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All in one > Primer Material Section 1A-1H > Flashcards

Primer Material Section 1A-1H Flashcards

1
Q

Which 2 enzymes occur in the mouth?

Pepsin
Protease
amylase
Lipase

A

Amylase and lipase

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2
Q

In the stomach, which enzyme breaks down triacylglycerols into FFAs and Diacylglycerols?

Protease
Lipase
Amylase
Maltase

A

Lipase

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3
Q

Pepsinogen is secreted by the chief cells in the stomach

True of False

A

True

chief cells of the stomach secrete lipase, which breaks down dietary triglycerides (triacylglycerols) into free fatty acids and diglycerides (diacylglycerols), and pepsinogen (the precursor of pepsin, which initiates the hydrolysis of food proteins).

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4
Q

Which cells secrete lipase in the stomach?

Chief cells
Parietal cells
Mucous cells

A

Chief cells

the chief cells of the stomach secrete lipase, and pepsinogen

lipase, which breaks down dietary triglycerides (triacylglycerols) into free fatty acids and diglycerides (diacylglycerols)

pepsinogen (the precursor of pepsin, which initiates the hydrolysis of food proteins).

Gastrin acts on gastric parietal and chief cells to stimulate intragastric secretion of HCL and pepsinogen, respectively.

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5
Q

Which cells secrete intrinsic factor and HCL?

Chief cells
Parietal cells
Mucous cells

A

Parietal Cells

the chief cells of the stomach secrete LIPASE, which breaks down dietary triglycerides (triacylglycerols) into free fatty acids and diglycerides (diacylglycerols), and PEPSINOGEN (the precursor of pepsin, which initiates the hydrolysis of food proteins). The

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6
Q

Which cells secrete bicarb to protect the stomach lining?

Chief cells
Parietal cells
Mucous cells

A

Mucous cells

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7
Q

Which hormone acts on the parietal and chief cells to stimulate the secretion of HCL and pepsinogen?

Leptin
Ghrelin
Gastrin
CCK

A

Gastrin

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8
Q

Which sections of the small intestine are where the majority of nutrient absorption occurs?

Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum
Duodenum and jejunum
Jejunum and ileum
A

Jejunum and ileum

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9
Q

Acidic chyme in the proximal duodenum triggers the release of which hormone that is responsible for stimulating the secretion of bicarb into the duct system?

Ghrelin
Secretin
Gastrin
CCK

A

Secretin

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10
Q

The presence of what in the proximal duodenum triggers the release of CCK ?

Carbs
Fats
Proteins
Fats and / or proteins
all of the above
A

fats and/ or proteins

Cholecystokinin is a peptide hormone of the gastrointestinal system responsible for stimulating the digestion of fat and protein

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11
Q

Which stimulates the release of zymogens by the pancreas AND stimulates the gallbladder to contract and expel bile in the common bile duct?

CCK
Gastrin
Secretin
Ghrelin

A

CCK - Cholecystokinin

Concurrently, fat or protein entering the proximal duodenum stimulate duodenal secretion of cholecystokinin into the systemic circulation. Cholecystokinin stimulates pancreatic secretion of zymogens (inactive digestive enzyme precursors) into the ductal system and stimulates gall bladder contraction, propelling bile into the common bile duct.

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12
Q

Which enzyme is required for the conversion of trypsinogen to trypsin?

Lipase
Enterokinase
Peptidase
Invertase

A

Enterokinase

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13
Q

ALL the zymogens (inactive digestive enzyme precursors) secreted by the pancreas rely on trypsin for their conversion to active forms.

True or False

A

True! So without enterokinase activity, there’s no trypsin and no others can be activated

When pancreatic zymogens reach the small intestine, enterokinase
secreted by duodenal enterocytes converts trypsinogen to trypsin. The enterokinase enzyme
is absolutely required for trypsin activation. In turn, trypsin converts the other zymogens to
elastase, chymotrypsin, colipase, carboxypeptidase A and carboxypeptidase B.

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14
Q

Trypsin, chymotrypsin, and elastase require which amino acid in their active sites?

A

Serine

Proline
Serine
Lysine
Histidine

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15
Q

Which mineral do carboxypeptidases (secreted from the pancreas) require to function?

Magnesium
Zinc
Selenium
Copper

A

Zinc

Carboxypeptidases are zinc-requiring metalloenzyme exopeptidases that cleave single carboxyterminal amino acids from polypeptides.

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16
Q

Which brush border enzymes complete the final stages of hydrolysis for carbs and proteins (includes oligosaccharidases, disaccharidaes, and peptidases)?

Endozymes
Ectozymes

A

Ectozymes

Associated with and attached to microvillar surfaces of the small intestine are ectozymes
(oligosaccharidases, disaccharidases and pepidases) produced by enterocytes. These brush
border enzymes complete the final steps in the hydrolysis of amylase-digested carbohydrates to
monosaccharides and of protease-digested proteins to absorbable free amino acids, dipeptides
and tripeptides.

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17
Q

Gastric pepsin and lipase function optimally at which pH

3-4

  1. 5-6.5
  2. 75-7.00
  3. 5-3.5
A

1.5-3.5

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18
Q

Salivary amylase functions best at which pH

3-4

  1. 5-6.5
  2. 75-7.00
  3. 5-3.5
A

6.75-7.00

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19
Q

Which are collections of lipid soluble dietary subcomponents surrounded by a layer of water soluble bile salts?

Micelles
Chylomicrons
Liposomes

A

Micelles

Monoglycerides, free fatty acids, cholesterol, phospholipid digestion products and other fat- soluble food components cannot readily penetrate the unstirred water layer that separates the epithelial surface of the small intestine from the intestinal lumen. Their absorption depends on their ability to aggregate spontaneously with bile salts and become incorporated within vaguely spherical clusters of bile salts called micelles. Micelles are collections of lipid soluble dietary subcomponents surrounded by a layer of water soluble bile salts. The solubility characteristics of the bile salt layer allows ready penetration of the unstirred water layer by micelles; the complex breaks down upon reaching the brush border, allowing rapid diffusion of their lipid components down concentration gradients into enterocytes.

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20
Q

Which are secreted into lacteals from the ER of the enterocytes and contain lipids and lipid soluble compounds and are protein-coated to make them water soluble?

Micelles
Chylomicrons
Liposomes

A

Chylomicrons

Within the endoplasmic reticulum of enterocytes, lipids and lipid soluble compounds are repackaged into large protein-coated (and therefore water soluble) chylomicrons that are secreted into the lacteals, flow through the lymphatic system and enter the circulation via the thoracic duct.

Dietary fats and cholesterol are presented to the circulation in the form of chylomicrons. Relatively short-lived, chylomicrons are dissembled in the liver and their components repackaged into a family of lipoproteins containing triacylglycerols (triglycerides), cholesterol esters, and phospholipids in varying ratios and loosely coated with solubilizing and receptor ligand proteins: very low density lipoproteins (VLDL), low density lipoproteins (LDL), intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL) (remnants of partially depleted VLDL), and high density lipoproteins (HDL).

