dietary source of riboflavin is a:
    a. peach.
    b. carrot.
    c. coconut.
    d. steak.

Answer 47

d

Question 48

62. Among the foods beef, bacon, fish, and spinach, the food source with the greatest
    nutrient density (mg per 100 Kcal) for iron is:
    a. beef.
    b. bacon.
    c. fish.
    d. spinach.

Answer 48

d

Question 49

63. Among the following foods, the nutrient density of vitamin D is greatest in:
    a. cheese.
    b. salmon.
    c. green leafy vegetables.
    d. beef.

Answer 49

b

Question 50

64. The best source of supplemental calcium for an elderly woman with
hypochlorhydria is:
a. calcium carbonate.
b. calcium phosphate.
c. calcium citrate.
d. bone meal.

Answer 50

c

Question 51

65. Excessive consumption of dietary fiber impairs the bioavailabilityof:
    a. protein.
    b. zinc.
    c. essential fatty acids.
    d. vitamin D.

Answer 51

b

Question 52

66. Cruciferous vegetables lack:
    a. highly bioavailable calcium.
    b. cancer-inhibiting indoles.
    c. large amounts of vitamin K.
    d. large amounts of ȕ-carotene.

Answer 52

a

Question 53

The vitamin K content of human breast milk is:

a. undetectable.
b. low.
c. high.
d. unknown.

Answer 53

b

Question 54

68. 25-OHD3 is converted to 1,25-(OH)2D3 by:
    a. neurons.
    b. sunlight.
    c. hepatocytes.
    d. renal cells.

Answer 54

d

Question 55

69. Daily consumption of 50 Kcal of excess dietary energy for a year will produce a
weight gain of:
a. 4 to 5 pounds.
b. 10 to 12 pounds.
c. 20 to 25 pounds.
d. 40 to 50 pounds.

Answer 55

a

Question 56

70. Skeletal manifestations of hypervitaminosis A include:
    a. cortical sclerosis.
    b. cortical porosis.
    c. osteomalacia.
    d. osteonecrosis.

Answer 56

b

Question 57

71. Selenium is a required cofactor for:
    a. NADP reductase.
    b. glutathione reductase.
    c. glutathione transferase.
    d. glutathione peroxidase.

Answer 57

d

Question 58

72. Vitamin E deficiency in humans commonly results in:
    a. neurological dysfunction.
    b. respiratory dysfunction.
    c. reproductive dysfunction.
    d. digestive dysfunction.

Answer 58

a

Question 59

73. Quercitin protects ascorbic acid from:
    a. oxidation.
    b. reduction.
    c. dehydrogenation.
    d. desaturation.

Answer 59

a

Question 60

74. Flavonoids are:
    a. water soluble.
    b. lipid miscible.
    c. alcohols.
    e. carcinogens.

Answer 60

b

Question 61

75. Dietary proteins are of high biological value when they are obtained from:
    a. fish, legumes and whole milk.
    b. beef, pork and cream cheese.
    c. white bread, vegetables and legumes.
    d. eggs, chicken meats and cheddar cheese.

Answer 61

d

Question 62

76. The dietary change that is the most effective in contributing to a decrease in
    serum total cholesterol concentration is:
    a. a decrease on cholesterol intake.
    b. a decrease in saturated fat intake.
    c. an increase in polyunsaturated fat intake.
    d. an increase in monounsaturated fat intake.

Answer 62

b

Question 63

The USDA “food pyramid” does not recommend:

a. 2 to 3 dairy servings daily.
b. 5 to 9 fruit and vegetable servings daily.
c. 6 to 11 grain servings daily.
d. up to 5 meat servings daily.

Answer 63

d

Question 64

78. The protein intake standard the USRDA uses to reflect protein quality is the:
    a. biological value.
    b. net protein utilization.
    c. protein efficiency ratio.
    d. chemical score.

