Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 4 Medicine > Primary Care > Flashcards

Primary Care Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
WSET ® Level 4 D2 Business of Wine flashcards
1
Q

Can you make a new diagnosis of IBS (irritable bowel syndrome) in someone over the age of 50 years?

A

You shouldn’t make this diagnosis without first excluding/ considering other causes such as bowel cancer or diverticulosis which are more common with advancing age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the commonest cause of food poisoning in the UK?

A

Campylobacter - and its most common in the summer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When taking a history for diarrhoea, what diagnoses might blood in the stool indicate?

A

Infective- campylobacter, E.coli, shigella.
Inflammatory- IBD.
Neoplastic - bowel cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A patient presents with diarrhoea alongside crampy abdominal pain which is relieved on defecation. What diagnosis may this suggest?

A

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When can people who have had gastroenteritis return to work or school?

A

They should not return to work or school until 48 hours after the diarrhoea has stopped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If a patient has diarrhoea, what medications should they stop taking until the diarrhoea has resolved and why?

A

ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and diuretics. If the patient continues to take these drugs whilst they have diarrhoea, they run the risk of developing an AKI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Should patients with acute diarrhoea be advised to take Loperamide (Imodium)?

A

Consider loperamide if it is important to stop the diarrhoea (e.g. before a long journey), but otherwise it should be avoided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of drug is loperamide?

A

It is an opioid that does not cross the BBB, but increases colonic transit time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which specific circumstances should loperamide definitely not be used to treat diarrhoea?

A

In children and in anyone with bloody diarrhoea, as it may increase their risk of complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which arm should you use to measure a patient’s blood pressure?

A

Unless there are good reasons for not doing so (such as patient discomfort), you should use the patient’s right arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the ALARMs symptoms (red flag symptoms) that warrant immediate endoscopy?

A 
Anaemia (iron deficiency) 
Loss of weight
Anorexia 
Recent onset/ progressive symptoms 
Melaena / haematemesis 
Swallowing difficulty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drugs/ medications can cause heartburn symptoms?

A

Antibiotics e.g. tetracyclines, NSAIDs, corticosteroids, iron compounds, nitrates, bisphosphonates, calcium preparations, calcium channel antagonists and theophylline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the typical eradication therapy for H. Pylori?

A

A PPI such as omeprazole and 2 antibiotics e.g. amoxicillin and clarithromycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Patients can complete self-certificates for time off work due to illness, how does this work and for how long does it last?

A

The self certificate will cover the first 7 days off work due to sickness. They complete their own self certificate/ form which is available from their employer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some important points about medical certificates supplied by doctors for statements of fitness to work?

A

They are provided free of charge. The doctor does not personally have to see the patient. They can be backdated, but cannot be issued for longer than 3 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which patient groups are exempt from prescription charges?

A

All those aged >60 years, children, pregnant women (or those who have given birth in the last year), people with certain diseases e.g. diabetes, epilepsy, hypothyroidism, people receiving Tx for cancer and people on renal dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which contraceptive might be prescribed for a patient to help with acne?

A

Some COCPs such as co-cyprindiol (Dianette)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What contraceptive method may lead to a delay in fertility?

A

The injection (injectable contraceptives)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do COCPs work?

A

They inhibit ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some of the advantages of the COCP?

A

Regulates cycles and reduces pain (PMT) and amount of bleeding.
Reduces symptomatic fibroids and benign breast disease
Reduces risk of ovarian, colorectal and endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In terms of the COCP, which pills in the pill packet are ‘most important’ not to miss?

A

It is very important not to miss any of the first 7 pills in the packet (these pills stop ovulation from occurring)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of patients would the POP be suitable for rather than the COCP?

A

Women who are breastfeeding, patients who have migraine with aura, or those who are smokers and aged >35.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How are POPs (progesterone only pills) taken?

A

Usually need to be taken within 3 hours of the same time everyday and are taken daily without a break. However, Desogestrel pills are a form of POP that can be taken within 12 hours of the time it is due so is useful as a first-line contraceptive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does the POP work?

