Perioperative And Critical Care Flashcards

1
Q

What is suxamethonium apnoea (and what is it also sometimes called)?

A

Sometimes called pseudocholinesterase deficiency - a rare abnormality in the production of plasma cholinesterases = increased duration of action of muscle relaxants such as suxamethonium. Respiratory arrest is inevitable unless the patient can be mechanically ventilated safely while waiting for the circulating muscle relaxants to degrade. Establish any family history of this

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2
Q

Rapid sequence induction (RSI) can be used e.g. when a patient has not fasted/ there is a risk of aspiration, what muscle relaxant is appropriate to use for RSI?

A

Suxamethonium - a depolarising muscle relaxant. It has the fastest onset and shortest duration of action of all muscle relaxants.

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3
Q

What adverse things/ cautions are there to consider when using suxamethonium?

A

Can cause hyperkalaemia (avoid in burns/trauma patients), malignant hyperthermia, suxamethonium apnoea, and is CI for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma as suxa increases intra-ocular pressure.

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4
Q

What does a 2% strength liquid medication e.g. 2% lidocaine mean?

A

It means that 2g of the drug are dissolved in 100ml

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5
Q

What is used to treat local anaesthetic toxicity?

A

IV 20% lipid emulsion

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6
Q

What local anaesthetic is the agent of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia e.g. Biers block?

A

Prilocaine (it is far less cardiotoxic than other agents)

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7
Q

What drug can be given with local anaesthetics so that higher doses of LA can be used?

A

Adrenaline (because it limits the systemic absorption via its vasoconstrictive action)

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8
Q

What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

A

IV dantrolene

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9
Q

What is the advice regarding eating and drinking before an operation?

A

No food for 6 hours and no clear fluids for 2 hours before an operation

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10
Q

Briefly, what are the ASA grades?

A

ASA I - a normal healthy patient (non-smoking, minimal alcohol)
ASA II - mild diseases only without substantive functional limitations: current smoker, pregnancy, obesity, well-controlled diabetes or hypertension, mild lung disease
ASA III - a patient with severe systemic disease (substantive functional limitations)
ASA IV - a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life e.g. recent (<3 months) MI, CVA, ongoing cardiac ischaemia or severe valve dysfunction, sepsis, DIC
ASA V- a moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
ASA VI- a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

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11
Q

When should patients be advised to stop taking the oral contraceptive pill prior to major surgery?

A

4 weeks prior to surgery the OCP should be stopped

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12
Q

What VTE prophylaxis regimen (i.e. LMWH) should be initiated after the following procedures: elective hip replacement, elective knee replacement, hip fracture surgery.

A

For elective hip replacement- 28 days of LMWH, for elective knee replacement - 14 days of LMWH and for hip fracture surgery LMWH until the patient no longer has significantly reduced mobility.

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13
Q

When is intraosseous access used and what site is most common for this?

A

Can be used in both adults and children and is indicated when vascular access is difficult to obtain in an emergency setting. In general, in a paediatric case it is suggested to try intraosseous access after 2 failed attempts at a peripheral IV line. The most common site is the proximal tibia, however the distal femur and humeral head can also be used

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14
Q

What drug reverses the action of benzodiazepines?

A

Flumazenil

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15
Q

What may excessive administration of sodium chloride (saline fluid) cause?

A

Hyperchloraemic acidosis

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16
Q

What is the anaesthetic triad?

A

Muscle relaxation, hypnosis and analgesia

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17
Q

When should clopidogrel be stopped before surgery?

A

5-7 days before the surgery

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18
Q

When does sign in, time out and sign out occur in theatre?

A

Sign in i.e. before the start of anaesthesia
Time out i.e. before the start of surgery
Sign out i.e. at the end of surgery

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19
Q

Which anaesthetic agent has inherent anti-emetic properties?

A

Propofol

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20
Q

What is the Mallampati score?

A

A method of predicting the difficulty of intubation. Ask the patient to open their mouth.

  1. Soft palate, entire uvula, palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches
  2. Soft palate, most of uvula but not tip, palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches
  3. Soft palate, base of uvula
  4. Hard palate only
21
Q

Why is the volatile agent halothane no longer used in the UK?

A

Due to the rare but serious complication of postoperative hepatitis (hepatotoxicity)

22
Q

What is the agent of choice for inhalation induction of GA?

A

Sevoflurane

23
Q

In what circumstances is Desflurane chosen for inhalation induction of general anaesthesia and why?

A

Chosen for surgery in the morbidly obese. It has a low absorption into fat, so it provides for the quickest recovery post-surgery

24
Q

What is the management of an anastomotic leak?

A

It is a surgical emergency so patients must be taken back to theatre as soon as possible

25
Q

What is one complication of poor postoperative pain management?

A

Pneumonia

26
Q

Are depolarising muscle relaxants e.g. suxamethonium reversible?

A

They are non-reversible due to their mechanism of non-competitive agonism

27
Q

Why might a patient be seen ‘twitching’ then be paralysed after being given suxamethonium?

A

Depolarising muscle relaxants like suxamethonium can cause fasciculations

28
Q

How should TPN be administered?

A

Via a central vein as it is strongly phlebitic

29
Q

Tell me about ileus

A

It can occur in the few days following surgery and can cause hypovolaemia and electrolyte disturbances BEFORE nausea and vomiting becomes apparent

30
Q

What are the considerations for patients taking steroids e.g. prednisolone prior to surgery?

A

Need ‘steroid cover’ due to the adrenal insufficiency associated with corticosteroids at a dose of more than 5mg prednisolone daily. Because of the steroid use they may fail to increase their cortisol production during stress (such as surgery) which can be fatal. So hydrocortisone supplementation is required prior to surgery in these patients.

31
Q

Where is intraosseous access most commonly obtained?

A

The proximal tibia

32
Q

Which two non-depolarising neuromuscular blockers does sugammadex reverse?

A

Rocuronium and vecuronium

33
Q

What drug is used to reverse non-depolarising neuromuscular blockers?

A

Neostigmine

34
Q

What factors would make intubation more difficult?

A

Obese, short neck, limited neck movement, receding chin/ mandible, protruding teeth, limited mouth opening.

35
Q

What are the 2 main ventilator modes?

A

Pressure controlled and volume controlled

36
Q

What does PEEP stand for? And tell me a little about it.

A

PEEP = positive end-expiratory pressure. It allows a pressure to be exerted at the end of expiration which helps to keep the alveoli open. This increases the surface area available for gas exchange, thereby reducing the amount of ‘shunt’ (areas of lung which are perfused but not ventilated). Typical PEEP value ~5cmH2O.

37
Q

What is the equation for lung compliance?

A

Lung compliance = change in volume / change in pressure

38
Q

When you reverse non-depolarising neuromuscular blockers with neostigmine, what drug should you also give and why?

A

An anticholinergic to prevent muscarinic side effects (of the neostigmine) such as bradycardia and salivation e.g. atropine or glycopyrronium

39
Q

Use of what types of anaesthetic agents reduces the risk of PONV?

A

TIVA (total IV anaesthesia) with propofol

40
Q

What is the first line antiemetic to be used in PONV?

A

A 5HT3 antagonist e.g. ondansetron - this is because they are effective, have minimal side effects, can be given IV and have a rapid onset of action

41
Q

Prep for a colonoscopy entails what?

A

Laxatives the day before the colonoscopy and patients are required not to eat for 24 hours before the scope

42
Q

What is the maximum dose of lidocaine in a healthy adult?

A

3mg/kg

43
Q

What are some of the symptoms of LA toxicity?

A

Lightheadedness, tinnitus, numbness/ tingling around the mouth or numb tongue, metallic tase in mouth and in more severe cases hypotension, bradycardia and even cardiac arrest.

44
Q

What antiemetic can be used for prophylaxis of PONV?

A

Dexamethasone (a corticosteroid). Used prophylactically as it has a long half-life and a slow onset of action

45
Q

When a spinal anaesthetic is used, what space is the anaesthetic injected into?

A

The subarachnoid space

46
Q

At what vertebral level does the spinal cord end?

A

L1-L2

47
Q

Why might patients become hypotensive with spinal and epidural anaesthetics?

A

Causes a sympathetic block (alongside sensory and motor) which leads to vasodilation which reduces BP

48
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to ALL neuraxial anaesthesia?

A

Anticoagulant states, local sepsis (risk of introducing infection to CSF), shock or hypovolaemic states, raised ICP (risk of coning), fixed output states (e.g. mitral and aortic stenosis)

49
Q

What is the most common clinical sign observed in patients who are developing an anaphylactic reaction?

A

Hypotension