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21
Q

Which method of absorption uses water and electrolytes to cross tight junctions between adjacent enterocytes?

Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration
Osmotic movement
Active transport
A

Osmotic movement

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22
Q

Which method of absorption uses hydrostatic pressure to drive movement of solutes and water through a semipermeable membrane from a region of higher hydrostatic pressure to one of lower hydrostatic pressure?

Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration
Osmotic movement
Active transport
A

Filtration

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23
Q

Which method of absorption utilizes potential energy created by difference in nutrient concentration across a membrane from higher to lower concentrations?

Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration
Osmotic movement
Active transport
A

Passive diffusion

Passive diffusion (simple diffusion) utilizes the potential energy created by a difference in nutrient concentration across a membrane to move nutrients from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. Lipid soluble compounds enter intestinal cells by passive diffusion from the brush border into the cell cytosol.

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24
Q

Lipids and lipid soluble compounds enter intestinal cells by

Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration
Osmotic movement
Active transport
A

Passive diffusion

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25
Q

Which method of absorption is when the nutrient is attached to a lipid soluble membrane carrier protein that passes through the with nutrient and moves down the concentration gradient?

Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration
Osmotic movement
Active transport
A

Facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated transport)

Most carbohydrates are transported across
biological membranes via facilitated diffusion.

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26
Q

Most CHOs are transported across the membrane via

Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration
Osmotic movement
Active transport
A

Facilitated diffusion

carrier-mediated transport

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27
Q

Carrier-mediated diffusion is another name for

Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration
Osmotic movement
Active transport
A

Facilitated diffusion

in facilitated diffusion the nutrient is attached to a lipid soluble membrane carrier protein that easily passes through membranes even with the attached nutrient. Most carbohydrates are transported across biological membranes via facilitated diffusion.

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28
Q

Simple diffusion is another name for

Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration
Osmotic movement
Active transport
A

Passive diffusion

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29
Q

Which method of absorption moves a nutrient through mucosal cell membranes against a concentration gradient, requiring a receptor and the use of ATP?

Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration
Osmotic movement
Active transport
A

Active transport

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30
Q

Most amino acids and ions are absorbed by

Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration
Osmotic movement
Active transport
A

Active transport

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31
Q

Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue (GALT) secretes which substance and comprises how much of the immune cells in the body?

Secretory IgG, 30-40%
Secretory IgA, 40-50%
Secretory IgM, 50-60%
Secretory IgA, 50-60%

A

Secretory IgA, 50-60%

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32
Q

Which substances are possibly useful for determining intestinal permeability?

Mannitol, Lactose
Mannose, Lactulose
Mannitol, Lactulose
Mannose, Lactose

A

Mannitol (small, absorbable, and non-metabolized), Lactulose (large, normally not absorbed, non-metabolized)

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33
Q

The highest tissue content of glutathione is in the human ___ and ______ _____.

A

gastric and duodenal epithelia.

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34
Q

Which is the primary source of enterocyte fuel, supplies the substrates for polyamine and DNA production, and is the rate-limiting precursor for glutathione production?

Glutamine
Cysteine
Butyrate
Glutamate
Pyruvate
A

Glutamine

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35
Q

When this amino acid is inadequate, apoptosis is accelerated and compensatory cellular proliferation is stunted in the gut.

Glutamate
Glycine
Cysteine
Glutamine

A

Glutamine

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36
Q

What are the 3 types of fiber?

A

Soluble, insoluble, nonfermentable

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37
Q

Beta glucans, gums, mucilages, pectins are types of which class of fiber?

Soluble
Insoluble
Nonfermentable

A

Soluble

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38
Q

Oat hulls, methylcellulose, and wood pulp are types of which class of fiber?

Soluble
Insoluble
Nonfermentable

A

Nonfermentable

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39
Q

Celluloses and lignans are which types of fiber?

Soluble
Insoluble
Nonfermentable

A

Insoluble

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40
Q

Hemicellulose is both soluble and insoluble.

True or False

A

True

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41
Q

In excess, which type of fiber can impair fat and fat-soluble vitamin absorption due to lipase inhibition?

Soluble
Insoluble
Nonfermentable

A

soluble

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42
Q

Which type of fiber increases bacterial mass of stool, decreases glucose absorption, and dilutes pathogens and toxins?

Soluble
Insoluble
Nonfermentable

A

Nonfermentable

These food components function in the human colon to increase the bacterial mass ofthe stool (by adhesion), decrease the absorption of glucose and increase the glucose content of stool (by interfering with carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine), dilute pathogens and toxins in digesta and stool, increase rate of passage (decreases colonocyte “toxin exposure
time” by distending the colonic mucosa and stimulating peristaltic contractions), inhibit the inflammatory responses to bacterial infections (by “blocking” microbial access to the intestinal mucosa), and inhibit phagocytotic capacity of intestinal macrophages (possibly by interfering with macrophage-secreted oxidizing compounds).

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43
Q

Lactobacilli, Streptococci, and yeast are most commonly found together in which part of GI system?

Stomach and duodenum
Jejunum and ileum
Colon

A

Stomach and duodenum

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44
Q

In addition to Lactobacili, Streptococci, Enterobacteriaceae, Bacteroides, Bifidobacteria, and Fusobacteria, which section of the GI tract also contains Pseudomonas, Clostridia, Proteus, and protozoa?

Stomach and duodenum
Jejunum and ileum
Colon

A

Colon

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45
Q

Lactobacilli, Enterobacteriaceae, Streptococci, Bacteroides, Bifidobacteria
and Fusobacteria are predominantly found where in the GI tract?

Stomach and duodenum
Jejunum and ileum
Colon

A

Jejunum and Ileum

Small pH differences along the small intestine favor Lactobacilli, Enterobacteriaceae, Streptococci, Bacteroides, Bifidobacteria
and Fusobacteria in the human jejunumand ileum.

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46
Q

Which is the most common microorganism in the GI tract AND in breastmilk?

Lactobacilli
Bifidobacterium
Proteus
Bacteroidetes

A

Bifidobacterium accounts for roughly 50% of GI tract

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47
Q

Which organism accounts for about 25% of GI tract bacteria and produces lactic acid and SCFAs?

Lactobacilli
Bifidobacterium
Proteus
Bacteroidetes

A

Lactobacilli

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48
Q

Which organism is in small and large intestine? It antagonizes Candida, inhibits cholera toxin, inhibits amoeba adhesion, and is effective at treating rotoviral diarrhea?

Lactobacilli
Bifidobacterium
Proteus
Saccharomyces boulardii

A

Saccharomyces boulardii

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49
Q

Which SCFA is metabolized by colonocytes into Acetyl CoA for energy and the is also useful for formation and maintenance of tight junctions?

Acetate
Proprionate
Butyrate

A

Butyrate

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50
Q

Breastfed infants have over 90% of this organism in their GI tract.