A

The traditional POP prevents pregnancy by thickening cervical mucus, the desogestrel pills can also stop ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In terms of injectable contraceptives, what types are there and how long do they last?

A

Most common one is Depo-Provera which is given every 13 weeks (previously 12). Noristerat which is given every 8 weeks. Sayana press (a newer one) can be given every 13 weeks and the patient can administer it themselves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some side effects of the injectable contraceptives?

A

They can be effective at reducing heavy or painful menstrual bleeding but can cause amenorrhoea or regular bleeding. Side effects such as unscheduled bleeding or return of fertility can last for up to a year on stopping. There is also increased risk of osteoporosis and weight gain is another side effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How long do progesterone implants last/ how long are they licensed for?

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How long do copper and Mirena coils last for?

A

Copper coil lasts 5-10 years depending on the brand. Mirena IUS lasts 5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What investigation should you do if the threads of a coil are not palpable or visible?

A

A pelvic ultrasound scan to assess the position of the coil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If a lady becomes pregnant with a coil in situ, what does this increase the risk of?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the copper coil and the Mirena IUS do to bleeding?

A

The copper coil makes periods heavier (warn the patient of this), but doesn’t interfere with their normal cycle. The Mirena coil is used as a treatment for heavy, painful periods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Outline the options for emergency contraception

A

One off dose of a pill (Levonorgestrel or Ulipristal acetate) or non-hormonal e.g. copper IUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the key points to remember about the Levonorgestrel pill for emergency contraception?

A

It is a progesterone medication. Single dose of 1.5mg. Taken up to 72 hours post UPSI. More effective ASAP after UPSI. Need double dose (3mg) if BMI >26 or weight >70kg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Is emergency contraceptive effective after ovulation has taken place?

A

The evidence suggests that it is not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the key points about the Ulipristal acetate pill (ellaOne) for emergency contraception?

A

It is a selective progesterone receptor modulator (SPRM). Primary action is by inhibiting or delaying ovulation. More effective than Levonorgestrel and can be taken within 120 hours (5 days) of UPSI as a single dose. EllaOne is usually chosen over Levonorgestrel unless there has been recent progesterone use or the patient has severe asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What if a patient vomits after taking an emergency contraceptive pill?

A

If patient vomits within 2 hours (3 for ulipristal) of taking, she should repeat the dose (with an anti-emetic) or consider having an IUD inserted instead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How long after taking an emergency contraceptive pill can a woman have sex again?

A

She should abstain from sex (or at least use barrier methods) until she has her next period (ulipristal reduces the efficacy of hormonal contraceptives) or if Levonelle given until contraceptive cover is resumed (7 days of COCP and 2 days of POP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the most effective emergency contraceptive?

A

The copper IUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the key points about the copper IUD for emergency contraception?

A

Effective. Can be inserted up to 120 hours (5 days) after UPSI (or up to 5 days after estimated earliest date of ovulation). Prevents fertilisation and unless removed, provides ongoing contraception. Must screen for STDs at the time of insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are some non-modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease?

A

Increasing age, male sex, family history, ethnicity, socioeconomic deprivation, genetic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are some modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease?

A

Smoking, hypertension, high cholesterol, diabetes, obesity, physical inactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What tool is used to calculate cardiovascular risk in the UK?

A

QRISK3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Outline current pharmacotherapies for people who want to quit smoking (note it is best if the measures are supplemented with counselling/ expert support)

A

Nicotine replacement therapy, bupropion, varenicline, e-cigarettes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do you go about trying to get an accurate ‘clinic blood pressure’ (in terms of multiple measurements)?

A

If a BP measurement is >140/90 it should be repeated, if the two differ substantially (i.e. ~>20mmHg) a third should be taken. The lower of the last two measurements is taken as the clinic BP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What should you do next if a patient has a ‘clinic BP’ of >140/90mmHg?

A

Ambulatory BP monitoring (ABPM) (at least 14 measurements over waking hours) should be offered to confirm the diagnosis of HTN. Home BP monitoring (HBPM) can be used as an alternative (ideally twice daily pairs of measurements for 7 days). Average all readings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How to NICE define the stages of hypertension?