Answer 64

c

Question 65

79. The biological value of food proteins can be enhanced by:
    a. supplementation with branched-chain amino acids.
    b. slow cooking.
    c. the addition of MSG.
    d. combining them with complementary food proteins.

Answer 65

d

Question 66

80. Intake of chromium below 30 μg/day has been associated with decreased:
    a. skeletal mass.
    b. glucose tolerance.
    c. lean tissue mass.
    d. muscle glycogen content.

Answer 66

a

Question 67

81. The daily calcium requirements of postmenopausal women who are not receiving
    estrogen replacement therapy are approximately:
    a. 1,250 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.
    b. 1,500 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.
    c. 1,750 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.
    d. 2,000 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.

Answer 67

b

Question 68

82. The daily calcium requirements of postmenopausal women who are not receiving
    estrogen replacement therapy can be met by the daily consumption of:
    a. one (1) cup of skim milk.
    b. three (3) cups of skim milk.
    c. five (5) cups of skim milk.
    d. seven (7) cups of skim milk.

Answer 68

c

Question 69

83. Reduced consumption of salt and salty foods may:
    a. improve electrolyte balance.
    b. reduce blood volume and blood pressure.
    c. improve kidney function.
    d. improve neuromuscular coordination.

Answer 69

b

Question 70

84. The quality of foods voluntarily selected by a population or group is not likely to
be improved by:
a. changes in guidelines.
b. targeted education.
c. concentrated market forces.
d. new product information.

Answer 70

a

Question 71

85. In men between the ages of 25 and 75, average daily iron needs generally:
    a. increase.
    b. decrease.
    c. remain the same.
    d. fluctuate widely.

Answer 71

c

Question 72

86. During the past 50 years, the average total caloric intake among infants in the
United States:
a. has not changed.
b. has decreased.
c. has increased.
d. is not possible to assess.

Answer 72

c

Question 73

87. Aging is associated with several changes in metabolism, including:
    a. increased basal metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and increased fat
    deposition.
    b. increased basal metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and decreased fat
    deposition.
    c. decreased basal metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and decreased fat
    deposition.
    d. decreased basal metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and increased fat
    deposition.

Answer 73

d

Question 74

88. An exercise program combining aerobic and strength exercises will increase
metabolic rate by about:
a. 10% or less.
b. 25% to 50%.
c. 50% to 100%.
d. 100% or more.

Answer 74

a

Question 75

89. Prior to becoming pregnant, women can reduce the risk of giving birth to
    offspring with neural tube defects by eating more foods rich in:
    a. biotin.
    b. calcium.
    c. folate.
    d. vitamin B12.

Answer 75

c

Question 76

90. Compared to his peers, a healthy 15-year old male who is a competitive weight
    lifter should consume more protein and more:
    a. minerals.
    b. carbohydrates.
    c. fat.
    d. carbohydrates and fat.

Answer 76

b

Question 77

91. Avoidance of foods of animal origin requires dietary proteins to be:
    a. readilydigestible.
    b. good sources of nonessential amino acids.
    c. high in biological value.
    d. balanced in their essential amino acid composition.

Answer 77

d

Question 78

92. A vegetarian who ingests no animal products whatsoever is most at risk for
developing a deficiency of:
a. calcium and vitamins A and D.
b. vitamins B12, C and D.
c. protein, calories and vitamin C.
d. vitamin B12, riboflavin, and zinc.

Answer 78

d

Question 79

93. Megaloblastic anemia of pregnancy usually results from a deficiency of:
    a. iron.
    b. oxytocin.
    c. antipernicious anemia factor.
    d. folacin.

Answer 79

d

Question 80

94. During gestation, dietary requirements are increased for:
    a. vitamin A.
    b. pyridoxine and pantothenic acid.
    c. thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin.
    d. vitamin D.