Lactobacillus rhamnosus
Bifidobacterium lactis
Bifidobacterium infantis
Saccharomyces boulardii

A

Bifido infantis

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51
Q

Feeding infants formula _______ diversity/colonization, and ____ risk of gastroenteritis and sepsis.

Decreases, decreases
decreases, increases
Increases, decreases
Increases, increases

A

decreases, increases

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52
Q

Low fiber results in an ____ of colonic pH and a _____ of butyrate availability.

Decreases, decreases
decreases, increases
Increases, decreases
Increases, increases

A

Increases, decreases

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53
Q

When dietary sugars are not completely digested, hyperacidification occurs in the colon and there is an increase of which gas?

SH2
NO
CO2
SO2

A

SH2

Incomplete digestion of dietary sugars will increase the amount of fermentable nonfiber carbohydrate reaching the colon. Fermentation of sugars within the colon results in hyperacidification of intraluminal pH and an increase in microbial production of SH2. This gas readily enters colonocytes where it acts as an inhibitor of enzymatic conversion of butyrate to acetyl CoA. Intracolonocyte acetyl CoA deficiency produces “leaky tight junctions” with an increase in intestinal permeability, as well as increased risk for energy deficit in colonocytes.

Intestinal gas is composed of various amounts of oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, and methane

SH2 - Hydrogen sulfide
CO2 - Carbon dioxide
N2 - nitrogen
H2 - hydrogen
CH4 - methane

SO2 - Sulfur dioxide (burnt match smell) - NOT intestinal gas
NO - NOT intestinal gas

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54
Q

Which gas inhibits the conversion of butyrate into acetyl CoA and increases risk for colorectal cancer and leaky tight junctions as a result?

SH2
NO
CO2
SO2

A

SH2, Hydrogen sulfide

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55
Q

Prebiotics are usually oligomers, like fructans (fructooligosaccharides; FOS). Which species is increased with FOS supplementation due to their converting the FOS into buyrate (but not lactic acid)?

Lactobacilli
Bifidobacterium
Proteus
Saccharomyces boulardii

A

Bifidobacterium

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56
Q

How long would it likely take to reseed a gut with daily ingestion of probiotics (10 billion CFUs)?

3 months
6 months
9 months
12 months

A

6 months

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57
Q

Which causes the intestinal smooth muscles to contract? to push food along the tract?

Secretin
CCK
Acetylcholine
Epinephrine

A

Acetylcholine

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58
Q

Which is secreted after the GI tract is emptied and relaxes the stomach and intestinal muscles and decreases blood flow to them?

Secretin
CCK
Acetylcholine
Epinephrine

A

Epinephrine

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59
Q

Preterm infants are fully able to digest and absorb fats.

True or false

A

False

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60
Q

How many months after birth before an infant can digest starches and animal fats?

3
6
9
12

A

6

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61
Q

Which process does HCL induce in the stomach?

Hydrolysis
Evaporation
Denaturation
Distallation

A

Denaturation

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62
Q

True digestibility of fatty acids

65-75%
75-85%
85-95%
> 95%

A

> 95%

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63
Q

Which is a brush border enzyme?

Sucrase
Protease
Amylase
HCL

A

Sucrase

also lactase and maltase

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64
Q

Increased glucose stimulates _____ within pancreatic beta-cells?

Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenolysis

A

Glycolysis

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65
Q

Rate of ________ Production is proportional to rates of glycolysis and TCA cycling. When ____ is elevated, it causes a(n) ______ in insulin synthesis/secretion.

NAD, NAD, increase
NADPH, NADH, decrease
NADH, NADH, increase
NADH, NADPH, decrease

A

NADH, NADH, increase

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66
Q

Which hormone stimulates the GLUT4 receptor, glycogenesis, glycolysis, increased TG storage in adipocytes, and protein synthesis d/t increased AA uptake?

Epinephrine
Insulin
Glucagon
Dopamine

A

Insulin

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67
Q

When glucose is low, what happens to the rate of lipolysis and plasma FFA concentration?

Decreases
Increases
Unaffected

A

both increase

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68
Q

When FFA plasma concentration is increased, the FFAs ______ with Tryptophan, T3, and T4 for transporter binding sites, causing an ______ in Free Trp, T3, and T4.

Bind, increase
Bind, decrease
Compete, increase
Compete, decrease

A

Compete, increase

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69
Q

What happens to serotonin synthesis when concentrations of free Trp are increased?

Decreases
Increases
Unaffected

A

Increases

70
Q

Increased insulin results in _______ serotonin synthesis.

Decreased
Increased
Unaffected

A

decreased (due to the higher glucose concentration that triggers the insulin level reducing lipolysis, which reduces FFAs that compete with with Trp … so Trp stays on the transporter and isn’t free to enter serotonin synthesis)

71
Q

When glucose is low, what is secreted and from where to stimulate hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis from Amino acids?

Insulin, beta cells
Insulin, alpha cells
glucagon, alpha cells
glucagon, beta cells

A

glucagon, alpha cells

Decreased plasma glucose concentration also triggers secretion of glucagon by pancreatic α-cells. After its secretion into the circulation by the pancreas, glucagon acts to stimulate hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis from amino acids.

72
Q

Prolonged CHO deprivation ____ total and free T4, which ____ BMR.

Increases, increases
Increases, decreases
Decreases, increases
Decreases, decreases

A

Decreases, decreases

73
Q

Low glucose stimulates glucocorticoid release from where?

Adrenal cortex
Adrenal medulla
Pancreatic beta cells
Pancreatic alpha cells

A

Adrenal cortex

Decreased plasma glucose concentration stimulates glucocorticoid secretion by the adrenal cortex.

Decreased plasma glucose concentration stimulates epinephrine secretion by the adrenal medulla.

74
Q

Glucocorticoids ______ protein catabolism

Inhibit
Stimulate

A

Stimulate

75
Q

Epinephrine is released due to ____ glucose levels.

High
Low

A

Low

76
Q

What secretes epinephrine?

Adrenal cortex
Adrenal medulla
Pancreatic beta cells
Pancreatic alpha cells

A

Adrenal medulla

77
Q

How does epinephrine affect glycolysis, gluconeogenesis, and TG lipolysis in hepatocytes?

Stimulates it
Inhibits it

A

Stimulates it

78
Q

Increased thyroid hormones affect glycolysis and BMR how?

Stimulates and increases
Inhibits and decreases

A

stimulates and increases

79
Q

What is produced in the stomach to stimulate food intake?

Leptin
Lectin
Ghrelin
Insulin

A

Ghrelin

80
Q

____ is produced in the ____ and signals satiety.

Ghrelin, stomach
Leptin, fat tissue
Insulin, pancreas
CCK, liver

A

Leptin, fat tissue

81
Q

Leptin resistance can occur in obesity and inflammation.