A

Stage 1: clinic BP is 140/90 or higher AND subsequent ABPM is 135/85 or higher
Stage 2: clinic BP is 160/100 or higher AND subsequent ABPM is 150/95 or higher
Severe: clinic systolic BP is 180 or higher OR clinic diastolic BP is 110 or higher
Malignant: >180/110 + organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When should drug treatment be considered for HTN?

A

Immediately (before any ABPM/HBPM) if clinic BP >180/110
All stage 2 HTN
Stage 1 HTN if elevated risk (e.g. QRISK3 >10%, diabetes, end organ damage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

NICE recommend treating HTN to a clinic BP of what?

A

<140/90 (or <150/90 in those aged >80)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

In the stepwise treatment of HTN, how long after starting a treatment should you wait until you reassess BP?

A

BP should be reassessed after 4-6 weeks before considering progressing to the next stage of treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the stepwise treatment regimen for HTN?

A

Step 1: ACE inhibitor OR calcium channel blocker (if >55 or black)
Step 2: ACE inhibitor PLUS calcium channel blocker
Step 3: ACE inhibitor PLUS calcium channel blocker PLUS thiazide-like diuretic (indapamide)
Step 4: Consider adding beta-blocker (e.g. metoprolol) OR alpha-blocker OR alternative diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What antihypertensive should you use in a patient with T2DM?

A

ACE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A patient is unable to tolerate their ACE inhibitor (due to cough), what antihypertensive should you consider instead?

A

An angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) e.g. Lorsartan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are some of the causes of ‘secondary dyslipidaemia’?

A

Excess alcohol, uncontrolled diabetes, hypothyroidism, liver disease and nephrotic syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the first-line recommended primary prevention drug treatment for high cholesterol? (Include the dosage in your answer)- note I am asking about DRUG treatment but always remember to give lifestyle advice

A

Atorvastatin 20mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Under what circumstances should a patient be treated with statins?

A

If their estimated 10 year CVD risk (QRISK) is >10% (and lifestyle modification is ineffective or inappropriate). Note this should include people with type 2 diabetes.
People with type 1 diabetes
To people with CKD (without the need for a formal risk assessment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

You’ve just started a patient on a statin, what blood tests should you do next and when?

A

Full lipid profile (and LFTs) should be repeated after 3 months (aiming for 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol). If not achieved, discuss medication adherence, lifestyle factors and consider increasing statin dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When should you do LFTs after a patient has been started on a statin?

A

Statins can affect liver function; NICE advise checking LFTs before and at 3 and 12 months after starting Tx. Stop the statin if transaminases are >3 times normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What side effects (other than liver function) are associated with statins?

A

GI disturbance/ upset, myopathy/myalgia and statins can increase the risk of diabetes (but this risk is offset by the benefits)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What should you do if a patient develops GI upset whilst on statin treatment?

A

Confirm that the statin is the cause by stopping it and restarting it once the symptoms have resolved to see if the problems recur. If the statin is felt to be the cause then consider a lower dose or a milder statin (e.g. simvastatin) instead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Statins can cause myopathy, tell me about the guidance surrounding checking CK levels

A

CK should be checked before starting statins in patients with myalgia, and should also be checked if muscle pain develops once a statin has been started. If the CK is >5 times normal, stop the statin. Do not routinely measure CK levels in asymptomatic people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the advice surrounding the amount of physical exercise that people should do?

A

At least 150 minutes of moderate intensity aerobic activity OR >75 minutes of vigorous intensity aerobic activity every week. Muscle strengthening activities on at least 2 days a week that work all major muscle groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What medications should be considered as secondary prevention following an MI? (Note: pharmacotherapy should be indefinite)

A 
ACE inhibitors
Low dose (75mg) aspirin.
A 2nd antiplatelet e.g. clopidogrel or ticagrelor can be used in combination with aspirin (DAPT) for up to 12 months post-MI. 
Beta blockers 
Statins
63
Q

What type and dose of statin is used for secondary prevention of CVD e.g. following an MI?