Answer 80

c

Question 81

95. During gestation, the fetus receives nourishment primarily from:
    a. nutrient secretions from fallopian tube cells.
    b. tropoblast cells of the decidua basilis.
    c. the amniotic fluid.
    d. the placental circulation.

Answer 81

d

Question 82

96. Compared to commercial infant formulas, human milk has a greater
concentration of:
a. cholesterol.
b. protein.
c. casein.
d. linoleic acid.

Answer 82

a

Question 83

97. An infant should be introduced to new foods one at a time because:
    a. overfeeding can be prevented.
    b. swallowing is not yet under complete voluntary control.
    c. immunologic protection has not yet developed.
    d. any subsequent allergic reaction can be associated with the triggering food.

Answer 83

d

Question 84

98. The most serious consequence of feeding “double-strength” formula to an infant
is likely to be:
a. sleepiness.
b. colic.
c. mental impairment.
d. dehydration.

Answer 84

d

Question 85

99. The best predictor of energy needs during adolescence is:
    a. chronologic age.
    b. change in body weight.
    c. increase in height.
    d. muscle growth.

Answer 85

c

Question 86

100. Some nutrient requirements are greater during lactation than during pregnancy;
     however, the requirements are the same for:
     a. B-vitamins.
     b. calcium and iron.
     c. fluoride and zinc.
     d. vitamins A and C.

Answer 86

b

Question 87

101. Weight loss in obese persons is associated with increased risk for:
     a. gallstones.
     b. hypertension.
     c. hypertriglyceridemia.
     d. glycosuria.

Answer 87

b

Question 88

102. The caloric equivalent of one gram of lean tissue is approximately:
     a. 1 Kcal.
     b. 2 Kcal.
     c. 4 Kcal.
     d. 9 Kcal.

Answer 88

a

Question 89

103. To maintain basic hydration, an elderlyindividual must consume at least:
     a. 4 cups of fluid per day.
     b. 8 cups of fluid per day.
     c. 12 cups of fluid per day.
     d. 16 cups of fluid per day.

Answer 89

b

Question 90

104. In order to maximize the health of her fetus, a woman in the sixth month of
     pregnancy should supplement her diet with additional:
     a. iron and folic acid.
     b. iron and calcium.
     c. calories and folic acid.
     d. calories and iron.

Answer 90

d

Question 91

105. The fetus acquires most of its calcium during:
     a. the first trimester.
     b. the second trimester.
     c. the third trimester.
     d. maternal dietary calcium excess.

Answer 91

c

Question 92

106. Compared to the requirements of a nonpregnant adult woman, the dietary
     requirements for several vitamins are increased during gestation; among these are
     the requirements for:
     a. vitamin A.
     b. pyridoxine and pantothenic acid.
     c. thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin.
     d. vitamin D.

Answer 92

c

Question 93

107. A woman who is overweight or obese at the time of conception should modify her
     diet to reduce her weight:
     a. during the second and third trimesters.
     b. during the third trimester.
     c. throughout pregnancy.
     d. after parturition.

Answer 93

d

Question 94

108. Among the members of the following ethnic group, hypertensive individuals
usually are salt-sensitive:
a. elderlyAfrican-Americans.
b. elderlyCaucasian-Americans.
c. young African-Americans.
d. young Caucasian-Americans.

Answer 94

a

Question 95

109. Data supporting the hypothesis that dietary composition influences the
     development of cancer include observations that:
     a. high fiber diets are associated with an increased incidence of colon cancer.
     b. dietary carcinogens protect against the effects of environmental carcinogens.
     c. nutrient deficiencies always promote tumor growth.
     d. cruciferous vegetables may protect against tumorigenesis.

Answer 95

d

Question 96

110. Diet assessment of a population can be used to:
     a. identify common dietary problems.
     b. solve common dietary problems.
     c. implement guidelines for individuals.
     d. determine general characteristics.