True or False

A

True

82
Q

Which hormone enhances insulin sensitivity and glucose homeostasis by down regulating gluconeogenesis and increasing FFA oxidation? (it can also inhibit inflammation)

Leptin
Insulin
Epinephrine
Adiponectin

A

Adiponectin

Having a significant role in obesity, Type 2 Diabetes and atherosclerosis, this is a hormone that
has a central metabolic role. It specifically enhances insulin sensitivity and glucose homeostasis
by down-regulating gluconeogenisis and increasing fatty acid oxidation. It may also have a role in
inflammation inhibition.

83
Q

Which method of inheritance occurs when both parents carry the expressed gene?

Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X linked Recessive
X linked Dominant
Y linked
A

Autosomal recessive (both have to have it so offspring is homozygous)

84
Q

Which method of inheritance occurs when the expressed phenotype only comes from 1 parent?

Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X linked Recessive
X linked Dominant
Y linked
A

Autosomal dominant…the offspring is heterozygous but expresses the trait

85
Q

Which method of inheritance affects only fathers and their sons?

Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X linked Recessive
X linked Dominant
Y linked
A

Y linked

86
Q

Which method of inheritance affects male offspring more than female, while both parents are unaffected and mom is usually an asymptomatic carrier?

Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X linked Recessive
X linked Dominant
Y linked
A

X linked recessive

87
Q

Which method of inheritance affects female offspring more than males?

Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X linked Recessive
X linked Dominant
Y linked
A

X linked dominant

88
Q

Pentoses and hexoses are

Monosaccharides
Disaccharides

A

Monosaccharides

The common pentoses are ribose and deoxyribose (the essential
components of nucleic acids).

The most common hexoses are galactose, glucose (sometimes called dextrose), and fructose.
These monosaccharides are found commonly in fruits, honey, maple sugar, cane sugar and other
“sweet” plant products.

89
Q

Galactose, glucose, and fructose are examples of

Pentoses
Hexoses

A

hexoses

90
Q

Ribose and deoxyribose are

Pentoses
Hexoses

A

Pentoses

91
Q

Disaccharides are 2 monosaccharides linked together.

True
False

A

True

92
Q

Lactose, maltose, and sucrose are

Monosaccharides
Disaccharides

A

Disaccharides

93
Q

Lactose is

Glucose + galactose
Glucose + lactose
Glucose + fructose

A

Glucose plus galactose

94
Q

Sucrose is

Glucose + galactose
Glucose + lactose
Glucose + fructose

A

Glucose plus fructose

95
Q

Oligosaccharides are polysaccharides that are

Hydrolyzable
Not hydrolyzable

A

Hydrolyzable

Oligosaccharides are composed of monosaccharide units joined together by glycosidic bonds
susceptible to hydrolysis by human enzymes. Polysaccharides are long chain oligosaccharides
that contain two or more monosaccharides linked together in a repeating pattern.

96
Q

Dietary fibers are polysaccharides that are

Hydrolyzable
Not hydrolyzable

A

not hydrolyzable

97
Q

Which type of fiber binds water, softens stool, slows the rate of stomach emptying, and binds glucose/cholesterol?

A

Soluble

98
Q

Which type of fiber adds stool bulk and increases frequency, binds bile salts and conjugated steroids?

A

Insoluble

99
Q

Beta glucans, mucilages, pectins…are which type of fiber?

A

Soluble

100
Q

Cellulose and hemicellulose are which type of fiber?

A

Insoluble

101
Q

Essential AAs

PT 1: What does Essential AA mean?

PT 2: What are the 9 Essential AA?

  1. Alanine
  2. Arginine
  3. Asparagine
  4. Aspartic Acid (Aspartate = anionic form)
  5. Cysteine
  6. Glutamic acid (Glutamate = ionic form)
  7. Glutamine
  8. Glycine
  9. Histidine
  10. Isoleucine
  11. Leucine
  12. Lysine
  13. Methionine
  14. Phenylalanine
  15. Proline
  16. Serine
  17. Threonine
  18. Tryptophan
  19. Tyrosine
  20. Valine
  21. Selenocysteine
A

PT 1: Essential amino acids, also known as indispensable amino acids. Essential AA is required to be obtained through the diet b/c humans 86 the metabolic pathways required to synthesize these amino acids.

PT 2: Histidine, Isoleucine, Leucine, Lysine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Threonine, Tryptophan, Valine.

102
Q

Conditional AAs

PT 1: What does Conditional AAs mean?

PT 2: What are the 8 Conditional AAs?

  1. Alanine
  2. Arginine
  3. Asparagine
  4. Aspartic Acid (Aspartate = anionic form)
  5. Cysteine
  6. Glutamic acid (Glutamate = ionic form)
  7. Glutamine
  8. Glycine
  9. Histidine
  10. Isoleucine
  11. Leucine
  12. Lysine
  13. Methionine
  14. Phenylalanine
  15. Proline
  16. Serine
  17. Threonine
  18. Tryptophan
  19. Tyrosine
  20. Valine
  21. Selenocysteine
A

PT 1: Conditional amino acids are usually not essential, except in times of illness and stress

PT 2: Arginine, Cysteine, Glutamine, Tyrosine, Glycine, Ornithine, Proline, and Serine.

103
Q

Non-Essential AAs

PART 1:
1A) Define what is a non-essential AA
1B) Name the 11 non-essential AA

PART 2:
2A) What are 10 of 11 synthesized from?
2B) Synthesized from Phenylalanine (1)?

  1. Alanine
  2. Arginine
  3. Asparagine
  4. Aspartic Acid (Aspartate = anionic form)
  5. Cysteine
  6. Glutamic acid (Glutamate = ionic form)
  7. Glutamine
  8. Glycine
  9. Histidine
  10. Isoleucine
  11. Leucine
  12. Lysine
  13. Methionine
  14. Phenylalanine
  15. Proline
  16. Serine
  17. Threonine
  18. Tryptophan
  19. Tyrosine
  20. Valine
  21. Selenocysteine
A

1A) Our bodies can produce even if 86 get from the food we eat.

1B) Alanine, Arginine, Asparagine, Aspartic acid, Cysteine, Glutamic acid, Glutamine, Glycine, Proline, Serine, and Tyrosine.

2A) Synthesized from GLUCOSE

2B) Tyrosine (86 synthesized from glucose)

104
Q

Which is major source of dietary sulfur?

Methionine
Proline
Glutamine
Cysteine

A

Methionine

105
Q

Aromatic AAs are building blocks for A and B, known to aid in C health and function and serve as D for the synthesis w/many active compounds.

The E system relies heavily on adequate AA consumption to ensure F production, maintenance, and concentration are sufficient, allowing for optimal biological and neurological function. The names of the 3 Aromatic AAs are __G__, __H__, __I__.

First, is J converted to K. Then, L and M are converted to N; Serotonin, Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine.