A

Atorvastatin 80mg

64
Q

What else should you remember in patients following an MI? (Other than secondary prevention drugs)

A

Annual flu vaccine and one-off pneumococcal vaccine (as at higher risk of complications from flu). DVLA: no driving for at least 4 weeks post-MI (6 weeks for bus or lorry drivers) and inform DVLA. Risk of depression- prescribe an SSRI if necessary (sertraline)

65
Q

What factors can precipitate migraines?

A

Stress, fatigue, certain foods (chocolate, cheese), hormones (puberty, menopause, menstruation and COCP), other factors (strong light, high altitude, head injury)

66
Q

What 2 main types of migraine are there?

A

Migraine with aura (classical migraine)

Migraine without aura (common migraine)

67
Q

Tell me about migraine with aura (classical migraine) and its 2 stages.

A

Prodromal (aura): transient neurological symptoms develop over ~5 minutes and last up to 1 hour. Can be visual, transient aphasia, tingling/numbness or weakness.
Headache: either starts before the end of the aura or within 1 hour of the aura finishing. Lasts several hrs (sometimes more than a day). Often unilateral and often begins in one spot -> generalised. Ass with nausea/vomiting and photophobia.

68
Q

Tell me about migraine without aura (common migraine)

A

The commonest form = recurrent headache associated with N&V. Typically unilateral pulsating headache which is aggravated by physical activity. Can be difficult to differentiate from tension headache. Prodromal symptoms often vague

69
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for a migraine?

A

Tension headache, cluster headache, sinus headache, medication overuse headache, temporal arteritis (GCA), TIA, meningitis, SAH, brain tumour

70
Q

What are some headache red flags?

A

Onset age >50. Worst headache patient has ever had/ very rapid onset (SAH). History of cancer (esp. lung/breast). Headache that gets progressively worse over days (tumour/abscess). Wakes patient at night (tumour). Early morning vomiting (raised ICP). Unilateral loss of power (stroke/TIA). Seizure (tumour). Weight loss (tumour/ cerebral TB). Altered consciousness (meningitis). Fever (meningitis).

71
Q

What should you do if you find a patient has papilloedema?

A

Emergency admission to hospital

72
Q

Outline the general management of migraines

A

Reassure patient, avoid precipitating dietary factors, try different brand of COCP or switch to POP (COCP is CI in classical migraine with aura), simple analgesia e.g. soluble aspirin 900mg or NSAIDs (caution as overuse can lead to analgesic-rebound headache), antiemetics (prochlorperazine or metoclopramide), triptans

73
Q

What is the general mechanism of action of triptans for migraine?

A

They are 5-HT1 receptor agonists

74
Q

How quickly do triptans work in the treatment of migraine attacks?

A

Oral triptans start working within 1 hour; nasal and s/c forms have more rapid onset

75
Q

In which group of patients are triptans contraindicated?

A

Patients with angina or those with high risk of IHD

76
Q

Can you purchase triptan medications over the counter?

A

Yes, sumatriptan (which was the first triptan to come onto the market) is available OTC without a prescription as a 50mg tablet

77
Q

At what point should you consider prescribing migraine prophylaxis for a patient?

A

Consider prophylaxis if >2 attacks per month or if the attacks are particularly severe/prolonged

78
Q

What is the first-line treatment for migraine prophylaxis?

A

Propranolol (providing there are no CIs e.g. asthma or peripheral vascular disease)

79
Q

What drug is 2nd line in the prophylaxis of migraines? And what SEs or cautions are there with its use?

A

Topiramate (an anti-epilepsy drug)
SEs: paraesthesia, impaired concentration and sleep, weight loss
Affects efficacy of contraceptive pills

80
Q

In terms of length of illness time for URTI, how long does it take for 90% of people to recover from the following illnesses? Acute sore throat/pharyngitis/tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, acute cough/bronchitis.

A

Acute sore throat/pharyngitis/tonsillitis = 1 week
Common cold = 1.5 weeks
Acute rhinosinusitis = 2.5 weeks
Acute cough/ bronchitis = 3 weeks

81
Q

How can you further categorise the symptom of a sore throat?

A

Tonsillitis

Acute pharyngitis- inflammation of the part of the throat behind the soft palate

82
Q

What are the infectious causes for a sore throat?