Answer 96

d

Question 97

111. As a public health measure, chicken is packed in ice to prevent:
     a. Botulism.
     b. Perfringens food poisoning.
     c. Staphylococcal food poisoning.
     d. Salmonella food poisoning.

Answer 97

d

Question 98

112. Reheating potentially hazardous foods that have been cooked and then refrigerated
must be performed with:
a. a steam table at high temperature.
b. open flames.
c. warmers.
d. rapid reheating devices.

Answer 98

d

Question 99

113. The microorganism most likely to be responsible for foodborne illness after the
     ingestion of raw seafood is a species belonging to the genus:
     a. Shigella.
     b. Salmonella.
     c. Vibrio.
     d. Escherichia.

Answer 99

c

Question 100

114. To minimize the risk of foodborne illness, the maximum number of days for
which poultry should be refrigerated is:
a. two (2).
b. three (3).
c. four (4).
d. five (5).

Answer 100

b

Question 101

115. In order to prevent trichinosis, the internal temperature of pork during cooking
should reach at least:
a. 120o F.
b. 135o F.
c. 170o F.
d. 212o F.

Answer 101

c

Question 102

116. An approximate doubling of the growth rate of bacteria contaminating food will
occur when the temperature changes from:
a. 0o C to 4o C.
b. 0o C to 37o C.
c. 20o C to 25o C.
d. 27o C to 37o C.

Answer 102

d

Question 103

117. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) programs are designed to
     minimize the risk of food contamination by:
     a. continuous monitoring of processing operations.
     b. emphasizing events at selected processing steps.
     c. random sampling of partially processed products.
     d. random testing of selected finished products.

Answer 103

b

Question 104

118. Use of a thiazide diuretic drug may produce a low plasma concentration of:
     a. calcium.
     b. potassium.
     c. uric acid.
     d. phosphorus.

Answer 104

b

Question 105

119. Intestinal absorption of dietary iron may be enhanced by concurrent ingestion of:
     a. oxalates.
     b. phytates.
     c. ascorbic acid.
     d. phosphorus.

Answer 105

c

Question 106

120. Dietary intakes of thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin are related to the intake of:
     a. iron.
     b. ascorbic acid.
     c. calcium.
     d. calories.

Answer 106

d

Question 107

121. Pharmacologic agents used in chemotherapy can cause adverse gastrointestinal
     reactions because these agents:
     a. alter normal mucosal cell proliferation.
     b. alter the pH of pancreatic secretions.
     c. are hyperosmolar.
     d. initiate carcinogenesis in mucosal cells.

Answer 107

a

Question 108

122. Individuals taking anticonvulsant medications may develop depleted reserves of:
     a. folate and vitamin D.
     b. thiamin and riboflavin.
     c. folate and pantothenic acid.
     d. pyridoxine and biotin.

Answer 108

a

Question 109

123. Altered metabolism of pyridoxine in chronic alcoholism results from:
     a. increased aldehyde oxidase activity.
     b. decreased aldehyde oxidase activity.
     c. unchanged aldehyde oxidase activity.
     d. decreased excretion of pyridoxine

Answer 109

a

Question 110

124. Insulin sensitivity may be enhanced by supplementation with:
     a. chromium picolinate.
     b. iron acetate.
     c. zinc chloride.
     d. selenium hexanoate.

Answer 110

a

Question 111

125. To decrease the Respiratory Quotient (RQ), one should replace dietary:
     a. fat with protein.
     b. carbohydrate with fat.
     c. protein with carbohydrate.
     d. fat with carbohydrate.

Answer 111

b

Question 112

126. Initial advice for a lactose-intolerant postmenopausal woman with a history of
     kidney stones and subnormal spinal BMD should be:
     a. restriction of dietary calcium intake.
     b. restriction of fluid intake.
     c. increased consumption of dairy products.
     d. dietary supplementation with magnesium.

Answer 112

d

Question 113

127. Dietary modification is the primary therapeutic approach in:
     a. peptic ulcer.
     b. cystic fibrosis.
     c. diabetes.
     d. hypercalcemia.

Answer 113

c

Question 114

128. Children with cystic fibrosis are not likely to be able to absorb large amounts of:
     a. electrolytes.
     b. lipids.
     c. amino acids.
     d. simple sugars.

Answer 114

b

Question 115

129. Lactose intolerant infants should be fed infant formulas that contain protein
     derived from soybeans because such formulas:
     a. are extra high in energy content.
     b. provide most of their lipids as short-chain fatty acids.
     c. impose low renal solute loads.
     d. do not contain lactose.

Answer 115

d

Question 116

130. The development of obesity may be associated with a decreased:
     a. number of individual adipocytes.
     b. surface area of individual adipocytes.
     c. amount of esterified fatty acids within each adipocyte.
     d. ratio of protein to lipid within each adipocyte.

Answer 116

d

Question 117

131. In individuals with amyloidosis, there is abnormal deposition within various
organs and tissues of:
a. carbohydrate.
b. fat.
c. protein.
d. minerals.

Answer 117

c

Question 118

132. The diet of individuals with xerostomia should include:
     a. frequent small meals that are high in protein content.
     b. moist food, gravies and liquids.
     c. seedlessfruits.
     d. meals high in fat content.

Answer 118

b

Question 119

133. The diet of an individual with diverticulosisshould contain large amounts of:
     a. fat.
     b. animal protein.
     c. sugars.
     d. dietary fiber.

Answer 119

d

Question 120

134. The purpose of encouraging individuals with diabetes to increase the dietary fiber
     contents of their meals is to:
     a. reduce plasma albumin concentration.
     b. stimulate insulin secretion.
     c. minimize postprandial hyperglycemia.
     d. stimulate intestinal glucose transport.

Answer 120

c

Question 121

135. The management of adults with advanced chronic renal failure should include:
     a. potassium supplementation.
     b. calcium restriction.
     c. phosphate supplementation.
     d. protein restriction.

Answer 121

d

Question 122

136. Epidemiologic data suggest that decreased mortality from heart disease
     accompanies increased consumption of the antioxidant:
     a. selenium.
     b. vitamin E.
     c. ȕ-carotene.
     d. vitamin C.

Answer 122

b

Question 123

137. Currently, supplementation with Ȧ-3 fatty acids has not been shown to benefit
individuals with:
a. coronary thrombosis.
b. hypertension.
c. hypertriglyceridemia.
d. mitral valve prolapse.

Answer 123

d

Question 124

138. An inborn error of metabolism may result from:
     a. polyploidy.
     b. DNA replication errors.
     c. congenital malnutrition.
     d. neonatal infection.

Answer 124

b

Question 125

139. The oil most effective for increasing the serum HDL-cholesterol concentration
     without increasing the serum LDL-cholesterol concentration is:
     a. olive oil.
     b. canola oil.
     c. safflower oil.
     d. flax oil.

Answer 125

a

Question 126

140. In individuals with chronic alcoholism, protection may be afforded against the
     fatty infiltration of the liver caused by alcoholism by maintaining adequate dietary
     intake of:
     a. vitamin A.
     b. thiamin.
     c. choline.
     d. para-amino-benzoic acid.

Answer 126

c

Question 127

141. A factor that does not predispose an infant to iron deficiency is:
     a. consumption of large amounts of homogenized milk.
     b. premature birth.
     c. hemorrhage from the umbilicus during delivery.
     d. slow growth rate.

Answer 127

d

Question 128

142. Dumping syndrome is accompanied by symptoms of:
     a. faintness, weakness, and profuse perspiration.
     b. acute gastritis.
     c. peptic ulcer disease.
     d. intestinal malabsorption.

Answer 128

a

Question 129

143. Dietary modifications helpful to individuals with alcoholic cirrhosis include
     restricted consumption of foods that contain large amounts of:
     a. carbohydrates.
     b. protein.
     c. fat.
     d. calcium.

Answer 129

b

Question 130

144. Dietary modifications appropriate for an individual with uncomplicated infectious
     hepatitis include:
     a. increasing energy intake to more than 3000 Kcal daily.
     b. restricting protein intake to less than 30 g daily.
     c. restricting fat intake to lessthan 30 g daily.
     d. restricting fluid intake to less than 2000 mL daily.

Answer 130

a

Question 131

145. A possible reason for failure of oral rehydration in children is the persistence of:
     a. diarrhea.
     b. salt intake.
     c. breastfeeding.
     d. vomiting.

Answer 131

d

Question 132

146. Nutrition support via enteral intubation may be contraindicated in the presence
     of any of the following conditions, except:
     a. congestive heart failure.
     b. bilateral pedal decubitus ulceration.
     c. instability of sternal wound.
     d. pneumonia.

Answer 132

b

Question 133

147. The infusion of a hypertonic nutrient solution through the jugular or saphenous
vein is called:
a. enteral alimentation.
b. central parenteral alimentation.
c. peripheral parenteral alimentation.
d. peridialytic alimentation.

Answer 133

b

Question 134

148. The nutritional history of a child over 3 years may be reflected in the child’s:
     a. head circumference.
     b. weight.
     c. height.
     d. waist circumference.

Answer 134

c

Question 135

149. The most accurate way to assess micronutrient intake is through the use of a:
     a. 24-hour food intake recall questionnaire.
     b. 7-day food intake frequency.
     c. “food frequency questionnaire.”
     d. stool and urine analysis.

Answer 135

c

Question 136

150. The energy provided by 10 mL of an infant formula that contains, per dL, 1 g
     protein, 3 g fat, 9 g carbohydrate, 1 mg Ca, and 2.5 mg P, totals:
     a. 2.6 Kcal.
     b. 5.0 Kcal.
     c. 6.7 Kcal.
     d. 8.6 Kcal.

Answer 136

c

Question 137

151. The amount of food to serve a young child is best determined by the:
     a. time of day.
     b. number of teeth that have erupted.
     c. child’s appetite and rate of growth.
     d. amount of milk the child consumes.

Answer 137

c

Question 138

152. Muscle protein content can be estimated from measurements of:
     a. serum albumin concentration.
     b. mid-chest circumference.
     c. urinary creatinine excretion.
     d. serum transferrin concentration.

Answer 138

c

Question 139

153. The minimum urine volume required to excrete a renal solute load of 600 mOsm,
     when the renal concentrating ability is 1200 mOsm, is:
     a. 100 ml.
     b. 500 ml.
     c. 750 ml.
     d. 1000 ml.

Answer 139

b

Question 140

154. The metabolite whose serum concentration is the most important to monitor
     during refeeding of a chronically starved individual is:
     a. phosphorus.
     b. calcium.
     c. cholesterol.
     d. urea nitrogen.

Answer 140

a

Question 141

155. The breath hydrogen test is a useful diagnostic tool in the identification of
individuals suffering from:
a. gluten enteropathy.
b. pancreatitis.
c. lactose intolerance.
d. cystic fibrosis.

Answer 141

c

Question 142

156. A useful test to monitor the adequacy of diet and drug therapy in an individual
     with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is the:
     a. glucose tolerance test.
     b. fasting plasma glucose concentration.
     c. C peptide assay.
     d. hemoglobin A1c (glycohemoglobin) concentration.

Answer 142

d

Question 143

157. Protein of the highest biological value is found in foods in the group that
includes:
a. meat and eggs.
b. oat bran cereals.
c. apples and raisins.
d. peas and beans.

Answer 143

a

Question 144

158. The growth-limiting amino acid in soy protein is:
     a. methionine.
     b. phenylalanine.
     c. cystine.
     d. alanine.

Answer 144

a

Question 145

159. Symptoms of magnesium deficiency include:
     a. apathy, depression, and fatigue.
     b. irritable bowelsyndrome.
     c. frequent colds and delayed healing.
     d. backache and muscle spasms.

Answer 145

a

Question 146

160. Experimentally increasing calcium intake may improve measured calcium
     balance without increasing measured calcium deposition because:
     a. the multicompartment theory of calcium metabolism is invalid.
     b. increased calcium balance may result from decreased bone resorption.
     c. it is possible to increase net calcium balance by >25% without increasing
     calcium deposition.
     d. the circulation serves as a potentially massive sink for dietary calcium.

Answer 146

b

Question 147

161. An individual who is 150 cm tall and weighs 90 kilograms has a body mass index
of:
a. 20.
b. 30.
c. 40.
d. 50.

Answer 147

c

Question 148

162. According to the National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP), in an
     otherwise healthy adult male, a serum total cholesterol concentration greater than
     240 mg/dL is considered to be:
     a. high.
     b. borderline high.
     c. desirable.
     d. low.

Answer 148

a

Question 149

163. A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 180 mg/dL reflects probable:
     a. diabetes.
     b. glucose intolerance.
     c. normal glucose tolerance.
     d. hyperinsulinemia.

Answer 149

a

Question 150

164. Assessing overall dietary status by hair analysis is:
     a. untrustworthy for most nutrients.
     b. accurate for most nutrients.
     c. independent of hair color.
     d. independent of hair length.

Answer 150

a

Question 151

165. The most accurate and reliable way to assessthe macronutrient intake of an
     individual is through the use of a:
     a. 24-hour food intake recall questionnaire.
     b. 7-day food intake diary.
     c. “food frequency questionnaire.”
     d. stool and urine analysis.

Answer 151

b

Question 152

166. An increase in the serum concentration of unconjugated bilirubinmay be caused
by metabolic dysfunction in the:
a. liver.
b. gallbladder.
c. pancreas.
d. kidney.

Answer 152

a

Question 153

167. An individual who is 200 cm tall and weighs 100 kilograms has a body mass
index of:
a. 25.
b. 30.
c. 35.
d. 40.

Answer 153

a

Question 154

168. A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 134 mg/dL reflects probable:
     a. diabetes.
     b. glucose intolerance.
     c. normal glucose tolerance.
     d. hyperinsulinemia.

Answer 154

b

Question 155

169. A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 50 mg/dL may suggest the presence of:
     a. diabetes.
     b. glucose intolerance.
     c. normal glucose tolerance.
     d. hyperinsulinemia.

Answer 155

d

Question 156

170. The professional responsibilities of the nutritionist or nutrition counselor do not
     include:
     a. developing the plan of nutrition care.
     b. implementing the plan of nutrition care.
     c. prescribing intravenous feedings.
     d. evaluating the effectiveness of nutrition care.

Answer 156

c

Question 157

171. A lecture series about nutrition may be deemed behaviorally effective if the
     attendees:
     a. submit favorable written evaluations of the lectures.
     b. later document changes in their eating habits and practices.
     c. demonstrate improved ability to select more appropriate food sources.
     d. declare increasedmotivation to alter eating habits.

Answer 157

b

Question 158

172. The modern practice of nutrition is based on:
     a. a well-established scientific base.
     b. a scientific base in frequent flux.
     c. folk tradition.
     d. irrefutable facts.

Answer 158

b

Question 159

173. According to the Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act of 1994, all of the
     following are dietary supplements except:
     a. ginseng.
     b. echinacea.
     c. ephedra.
     d. salicylates.

Answer 159

d

Question 160

174. Responsible recommendations to consume vitamins in amounts exceeding their
     RDA’s:
     a. ignore efficacy and risk for toxicity.
     b. balance benefits and risks.
     c. are not possible.
     d. are inconsistent with current knowledge.

Answer 160

b