  1. Alanine
  2. Arginine
  3. Asparagine
  4. Aspartic Acid (Aspartate = anionic form)
  5. Cysteine
  6. Glutamic acid (Glutamate = ionic form)
  7. Glutamine
  8. Glycine
  9. Histidine
  10. Isoleucine
  11. Leucine
  12. Lysine
  13. Methionine
  14. Phenylalanine
  15. Proline
  16. Serine
  17. Threonine
  18. Tryptophan
  19. Tyrosine
  20. Valine
  21. Selenocysteine
A

A) Proteins
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Neurological
D) Precursors

E) CNS
F) Neurotransmitters
G-I) Phenylalanine, Tryptophan, Tyrosine

J) Phenylalanine
K)Tyrosine
L) Tyrosine
M) Tryptophan
N) Neurotransmitters
106
Q

Val, Leu, Ile are important fuel for voluntary muscles. Collectively, what are they referred to as?

A

BCAAs

107
Q

Coconut, palm, and palm kernel are sources of which type of Saturated Fatty Acid?

Palmitic
Stearic

A

Palmitic

108
Q

Sources of Stearic acid?

Seafood
Meat, milk, butter, cocoa
Nuts and seeds

A

Meat milk butter cocoa

109
Q

What type of MUFA do olives, almonds, avocadoes, peanuts, pecans, and macadamia nuts provide?

A

Oleic

110
Q

Safflower, sunflower, corn, hemp, sesame are sources of which?

Linoleic
Linolenic
EPA
DHA

A

Linoleic

111
Q

Flax, canola, walnuts, soy, dark green leafy veggies are sources of which?

Linoleic
Linolenic
EPA
DHA

A

Linolenic

linoleic acid (18:2ω6; sources: safflower, sunflower, corn, soybean and sesame oils, hemp and pumpkin

112
Q

Borage oil, black currant seed, and EPO are sources of

EPA
DHA
GLA
AA

A

GLA

113
Q

Medium chain fatty acids have how many carbons?

4-6
7-12
13-20

A

7-12

114
Q

Long chain FAs have how many carbons?

A

> 14

115
Q

Pyrimidines and purines are types of

Organic acids
Nucleic Acids
Minerals
Vitamins

A

Nucleic Acids

116
Q

Which is an organic compound required by an enzyme in order for it to function and is consumed in the reaction and requires regeneration for use again later?

Cofactor
Coenzyme
Regulatory protein

A

Coenzyme

117
Q

Which is required for full activation of the enzyme, functions as part of the enzyme, and is not consumed by the reaction?

Cofactor
Coenzyme
Regulatory protein

A

Cofactor

118
Q

Which is the hydrolysis of the glycogen stores in the liver and muscle to glucose monomers?

Glycogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenolysis
Gluconeogenesis

A

Glycogenolysis

119
Q

Which converts glucose into pyruvate?

Glycogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenolysis
Gluconeogenesis

A

Glycolysis

120
Q

Which creates the polysaccharide storage chain of glycogen polymers are created from glucose monomers.

Glycogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenolysis
Gluconeogenesis

A

Glycogenesis

121
Q

Following glycolysis, which enzyme activates pyruvate for entry into the mitochondria for the TCA cycle and requires B1, B2, B3, B5, lipoic?

Pyruvate hydrogenase
Pyruvate carboxylase
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Pyruvate decarboxylase

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

122
Q

Mitochondria-less cells, like RBCs, cannot convert pyruvate for energy through a TCA cycle. Instead, they convert it into _____ using _____ (enzyme).

Oxygen, oxygen synthase
Lactate, lactate dehydrogenase
Glycogen, glycogen synthase
glucose, none

A

Lactate, LDH

123
Q

The TCA cycle metabolizes the acetyl-CoA into CO2. Which enzyme in the cycle is irreversible?

Aconitase
Citrate synthase
Succinate dehydrogenase
Fumarase

A

Citrate synthase

124
Q

TCA is aerobic.

True or False

A

True

125
Q

The Pentose Mononphosphate Shunt is an alternate path of glucose metabolism. It synthesizes pentoses and

CO2
NO
NAD+
NADPH2

A

NADPH2

126
Q

Which is the primary hepatic pathway for de novo glucose synthesis from lactate, pyruvate, or alanine?

Glycogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenolysis
Gluconeogenesis

A

Gluconeogenesis

127
Q

Gluconeogenesis is the exact reverse of glycolysis.

True or False

A

FALSE … 3 glycolytic enzymes are irreversible: pyruvate kinase, glucokinase, and phosphofructokinase

128
Q

In gluconeogenesis, since pyruvate kinase is irreversible, pyruvate is first converted to what by which enzyme, and which cofactor does that enzyme need?

Lactate, LDH, NADH
Citrate, citrate synthase, FADH2
Oxaloacetate, Pyruvate carboxylase, biotin
PEP, PEP carboxylase, GTP

A

Oxaloacetate, pyruvate carboxylase, biotin

129
Q

The second step of bypassing pyruvate kinase in gluconeogenesis creates which product using which enzyme and which cofactor?

Lactate, LDH, NADH
Citrate, citrate synthase, FADH2
Oxaloacetate, Pyruvate carboxylase, biotin
PEP, PEP carboxylase, GTP

A

PEP, PEP carboxylase, GTP

130
Q

In gluconeogenesis, 1 glucose is formed from how many Pyruvate, ATP, and GTP?

2 pyruvate, 1 ATP, 1 GTP
2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, 1 GTP
1 pyruvate, 1 ATP, 1 GTP

A

2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, 1 GTP

131
Q

The Alanine cycle involves the conversion of pyruvate to alanine in muscle cells. Alanine is sent to the __A___ to be converted back to __B__ which is then made into _C___?

Kidneys, glucose, pyruvate
Liver, lactate, glucose
Liver, pyruvate, glucose
Kidney, pyruvate, glucose

A

A) Liver….converted back to
B) Pyruvate…then hepatic gluconeogenesis converts the pyruvate into
D) Glucose

132
Q

After LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) converts pyruvate to Lactate in the RBCs, it is cycled to the liver where it is converted back to pyruvate and then into glucose. What is this cycle called?

The Alanine Cycle
The Lactate-Glucose cycle
The Cori Cycle
The Pyruvate-Lactate cycle

A

The Cori Cycle

133
Q

Free fatty acids are activated for oxidation by adding what to make what?

CoA, Fatty Acyl-CoA
CoA, Fatty Acetyl-CoA
OH, Hydroxylated FFA
Glucose, Glycosylated FFA

A

CoA, Fatty Acyl-CoA

134
Q

Fatty Acyl-CoA must be combined with which amino acid to make entry into the mitochondria?

Lysine
Carnitine
Taurine
Methionine

A

Carnitine

135
Q

Within mitochondria, 2-carbon units are cleaved (decarboxylation) via beta- oxidation and transferred to TCA cycle enzymes. The remaining fatty acid remnant is combined to another coenzyme A moiety and the cycle of beta-oxidation is continued until only a 2- or 3- carbon unit remains.

What is the 2 carbon unit?