A 
Common cold viruses e.g. rhinovirus- 25%
Bacteria- most commonly GABHS (group A beta-haemolytic strep)
Influenza
Herpes simplex (HSV-1) 
EBV (peak incidence 15-25 year olds)
83
Q

What investigation(s) can you do if you suspect EBV?

A

Monospot blood test plus FBC and LFTs

84
Q

What is the management of a patient presenting with an acute sore throat?

A

Reassure that most sore throats are self-limiting and resolve within 7 days without antibiotic treatment. Antibiotics should not be prescribed routinely (refer to Centor criteria / FeverPAIN criteria to help make decisions about Abx)

85
Q

NICE advises using one of two criteria to aid diagnosis of GABHS as the cause of a sore throat, and hence guide when it might be appropriate to use Abx- these are Centor and FeverPAIN criteria. Outline the Centor Criteria.

A 
Tonsillitis exudate
Tender anterior cervical lymph nodes 
Absence of cough
History of fever
Presence of 3 or 4 of these signs suggest the chance of having GABHS is between 40-60% so the patient may benefit from Abx Tx.
86
Q

Outline the FeverPAIN criteria

A 
Fever
Pus (exudate)
Attends rapidly (<3 days) 
Inflamed tonsils 
No cough/ coryza 
Each factor scores 1. If score = 0 or 1- no Abx. If score = 2 or 3- delayed antibiotic prescription. If score = 4 or 5 - immediate antibiotics
87
Q

What should you do if a patient who is taking a DMARD drug or carbimazole or is on chemotherapy presents with a sore throat?

A

Arrange an urgent FBC and seek specialist advice- this is due to the risk of neutropenia and agranulocytosis

88
Q

At what point should you consider a non-urgent referral to ENT for tonsillectomy?

A

If 7 or more episodes in 1 year disrupting normal activities (or if 5 or more episodes in 2 years)

89
Q

What is the classic triad of Glandular fever? And what age group is more commonly symptomatic?

A

Classic triad of: fever, acute pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy.
More commonly symptomatic in adolescence/ early adulthood
Tiredness and headache are also common and the fatigue can sometimes persist for 1-2 months

90
Q

What is the management of glandular fever (infectious mononucleosis) and what specific advise should you give people?

A

It is usually self-limiting with no specific Tx required. Supportive care with adequate hydration and analgesics. Up to 50% of people develop splenomegaly and should be advised to avoid contact sports until resolved.

91
Q

What antibiotic should you avoid prescribing if someone could have a diagnosis of glandular fever and why?

A

Amoxicillin because it can cause a RASH in people with glandular fever

92
Q

Name 3 complications of influenza

A

Otitis media, bronchitis and pneumonia (less commonly)

93
Q

Outline the treatment of influenza

A

Rest. Regular paracetamol (+/- ibuprofen if not CI). Fluids. Keep away from others as much as possible.
Anti-viral medication (neuraminidase inhibitors) only given during an epidemic when certain requirements met or during a pandemic: Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) or Zanamivir (Relenza)

94
Q

What is the route and dose of Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and Zanamivir (Relenza) - remember that these are neuraminidase inhibitors (anti-viral medications) for influenza that are only given under certain circumstances.

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu): tablet 75mg BD for 5 days (CI in pregnancy)
Zanamivir (Relenza): inhaled 5mg BD for 5 days

95
Q

What groups of people is the influenza vaccine given to?

A

Everyone >65 years. People who live in e.g. nursing homes. Front line health professionals. Those <65 years with certain chronic conditions e.g. diabetes, chronic lung disease, heart disease, kidney disease, liver disease, neurological disease and those who are immunocompromised, pregnant women and carers

96
Q

What is the risk of examining the throat of e.g. a young unvaccinated child with stridor (i.e. suspected epiglottitis) ?

A

It may provoke acute airway obstruction

97
Q

If you offer a delayed antibiotic prescription for a patient with an acute sore throat what should you tell them? And what is the safety net advice you should tell all patients?

A

If delayed prescription say: antibiotic is not needed immediately, use the prescription if no improvement in 3-5 days or if symptoms worsen.
Safety net: seek medical help if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly or the person becomes very unwell. If no Abx prescription is given then tell them to seek help if symptoms do not start to improve after 1 week

98
Q

If you were to prescribe an antibiotic for acute otitis media (AOM) which antibiotic is given first line? (Remember however that antibiotic prescription is not routinely recommended for AOM).

A

Amoxicillin (for 5 days) (check not pen allergic - if allergic would give clarithromycin/ erythromycin)

99
Q

For AOM, what patients does NICE recommend giving immediate antibiotics to?

A

Under 3 months of age. Systemically very unwell. If at high risk of serious complications due to other health problems. Under 2 years of age with bilateral symptoms. If perforation/ otorrhoea.

100
Q

What organisms cause acute otitis media (AOM)? (Hint: name 3)

A

Strep pneumonia, Haemophilus Influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis

101
Q

If you see petechiae on the soft palate (although uncommon) what does this tend to indicate in terms of the cause of an acute sore throat?

A

It’s a highly specific finding in strep pharyngitis

102
Q

How many URTIs does the average adult and child get each year?

A

The average adult has 4-6 URTIs per year and the average child has 6-8.

103
Q

What are 3 key general things that you need to be able to differentiate between when a patient presents with back pain?

A
  1. Non-specific lower back pain
  2. Nerve root pain/ sciatica- low back and buttock pain radiating down one leg +/- pins and needles or tingling. Usually due to a disc problem.
  3. Possible serious spinal pathology
104
Q

What are the red flags for back pain?

A 
Presentation under age 20 or onset over age 50
Non-mechanical pain including night pain
Thoracic pain 
PMHx- cancer, steroids, HIV, immunosuppression, TB
Unwell- weight loss, night sweats, fever
Trauma
Structural deformity 
Severe progressive neurological signs 
Symptoms of cauda equina
105
Q

What are the symptoms of cauda equina?

A

Urinary/bladder symptoms, saddle anaesthesia/ paraesthesia, reduced anal sphincter tone

106
Q

What are the yellow flags for back pain (that predict poor outcomes)?

A

A belief that back pain is harmful or potentially severely disabling
Fear-avoidance behaviour and reduced activity levels
Tendency to low mood and social withdrawal
Expectation of passive treatment(s) rather than a belief that active participation will help

107
Q

For what reasons should you consider both 1). Emergency referral to secondary care, and 2). Urgent referral to secondary care.

A

1) . Consider emergency referral to secondary care if suspecting: cauda equina syndrome, infection or fracture, spinal malignancy.
2) . Consider urgent referral to secondary care if suspecting: ankylosing spondylitis (to rheumatology) or disc prolapse

108
Q

What are the two commonest causes of dysuria in women?

A

UTI and chlamydia

109
Q

What other symptoms/ things should you ask about in a woman presenting with dysuria?

A

Urinary frequency, any blood in urine?, fever, abdominal pain (suprapubic consistent with simple UTI, loin/groin consistent with pyelonephritis, iliac fossa consistent with PID), nausea, sexual history, contraception, any possibility of pregnancy? Dyspareunia? IMB or PCB? Vaginal discharge?

110
Q

What are 3 common organisms that cause UTI?

A

E.coli (the commonest), Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Proteus mirabilis

111
Q

With chlamydia infection what term is used to describe the urine sample?

A

Sterile pyuria (this is the presence of leukocytes in the urine in the absence of demonstrable UTI (culture wise))

112
Q

How is chlamydia tested for in both men and women?

A

Women: typically a low vaginal swab for NAAT
Men: typically first catch urine sample for NAAT

113
Q

What is the treatment for an uncomplicated UTI in adults?

And what do you need to be aware of if prescribing one of these antibiotics in the elderly

A

Empirical Rx with 3 day course of Trimethoprim 200mg BD or Nitrofurantoin 50mg QDS. 7 day course in men.
Avoid nitrofurantoin if eGFR <45

114
Q

What is the Rx of UTI in pregnancy (first and third trimester)

A

7 days of treatment.
First trimester- give nitroFurantoin (NB avoid in the third trimester)
Third trimester- give trimeThoprim

115
Q

In terms of haematuria, when should you refer patients?