Acyl-CoA
CoQ10
Acetyl CoA
Pyruvate

A

Acetyl CoA

136
Q

Excitatory neurotransmitters function to activate receptors on the postsynaptic membrane and enhance the effects of the action potential. What is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter?

Glutamate (Glu), Acetylcholine (ACh), Histamine, Dopamine (DA), Norepinephrine (NE)/noradrenaline (NAd), Epinephrine (Epi)/Adrenaline (Ad)

A
  1. Glutamate: Primary excitatory transmitter & main excitatory transmitter in CNS
137
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitters function is to prevent an action potential, what is the major inhibitory neurotransmitters?

Gamma-Aminobutyric acid (GABA), Serotonin (5-HT), Dopamine (DA)

A
  1. GABA: Metabolite of glutamate and is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the adult vertebrate brain.
138
Q

Acetylcholine (ACh) is an excitatory neurotransmitter, which 2 are a function of ACh?

Regulates sleep cycle
Increases the level of wakefulness 
Essential for muscle functioning
Response with glucose production
Motivation/desire to complete a task
Increases the level of alertness
Prepares the body for the fight-or-flight
A

Regulates sleep cycle

Essential for muscle functioning

139
Q

Norepinephrine (NE) also known as noradrenaline (NAd), is an excitatory neurotransmitter produced by the brainstem, hypothalamus, and adrenal glands and released into the bloodstream.

Which 2 are a function of NE?

Regulates sleep cycle
Increases the level of wakefulness 
Essential for muscle functioning
Response with glucose production
Increases the level of alertness
Motivation/desire to complete a task
Prepares the body for the fight-or-flight
A

In the brain, it increases the level of alertness and wakefulness.

Norepinephrine has been implicated in mood disorders such as depression and anxiety, in which case its concentration in the body is abnormally low. Alternatively, an abnormally high concentration of it may lead to an impaired sleep cycle.

140
Q

Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline (Ad), epinephrine (Epi) is an excitatory neurotransmitter produced by the chromaffin cells of the adrenal gland.

Which 1 is the best describe function of NE?

Regulates sleep cycle
Increases the level of wakefulness 
Essential for muscle functioning
Motivation/desire to complete a task
Increases the level of alertness
Prepares the body for the fight-or-flight
A

Prepares the body for the fight-or-flight

It prepares the body for the fight-or-flight response. That means that when a person is highly stimulated (fear, anger etc.), extra amounts of epinephrine are released into the bloodstream.The fight-or-flight response (increased heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose production)

This release of epinephrine increases heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose release from the liver (via glycogenolysis). In this way, the nervous and endocrine systems prepare the body for dangerous and extreme situations by increasing nutrient supply to key issues.

141
Q

Dopamine (DA) is a neurotransmitter secreted by the neurons of the substantia nigra. It is considered a special type of neurotransmitter because its effects are both excitatory and inhibitory. Which effect depends on the type of receptor that dopamine binds to. Inhibits unnecessary movements, inhibits the release of prolactin, and stimulates the secretion of growth hormone.

Which 1 is the best describe function of DA?

Regulates sleep cycle
Increases the level of wakefulness 
Essential for muscle functioning
Motivation/desire to complete a task
Increases the level of alertness
Prepares the body for the fight-or-flight
A

an appropriate secretion of dopamine in the bloodstream plays a role in the motivation and desire to complete a task

Dopamine deficiency related to the destruction of the substantia nigra leads to Parkinson’s disease. Increased activity of dopaminergic neurons contributes to the pathophysiology of psychotic disorders and schizophrenia.

Drug and alcohol abuse can temporarily increase dopamine levels in the blood, leading to confusion and the inability to focus.

142
Q

Gamma-Aminobutyric acid (GABA) is the most powerful inhibitory neurotransmitter produced by the neurons of the spinal cord, cerebellum, basal ganglia, and many areas of the cerebral cortex. It is derived from glutamate. Reduces neuronal excitability throughout the nervous system.

Which 1 best describes the functions of GABA?

Regulates body temperature
Closely related to mood and emotions
Perception of: pain, emotions, sleep cycle
In the stomach will increases acidity
Regulation w/general CNS excitability Learning processes and memory
Wakefulness, BP, pain & sexual behavior

A

Closely related to mood and emotions.

It is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that acts as a brake to excitatory neurotransmitters; thus when it is abnormally low this can lead to anxiety. It is widely distributed in the brain and plays a principal role in reducing neuronal excitability throughout the nervous system.

143
Q

Glutamate (Glu) is the most powerful excitatory neurotransmitter of the central nervous system which ensures homeostasis with the effects of GABA. It is secreted by neurons of many of the sensory pathways entering the central nervous system, as well as the cerebral cortex.

Which 2 best describes Glu functions?

Regulates body temperature
Closely related to mood and emotions
Perception of: pain, emotions, sleep cycle
In the stomach will increases acidity
Regulation w/general CNS excitability Learning processes and memory
Wakefulness, BP, pain & sexual behavior

A

Regulation w/general CNS excitability Learning processes and memory.

Inappropriate glutamate neurotransmission contributes to developing epilepsy and cognitive and affective disorders.

144
Q

Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. It is secreted by the neurons of the brainstem and by neurons that innervate the gastrointestinal tract (enteric nervous system).

Which 3 best describes Serotonin functions?

Regulates body temperature
Closely related to mood and emotions
Perception of: pain, emotions, sleep cycle
In the stomach will increases acidity
Regulation w/general CNS excitability Learning processes and memory
Wakefulness, BP, pain & sexual behavior

A

Regulates body temperature
Perception of: pain, emotions, sleep cycle
Closely related to mood and emotions

In participates in the regulation of body temperature, perception of pain, emotions, and sleep cycle. Insufficient secretion of serotonin may result in decreased immune system function, as well as a range of emotional disorders like depression, anger control problems, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and even suicidal tendencies.

145
Q

Histamine is an excitatory neurotransmitter produced by neurons of the hypothalamus, cells of the stomach mucosa, mast cells, and basophils in the blood.

Which 2 describes Histamine functions?

Regulates body temperature
Closely related to mood and emotions
Perception of: pain, emotions, sleep cycle
In the stomach will increases acidity
Regulation w/general CNS excitability Learning processes and memory
Wakefulness, BP, pain & sexual behavior

A

Wakefulness, BP, pain & sexual behavior
In the stomach, it increases acidity

Regulates wakefulness, blood pressure, pain, and sexual behavior; increases the acidity of the stomach; mediates inflammatory reactions. It is involved primarily in the inflammatory response, as well as a range of other functions such as vasodilation and regulation of the immune response to foreign bodies.

For example, when allergens are introduced into the bloodstream, histamine assists in the fight against these microorganisms causing itching of the skin or irritations of the throat, nose, and or lungs.

146
Q

Alzheimer’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by learning and memory impairments. It is associated with a lack of acetylcholine in certain regions of the brain. What nutrient would be helpful to increase due to being a nutrient precursor for the neurotransmitter, acetylcholine, which is known to impact memory?

Choline
Glucose
Tryptophan
Tyrosine

A

Choline.

The human body uses choline to produce acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter responsible for functioning memory, muscle control, and mood. Choline also is used to build cell membranes and plays a vital role in regulating gene expression. Choline acts to protect the brain from Alzheimer’s in 2 ways:

  1. Choline blocks the production of amyloid-beta plaques, amyloid-beta plaques are the hallmark pathology observed in Alzheimer’s Disease.
  2. Choline supplementation reduces the activation of microglia, over-activation of microglia causes brain inflammation and can eventually lead to neuronal death, thereby compromising cognitive function. Choline supplementation reduces the activation of microglia, offering further protection from the ravages of Alzheimer’s Disease.
147
Q

Aubergine, bitter orange, common bean, mung bean, peas, radish, squash, spinach, foxglove, wild strawberry, mistletoe, and nettle species are rich sources of what neurotransmitter?

Histamine 
Dopamine
Serotonin (5-HT) 
GABA
Glutamate
Acetylcholine (ACh)
A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

With aubergine, squash, and spinach being the richest out of all listed for ACh.

doi: 10.3390/nu10050591

148
Q

Glutamic acid is an AA that naturally occurs in foods with high content of _____. Meats, seafood, stews, soups, and sauces being examples of food sources for this macronutrient.

Carbohydrates
Protein
Lipids

A

Protein

doi: 10.3390/nu10050591

149
Q

Glutamate is a non-essential AA and the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain. At what pH level does dietary glutamic acid become transformed into glutamate; being its anionic form.

pH Level 5
pH Level 6
pH Level 7
none of these pH levels

A

pH 7

doi: 10.3390/nu10050591

150
Q

Caviar, cheese, crackling, chips, dried cod, fermented beans, fish sauces, gravies, instant coffee powder, meats, miso, mushrooms, noodle dishes, oyster sauce, Parmesan cheese, ready-to-eat meals, salami, savory snacks, seafood, seaweeds, soups, soy sauces, spinach, stews, and tomato are rich food sources of what neurotransmitter?

Histamine 
Dopamine
Serotonin (5-HT) 
GABA
Glutamate
Acetylcholine (ACh)
A

Glutamate

doi: 10.3390/nu10050591

151
Q

Bananas, chicory, Chinese cabbage, coffee powders, green coffee bean, green onion, hazelnut, kiwi, lettuce, nettle, paprika, passion fruit, pawpaw, pepper, pineapple, plantain, plum, pomegranate, potato, spinach, strawberry, tomato, velvet bean, and wild rice are rich sources of what neurotransmitter?

Histamine 
Dopamine
Serotonin (5-HT) 
GABA
Glutamate
Acetylcholine (ACh)
A

Serotonin (5-HT)

doi: 10.3390/nu10050591

152
Q

Aubergine, avocado, banana, common bean, apple, orange, peas, plantain, spinach, tomato, and velvet bean are rich food sources of what neurotransmitter?

Histamine 
Dopamine
Serotonin (5-HT) 
GABA
Glutamate
Acetylcholine (ACh)
A

Dopamine

doi: 10.3390/nu10050591

153
Q

Demonstrated to increase in response to biotic and abiotic stresses, such as drought, the presence of salt, wounds, hypoxia, infection, soaking, and germination.

Histamine 
Dopamine
Serotonin (5-HT) 
GABA
Glutamate
Acetylcholine (ACh)
A

GABA

doi: 10.3390/nu10050591

154
Q

Adzuki bean, barley, broccoli, buckwheat, chestnut, common bean, kale, lupin, maypop, mouse-ear hawkweed, oat, pea, pokeroot, potato, rice, shiitake, soya bean, spinach, St John’s wort, sweet potato, tea, tomato, valerian, wheat, and wild celery are rich food sources of what neurotransmitter?

Histamine 
Dopamine
Serotonin (5-HT) 
GABA
Glutamate
Acetylcholine (ACh)
A

GABA

doi: 10.3390/nu10050591

155
Q

What neurotransmitter is known for its analgesic effects , anti-anxiety, and hypotensive activity. Herbal sources are seen in Chinese White Tea, Mistletoe, Pokeroot, Valerian, Wild Celery, St John’s Wort, and Maypop.

Dopamine
Serotonin (5-HT)
GABA
Free Glutamic Acid

A

GABA

doi: 10.3390/nu10050591

156
Q

Anchovy, beer, billfish, Champagne and Sherry, dandelion, fermented sausages, ham and other cured dry meat products, herring, ketchup, aged cheeses, nettle, red, white, and dessert wines, sardine, and sauerkraut are rich food sources of what neurotransmitter?

Histamine 
Dopamine
Serotonin (5-HT) 
GABA
Glutamate
Acetylcholine (ACh)
A

Histamine

doi: 10.3390/nu10050591

157
Q

Of the following vitamins, which are most closely associated with cognitive performance such as concentration, learning, memory, and reasoning.

B-vitamins and vitamin C
Vitamin B1, B2, B3, B6
Vitamin C, B1, B5, B6, B9, B12
B-vitamins

A

B-vitamins and vitamin C

**The term ‘performance’ has been used to include those aspects of cognitive function, such as concentration, learning, memory, and reasoning.

https://doi.org/10.1177/147323000703500101

158
Q

Of the following minerals, which are most closely associated with cognitive performance such as concentration, learning, memory, and reasoning.

Calcium, Magnesium, Zinc
Copper, Folic Acid, Calcium
Iodine, Iron, Zinc
Chromium, Boron, Iron

A

Calcium, Magnesium, Zinc

**The term ‘performance’ has been used to include those aspects of cognitive function, such as concentration, learning, memory, and reasoning.

https://doi.org/10.1177/147323000703500101

159
Q

True or False?

Magnesium is essential for all enzymes requiring vitamin B1 as a cofactor.

Both magnesium and vitamin B2 are required for the conversion of vitamin B6 into its active form.

Extra-cellular magnesium is critical for the maintenance of nerve and muscle membranes and for the transmission of impulses across neuromuscular junctions.

A

True

doi.org/10.1177/147323000703500101

160
Q

What drug class that functions by increasing the effects of specific neurotransmitters?

Agonists
SSRI
Antagonists
Antidepressants

A

Agonists

161
Q

Depression is believed to be caused by the depletion of norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine in the CNS. Deficiency in vitamin B3, B6, folic acid, zinc, and magnesium have all been linked to depression.

Would a Mediterranean diet, being high in vegetables, fruits, legumes, nuts, beans, cereals, grains, fish, and unsaturated fats such as olive oil, be good to recommend?

A

Yes and would be able to provide sufficient levels of:

  • Tryptophan
  • Selenium
  • Zinc
  • Magnesium
  • B-vitamins
  • Omega-3; EPA seems to be the most potent natural anti-depressant.
  • Antioxidants: Vit A (beta carotene) C, E
  • Serotonin is made in the body and brain from an amino acid called tryptophan which converts to 5-HTP then converts to serotonin. Tryptophan can be found in the diet; it’s in many protein-rich foods such as meat, fish, beans, and eggs. Best absorbed either on an empty stomach or, w/carb snacks; fruit 5-HTP is well-absorbed with or without food.
162
Q

What drug class acts to block the effects of neurotransmission?

Agonists
SSRI
Antagonists
Antidepressants

A

Antagonists

163
Q

Drugs that can influence neurotransmission include medications used to treat illness including depression and anxiety

SSRIs
Tricyclic antidepressants
Benzodiazepines
All

A

Tricyclic-antidepressants usually have more of an effect on norepinephrine levels than on serotonin levels.

SSRIs also cause more serotonin to be available for neurons to use, by selectively inhibiting serotonin transporters.

Benzodiazepines are drugs that slow down messages traveling between the brain and body. Other depressants include alcohol, cannabis, and heroin. Benzodiazepines are also minor tranquilizers, usually prescribed by doctors to relieve stress and anxiety and to help people sleep.

164
Q

True or False?

People with either low blood levels of the B-vitamin folic acid, or high blood levels of the amino acid homocysteine (a sign that you are not getting enough B6, B12 or folic acid), are both more likely to be depressed and less likely to get a positive result from anti-depressant drugs.

A

True

In a study comparing the effects of giving an SSRI with either a placebo or with folic acid, 61% of patients improved on the placebo combination but 93% improved with the addition of folic acid.

165
Q

Folic acid is one of seven nutrients – the others being B2, B6, B12, zinc, magnesium and TMG – that help normalise homocysteine. Having high homocysteine levels, a toxic amino acid found in the blood, doubles the odds of a woman developing depression.

What is an ideal level for homocysteine:

Below 10 but above 8
Below 10 aim closer to 7
Below 15 but above 12

A

Below 10 aim closer to 7. Ideally you want a low number. The average level is 10-11, and depression risk doubles with levels above 15. A low homocysteine = brain is good at ‘methylating’ (brain able to maintain chemistry in balance)

Treatment: The higher your level the more likely folic acid will work for you.

Eat wholefoods, fruits, vegetables, nuts and seeds, high in these nutrients and supplementing a multivitamin.

If level is above 9mmol/l take a combined ‘homocysteine’ supplement of B2, B6, B12, folic acid, zinc, and TMG, providing at least 400mcg of folic acid, 250mcg of B12 and 20mg of B6.

If your homocysteine score is above 15mmol/l double this amount.

166
Q

Vitamin B6 Functional Form:Pyridoxal phosphate

Some enzymatic reactions vitamin B6 involved in:

  • Phosphorylation of Glycogen
  • Metabolism of Lipids and Nucleic Acids
  • Decarboxylation
  • AA: Synthesis/Catabolism/Racemization/Transformations.

Q: What 3 neurotransmitters are influenced by vitamin B6 due to it being a critical nutrient required for normal brain function and neurotransmitters synthesis?

GABA
Dopamine
ACh
Serotonin

A

GABA, Dopamine, Serotonin

Pyridoxal phosphate acts as a cofactor for a large number of enzymes involved in the synthesis, catabolism, decarboxylation, racemization, & other transformations of AA, metabolism of lipids & nucleic acids, and is the essential coenzyme for phosphorylation of glycogen.

In the CNS + PNS, Vitamin B6 is essential for the synthesis of adrenaline, serotonin, dopamine, GABA, tyramine, and other neurotransmitters.

167
Q

Vitamin B1 Functional Form: Thiamine pyrophosphate

Some enzymatic reactions vitamin B1 is involved:

  • Pyruvate dehydrogenase
  • α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
  • Transketolase
  • Carbohydrate Metabolism

Q: What neurotransmitter is influenced by vitamin B1 due to it being a critical nutrient required for normal brain function and neurotransmitters synthesis?

Adrenaline
ACh
Serotonin
Dopamine

A

ACh; Acetylcholine

The thiamine coenzyme required for several stages in the breakdown of glucose to provide energy. It also plays a role in the conduction of nerve impulses.

The brain and the peripheral nerves contain significant amounts of thiamine, which has numerous roles within nerve tissue.

168
Q

Acetyl CoA refers to the acetylated form of coenzyme A formed as an intermediate in the 1 of carbohydrates, fats, proteins during 2.

Acyl CoA refers to a product of fatty acid activation subsequently carried by 3 into the mitochondria for 4.

A) Oxidation + metabolism / carnitine + β-oxidation
B) Combination + synthesis / glycine + decomposition
C) β-oxidation + synthesis / glycine + detoxification
D) Portion + catabolic / histidine + combustion

A

A) Oxidation + metabolism / carnitine + β-oxidation

Acetyl CoA: acetylated form of coenzyme A formed as an intermediate in the oxidation of carbohydrates, fats, proteins during metabolism.

Acyl CoA: refers to a product of fatty acid activation subsequently carried by carnitine into the mitochondria for β-oxidation.

169
Q

Vitamin C Functional Form: Ascorbate

Some enzymatic reactions vitamin C involved in:

  • Redox/Antioxidant: Free radical quenching
  • Synthesis: Collagen, Bile Acids, Hormones
  • Folic acid: Absorption, Utilization

Q: What 3 neurotransmitters are influenced by vitamin C due to it being a critical nutrient required for normal brain function and neurotransmitters synthesis?

Adrenaline, Histamine, Dopamine
Serotonin (5-HT), GABA, Glutamate
ACh, Adrenaline, GABA
Serotonin, Dopamine, Noradrenaline.

A

Serotonin, Dopamine, Noradrenaline.

Vit C is also required by some critical enzymes as a cofactor, most particularly those that synthesize neurotransmitters such as dopamine and adrenaline. Acting as a co-factor for dopamine beta-hydroxylase conversion of dopamine to noradrenaline. Involvement w/modulation of the neurotransmission of dopaminergic and glutamatergic.

  • Regulation of catecholamine and acetylcholine release from synaptic vesicles. Crucial to cognitive performance due to its role in the differentiation and maturation of neurons and formation of the myelin sheath that protects them and speeds impulse transmission.
  • Synthesis of a number of hormones like noradrenaline or hormones activated by vitamin C-dependent amidation (calcitonin, vasopressin, oxytocin, cholecystokinin, gastrin). Neutralize superoxide radicals and protects against the formation of potentially carcinogenic nitrosamines from nitrate-containing foods such as smoked meats.
  • Vitamin C is essential for the metabolism and utilization of folic acid and improves the absorption of iron from the stomach. Vit C acts synergistically with zinc in collagen formation (such that lack of either leads to skin changes and delayed wound healing).
170
Q

Catecholamines help the body respond to stress or fright and prepare the body for “fight-or-flight” reactions. What vitamin aids in the regulation of catecholamine and acetylcholine release from synaptic vesicles?

Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Vitamin K

A

Vitamin C

https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fphys.2015.00397/full

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