A

If the patient has painless macroscopic haematuria at any age.
If the patient is over 50 with unexplained microscopic haematuria

116
Q

What two screening questions can you use for depression?

A
  1. During the last month, have you been bothered by feeling down, depressed or hopeless?
  2. During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
117
Q

What are the 3 core symptoms of depression?

A

Low mood
Low energy
Anhedonia

118
Q

In order to diagnose someone with depression how long must the symptoms have lasted?

A

Symptoms must be present everyday, or nearly everyday without significant changes throughout the day for MORE THAN 2 WEEKS.

119
Q

Other than the 3 core symptoms of depression, what else should you ask the patient about? (Hint: these can be used to grade severity)

A

Disturbed sleep, change in appetite, poor concentration, low self-esteem/ confidence, suicidal thoughts/plans, feelings of guilt, change in psychomotor activity

120
Q

What tool can be used to diagnose the severity of depression e.g. in primary care - it is a self-completed questionnaire.

A

PHQ-9

121
Q

Outline management of mild depression

A

Low intensity psychological interventions focused on sleep hygiene, anxiety management (mindfulness) and problem solving techniques. E.g. individual guided self help, computerised CBT and structured group-based physical activity programmes. Unless symptoms persist beyond 8 weeks or previous Hx of depression, antidepressants should not routinely be used

122
Q

Outline the management of moderate depression

A

Combination of an antidepressant and high intensity psychological intervention (8-12 sessions of CBT or interpersonal therapy)

123
Q

When should you review a patient after starting them on an antidepressant?

A

Within 2 weeks (or within 1 week if patient <30 years old or has an increased risk of suicide).

124
Q

How long should a patient continue an antidepressant for?

A

For at least 6 months after the patient is feeling better (important to tell the patient not to stop suddenly)

125
Q

How long do antidepressants take to work?

A

Would usually expect to see a response by ~4 weeks, so this is when you could consider increasing the dose/ switching antidepressant if there has been little improvement

126
Q

What side effects should you warn the patient of when you start them on an SSRI antidepressant?

A

Increased anxiety in the first two weeks or so, headaches, GI symptoms (nausea), sexual dysfunction, GI bleeds and hyponatraemia (in the elderly)

127
Q

Which SSRI may cause prolonged QT?

A

Citalopram (and escitalopram)

128
Q

What tool can be used to assess alcohol use in primary care? (It is a screening questionnaire designed to pick up early signs of harmful drinking)

A

AUDIT

129
Q

Classically, the chest pain experienced in pericarditis is relieved by..?

A

Leaning/ sitting forwards

130
Q

What is the overall most important modifiable risk factor for the development of cancers?

A

Smoking

131
Q

Which 4 common cancers is obesity a risk factor for?

A

Breast, bowel, endometrium and oesophagus

132
Q

Outline the guidance for GP referral to genetics clinics for breast/ovarian cancer.

A

Refer if woman has 2 or more first degree or second degree relatives with breast cancer.
Refer if just 1 first or second degree relative has breast cancer if the woman is Jewish, or has a family history of ovarian or male breast cancer

133
Q

In the UK screening programmes exist for 3 cancers- which ones?

A

Breast, bowel and cervix

134
Q

Outline the screening offered for breast cancer

A

Offered to women aged 50-70 (or 47-73 as part of a trial in some areas) every 3 years.

135
Q

Outline the screening offered for bowel cancer

A 
FOB testing (or FIT) every 2 years to men and women aged 60-74
If positive result from FOB/FIT testing then offered colonoscopy. 
In England, all adults offered a one off flexible sigmoidoscopy when they reach the age of 55.
136
Q

Why is FIT testing replacing FOB testing for bowel cancer screening?

A

It is more sensitive and is more patient friendly; the patient is given a brush that is attached to the lid of a pot

137
Q

Outline the screening offered for cervical cancer

A

Offered to all women- every 3 years from age 25-49, then every 5 years from age 50-64.

138
Q

How is cervical screening conducted/ carried out?

A

Sample is tested for HPV first- if HPV negative, cytology is not done and the patient is returned to routine recall. If HPV positive, then cytological analysis is done. If cytology is abnormal, the patient is referred for colposcopy. If cytology is normal, the patient is invited to have another smear 1 year later.

139
Q

What is the NICE guidance about referral for suspected breast cancer?

A

Refer via 2 week wait:
Women >30 with unexplained breast lump +/- pain.
Women >50 with unilateral nipple symptoms (such as discharge or retraction).
Consider referral via 2 week wait:
Women with skin changes that suggest cancer
Women >30 with unexplained lump in axilla
Consider non-urgent referral in people aged <30 with an unexplained breast lump +/- pain.

140
Q

What symptoms should prompt examination of the prostate gland and consideration for checking PSA levels?

A

Symptoms of an enlarged prostate: nocturia, frequency, poor stream, hesitancy, terminal dribbling
Symptoms of local spread: erectile dysfunction, visible haematuria
Symptoms of metastases: lower back pain, bone pain, weight loss

141
Q

What is important to remember about PSA screening and considerations regarding PSA testing?

A

PSA SCREENING not currently recommended in the UK.
Must exclude urinary infection before PSA testing.
Postpone PSA test for at least 1 month after Tx of a proven UTI, 1 week after DRE and 3 days after ejaculation.

142
Q

When should you refer men under a 2ww for suspected prostate cancer?

A

If their prostate feels malignant on DRE or if PSA levels are above the age-specific reference range

143
Q

Which of the following symptoms is associated with the largest risk of having colorectal cancer? : Constipation, Diarrhoea, Weight loss, Abdominal pain, Rectal bleeding or Anaemia?

A

Anaemia- risk of up to 13%

144
Q

When should you refer under the 2ww for suspected colorectal cancer?

A

Any patient with an unexplained anal mass or ulceration
Age >40 with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain
Age >50 with unexplained rectal bleeding
Age >60 with iron deficiency anaemia / change in bowel habit
Any age if FOB/FIT positive

145
Q

Under what circumstances is a FIT test recommended?

A

Age 50 or over and have abdominal pain OR weight loss
Age under 60 and have a change in bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia
Age 60 or over and are anaemia (even if not iron deficient)

146
Q

What symptom carries the highest risk of being lung cancer?

A

Haemoptysis

147
Q

When you should refer under the 2ww for suspected lung cancer?

A

Refer for appt within 2 weeks if they: have CXR findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged >40 with unexplained haemoptysis.
Investigate with an urgent CXR (performed within 2 weeks) in people aged >40 if they have 2 or more of the following unexplained symptoms or if they have ever smoked and have 1 or more of the following unexplained symptoms: cough, fatigue, SOB, chest pain, weight loss, appetite loss.

148
Q

So from a cancer point of view, under NICE guidelines, what investigation would be important to order if e.g. an ex-smoker presented with chest pain

A

A CXR- consider lung cancer as a diagnosis

149
Q

If you suspect lung cancer in a patient and the CXR comes back as normal, does this rule out lung cancer as a cause of their symptoms?

A

No as CXRs may be negative even when the patient has cancer. If the CXR is normal and we still suspect lung cancer, we should request a CT scan or refer the patient for a bronchoscopy.

150
Q

Does a normal CT chest rule out lung cancer?

A

Yes

151
Q

What are the features of a headache and other associated symptoms that would increase the risk of it being a brain tumour?

A

Headache wakes them up, headache progressively worsening over days, vomiting, seizures, progressive numbness/ weakness, personality change, weight loss

152
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus and what types of condition is it associated with?

A

It is the exaggerated fall in systolic BP during inspiration. If the difference in systolic BP between expiration and inspiration is >10mmHg this may be an important diagnostic finding. Causes are conditions that seriously constraint the hearts action e.g. cardiac tamponade and constrictive pericarditis

153
Q

What is important to note about drug screening that is done by urine testing?

A

It does not give information about the QUANTITIES of drugs being used

154
Q

What is alcohol dependency characterised by?

A

Craving, tolerance and a preoccupation with drinking and continued drinking in spite of harmful consequences.

Year 4 Medicine (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions