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Preventive Medicine > Preventive Medicine > Flashcards

Preventive Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

RA that promulgates the inclusion of public health and preventive medicine in medical education and licensure examination

A

RA 2382 The Medical Act of 1959

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2
Q

Philippine land area

A

300,000 sq.km.

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3
Q

Philippine population in 2010

A

92.3 million (100M)

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4
Q

Major source of funds in private hospitals in the Philippines

A

Philhealth

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5
Q

Major source of funds in public health facilities in the Philippines

A

Salary/income

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6
Q

Top 10 causes of mortality in the Philippines as of 2009

A

1) DISEASES OF THE HEART 2) Cerebrovascular diseases 3) Malignant neoplasm 4) Pneumonia 5) Tb 6) COPD 7) DM 8) Nephritis/nephrotic syndrome 9) Assault 10) Perinatal conditions

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7
Q

Top 10 causes of morbidity in the Philippines as of 2010

A

1) Acute RTI 2) ALRTI and pneumonia 3) Bronchitis/bronchiolitis 4) Htn 5) Acute watery diarrhea 6) Influenza 7) UTI 8) TB 9) Accidents 10) Injuries

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8
Q

T/F MCC of deaths in among Filipinos is non-infectious in nature

A

T, CV disease is MCC

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9
Q

MC cause of death that has a male preponderance among Filipinos

A

Acute pancreatitis

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10
Q

IDA is most prevalent in what population in the Philippines

A

6 mos-1 year (2nd: pregnant women, 3rd: lactating women)

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11
Q

Vitamin A deficiency is most prevalent in what population in the Philippines

A

6 mos-5 years

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12
Q

MCC of maternal mortality in the Philippines

A

Complications related to pregnancy occurring in the course of labor, delivery, and puerperium (except hemorrhage)

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13
Q

Age group with the highest % of obesity in the Philippines

A

40-59 y/o

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14
Q

Cancer with the highest mortality rate in the Philippines

A

Lung, trachea, bronchus (2nd: breast, 3rd: colon)

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15
Q

MC prohibited drug/substance of abuse in the Philippines

A

Shabu/methamphetamine HCl (2nd: Marijuana/cannabis sativa)

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16
Q

MCC of accidents and injuries in the Philippines

A

Assaults

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17
Q

The product of the interaction of the population, the health sector and the health-related socio-economic factors

A

Health status

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18
Q

Initial step in health system planning

A

Situational analysis/diagnosis

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19
Q

Describe the population pyramid of the Philippines

A

Expansive

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20
Q

Increase in life expectancy is mainly due to

A

Decrease in mortality in the younger age group

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21
Q

When was the PHC adopted in the Philippines

A

1979

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22
Q

Primary health care should be aimed at self-reliance and self-determination; health for all

A

DECLARATION OF ALMA ATA - PHC

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23
Q

PHC model referred to as the “health TO people”

A

Hospital- or clinic-based model

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24
Q

PHC model referred to as the “health FOR people”

A

Community-oriented PHC model

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25
Q

PHC model described to be democratic, signifying “health WITH the people”

A

Community-based PHC model

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26
Q

PHC model that denotes “health BY the people”

A

Community-managed PHC model

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27
Q

First point of contact in a primary health care system

A

Barangay health worker/community health workers

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28
Q

National health insurance law, RA

A

RA7875

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29
Q

Goal of primary health care: A service is easily available to users in terms of time, distance and ethos

A

Accessibility

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30
Q

Goal of primary health care: Services satisfy the reasonable expectations of users

A

ACCEPTABILITY

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31
Q

Services adapt to the expressed needs of users

A

Responsiveness

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32
Q

Service that which the users require

A

Appropriatenes

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33
Q

Users have equal access and benefit from services

A

EQUITY

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34
Q

Services achieve their intended objectives

A

EFFECTIVENESS

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35
Q

Services achieve maximum benefit for stated costs

A

EFFICIENCY

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36
Q

The act by which the national government confers power and authority upon the various local government units to perform specific functions and responsibilities

A

Devolution

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37
Q

Lead agency in the public health care system

A

DOH

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38
Q

A group of tasks designed either to determine the risk of subsequent disease or to identify disease in its early symptomless state

A

Periodic health examination (PHE)

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39
Q

Critical Components of the PHE

A

Counseling for the prevention of disease and maintenance of health Screening and health protection packages Immunizations Prophylaxis

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40
Q

Who will test positive among the persons with disease

A

Sensitivity (a/a+c)

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41
Q

Who will test negative among the persons without the disease

A

Specificity (d/b+d)

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42
Q

Probability of a positive test in people with disease

A

Sensitivity

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43
Q

Probability of a negative test in people without disease

A

Specificity

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44
Q

Probability of the person having the disease when the test is positive

A

PPV (True positive!; a/a+b)

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45
Q

Probability of the person not having the disease when the test is negative

A

NPV (True negative!; d/c+d)

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46
Q

Prevalence

A

a+c/a+b+c+d

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47
Q

False negative rate

A

1-Sn

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48
Q

Total number of cases in a population at a given time

A

Prevalence

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49
Q

Number of new cases in a population per unit time

A

Incidence

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50
Q

Characteristic of a testing modality which measures its capacity of ruling in a disease

A

Specificity (SPIN)

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51
Q

Characteristic of a testing modality which measures its capacity of ruling out a disease

A

Sensitivity (SNOUT)

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52
Q

High sensitivity vs specificity: Screening test

A

Sensitivity

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53
Q

High sensitivity vs specificity: Confirmatory test

A

Specificity

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54
Q

Refers to the proportion of individuals who were sick during a specified period of time

A

Period prevalence

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55
Q

Relationship of prevalence to incidence

A

Directly proportional

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56
Q

Relationship of duration of disease to prevalence

A

Directly proportional

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57
Q

T/F Unlike sensitivity and specificity, predictive values are dependent on the prevalence of disease

A

T, the higher the prevalence of a disease, the higher the PPV of a test

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58
Q

CRITERIA TO BE CONSIDERED IN POPULATION BASED SCREENING FOR DISEASE

A

• Disease should be an important health concern • Natural history of the disease should be known • The disease should be treatable at the stage detected by the screening test with a measurably better outcome than if diagnosis is delayed until symptoms occur

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59
Q

The process of inducing immunity against a specific disease

A

Immunization

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60
Q

Major indications for passive immunization

A

1) Immunodeficient children 2) Imminent risk of exposure where there is not adequate time to develop an active immune response 3) Part of specific therapy for an infectious disease

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61
Q

Immediate goal of active immunization

A

Disease prevention

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62
Q

Ultimate goal of active immunization

A

Disease eradication

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63
Q

Defined as whole or parts of micro- organisms administered to prevent an infectious disease

A

Vaccine

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64
Q

Vaccine: Tend to induce long-term immune responses; replicate/often similar to natural infections

A

Live attenuated vaccines

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65
Q

Vaccine: A lot of times administered as single-dose schedules unless there is failure to induce an initial immune response to first dose (e.g. MMR)

A

Live attenuated vaccines

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66
Q

Vaccine: Require multiple doses to induce an adequate immune response

A

Inactivated vaccines

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67
Q

Mode of administrations of most inactivated vaccines

A

IM

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68
Q

Mode of administrations of most live-attenuated vaccines

A

SC

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69
Q

Mode of administrations of most pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccines

A

SC or IM

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70
Q

PSMID RECOMMENDED vaccines - FOR ALL ADULTS

A

• Tetanus booster every 10 years • Rubella • Varicella • Hepatitis B

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71
Q

Supplements recommended in PHC

A

1) Vitamin A for young children 2) Folic acid for pre- and postnatal care 3) Calcium for all women 4) Iodine

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72
Q

Sangkap Pinoy

A

1) Vitamin A 2) Iron 3) Iodine

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73
Q

Recommended exercise frequency and duration

A

30 minutes daily

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74
Q

Epidemiological measure used in chemoprophylaxis

A

NNT

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75
Q

A discipline that analyzes the supply and demand for health care and provides a structure to understand the choices made therein

A

Health economics

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76
Q

A sub-discipline under health economics that compares the value of one pharmaceutical drug or drug therapy to another

A

Pharmacoeconomics

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77
Q

Usefulness that individuals placed on goods and services (i.e., Ferrari=”speed”, Toyota= “safety”)

A

Utility

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78
Q

Measures how well resources are used in order to achieve a desired output

A

Efficiency

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79
Q

The total resources consumed in producing a good or service

A

Cost

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80
Q

The amount of money required to purchase an item

A

Price

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81
Q

Staff costs, drug acquisition costs, capital costs from the perspective of the health care provider

A

Direct costs

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82
Q

Costs experienced by the patient, patient’s family or society (loss of productivity, loss of earnings, etc), from the perspective of society as a whole

A

Indirect costs

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83
Q

Pain, worry and distress experienced by the patient and family (impossible to measure)

A

Intangible costs

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84
Q

The state recognizes the Filipino family as the foundation of the nation. Accordingly, it shall strengthen its solidarity and actively promote its total development

A

ARTICLE XIII SECTION 2 - 1987 PHILIPPINE CONSTITUTION

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85
Q

MEMBERS of a family ENTER THROUGH

A

1) BIRTH 2) MARRIAGE 3) ADOPTION

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86
Q

Minimum number of members in a family

A

2

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87
Q

The primary social unit

A

Family

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88
Q

The greatest ally of the doctor in the patient’s treatment

A

Family

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89
Q

Therapeutic triad

A

1) Doctor 2) Patient 3) Family

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90
Q

6 essential functions of a family

A

1) Physical maintenance and care 2) Procreation or adoption and relinquishment 3) Socialization of children for adult roles 4) Maintenance of order 5) Maintenance of family morale and motivation for task performance 6) Production and consumption of goods

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91
Q

Parents + dependent children; occupies a SEPARATE DWELLING not shared with families of origin of either spouse; economically independent

A

Nuclear

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92
Q

Parents + children + relatives

A

Extended

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93
Q

Aggregate of families or part of families from 3 or more generations occupying a single or adjacent dwellings

A

Extended

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94
Q

Children less than 17 y/o + single parent + relative or non-relative

A

Single-parent

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95
Q

Step parents + step children

A

Blended

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96
Q

Different families formed for specific ideological or societal purposes

A

Communal/corporate

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97
Q

Alternative lifestyle for people shoe feel alienated from a predominantly economically-oriented society

A

Communal/corporate

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98
Q

Characteristics of a well-functioning family

A

1) Role distinction 2) Individuality and high degree of differentiation 3) Rules clear and reasonable 4) Good communication 5) Authority or power is clearly vested 6) Full range of emotions acceptable, appropriate, and encouraged 7) Conflicts are resolved 8) Tasks or chores shared with a clear understanding of who performs which tasks 9) Individual differences respected 10) High esteem

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99
Q

T/F about Filipino family: Unilaterally extended

A

F, bilaterally

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100
Q

T/F about Filipino family: Authority is based on who provides for the family

A

F, based on seniority

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101
Q

T/F about Filipino family: Externally patriarchal, internally matriarchal

A

T

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102
Q

T/F about Filipino family: Death of father has greater impact

A

F, mother

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103
Q

T/F about Filipino family: High value on education

A

T

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104
Q

T/F about Filipino family: Child-centered

A

T

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105
Q

Average number of children in a Filipino family

A

5

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106
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: Persevering

A

First

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107
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: Optimistic

A

Middle

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108
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: Serious

A

First

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109
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: Sociable

A

Middle

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110
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: More responsive to adults

A

First

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111
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: Aggressive, competitive

A

Middle

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112
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: Achievement-oriented

A

First

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113
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: Occasionally manipulative

A

Middle

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114
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: Demanding

A

Youngest

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115
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: Outgoing

A

Youngest

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116
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: Affectionate

A

Youngest

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117
Q

First vs middle vs youngest: Occasionally narcissistic

A

Youngest

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118
Q

Family set-up that can adjust to stressful situation

A

Democratic

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119
Q

Family set-up that responds poorly to stressful situation

A

Authoritarian

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120
Q

Family set-up: Parents respect their child’s decision and ideas

A

Democratic

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121
Q

Family set-up: Unquestioned obedience

A

Authoritarian

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122
Q

Family set-up:Understanding and permissiveness prevails

A

Democratic

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123
Q

Family set-up: Patterns of punishment than praise

A

Authoritarian

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124
Q

Family set-up: Patients with low self-reliance, suspicious of adults

A

Authoritarian

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125
Q

A time period in the life of a family that has a unique structure

A

Family stage

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126
Q

Composite of individual developmental changes of family members

A

Family life cycle

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127
Q

Shows the evolution of the marital relationship

A

Family life cycle

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128
Q

Stages of family life cycle

A

1) Unattached young adult 2) Newly married couple 3) Family with young children 4) Family with adolescents 5) Launching family 6) Family in later life

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129
Q

Leaving home

A

Unattached young adult

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130
Q

Joining families through marriage

A

Newly married couple

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131
Q

The study of the direct pathological effects of various chemical, physical, and biological agents, as well as the effects on health of the broad physical and social environment, which includes housing, urban development, land-use and transportation, industry, and agriculture

A

Environmental health

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132
Q

Commitment to new system

A

Newly married couple

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133
Q

Accepting emotional and financial responsibility for self

A

Unattached young adult

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134
Q

Realignment of relationships with extended families and friends to include spouse

A

Newly married couple

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135
Q

Accepting new members into the marriage and extended family

A

Family with young children

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136
Q

Increasing flexibilities to include children’s independence and grandparents’ frailties

A

Family with adolescents

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137
Q

Joining in child-rearing, financial and household task

A

Family with young children

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138
Q

Refocus on midlife marital and career issues

A

Family with adolescents

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139
Q

___ is estimated to be directly responsible for approximately 25 percent of all preventable ill health in the world, with diarrheal diseases and respiratory infections heading the list

A

Poor environmental quality

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140
Q

Accepting shifting of generational roles

A

Family in later life

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141
Q

Differentiation of self in relation to family of origin

A

Unattached young adult

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142
Q

Maintaining own function in face of physiologic decline

A

Family in later life

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143
Q

Accepting exits from and entries into the family system

A

Launching family

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144
Q

Support for a more central role of the middle generation

A

Family in later life

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145
Q

Dealing with loss of spouse, siblings, peers, and preparation for own death; life review integration

A

Family in later life

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146
Q

Qualitatively measures family functioning (screening for family dysfunction)

A

Family APGAR (Smilkstein)

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147
Q

Includes 5 questions to assess family function

A

Family APGAR (Smilkstein)

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148
Q

T/F Family APGAR provides adequate reliability and validity to measure the individual’s level of satisfaction about family relationships

A

T

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149
Q

T/F Responses in family APGAR are summated and evaluated based on sum

A

F, NOT SUMMATED

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150
Q

Uses of Applied Family APGAR

A

1) When the family members will be directly involved in PATIENT CARE. 2) When treating a new patient in order to get information to serve as general view of family functions 3) When treating a patient whose family is deemed in crisis. 4) When a patient’s behavior makes you suspect a psycho-social concern secondary to family dysfunction.

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151
Q

APGAR: Capability of the family to utilize and share inherent resources which are either intra-familial or extra-familial

A

Adaptation

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152
Q

APGAR: Sharing of decision-making

A

Partnership

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153
Q

APGAR: Physical and emotional growth

A

Growth

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154
Q

APGAR: Satisfaction with emotional relationships and intimacy within the family

A

Affection

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155
Q

APGAR: How time, space, and money are shared

A

Resolve

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156
Q

APGAR: Measures the satisfaction attained in solving problems by communication

A

Partnership

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157
Q

APGAR: Measures the satisfaction of the available freedom to change

A

Growth

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158
Q

APGAR: Measures the members’ satisfaction with the emotional interaction that exist in the family

A

Affection

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159
Q

APGAR: How emotions like love, anger and hatred are shared between members

A

Affection

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160
Q

APGAR: Measures the members’ satisfaction with the commitment made by other members of the family

A

Resolve

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161
Q

APGAR part I vs part II: Helps define degree of members’ patient satisfaction with family function

A

I

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162
Q

APGAR part I vs part II: Delineates relationship with other members

A

Part II

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163
Q

APGAR part I vs part II: Identifies persons who can provide assistance to the member

A

Part II

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164
Q

APGAR part I vs part II: Identifies conflict not revealed in Part I

A

Part II

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165
Q

APGAR: I am satisfied with the way my family and I share time together

A

Resolve

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166
Q

APGAR: I am satisfied with the way my family expresses affection and responds to my emotion such as anger, sorrow, and love

A

Affection

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167
Q

APGAR: I am satisfied that my family accepts and supports my wishes to take on new activities or directions

A

Growth

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168
Q

APGAR: I am satisfied with the way my family talks on things with me and shares problems with me

A

Partnership

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169
Q

APGAR: I am satisfied that I can turn to my family for help when something is troubling me

A

Adaptation

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170
Q

APGAR score of a severely dysfunctional family

A

0-3

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171
Q

APGAR score of a moderately dysfunctional family

A

7-Apr

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172
Q

APGAR score of a highly functional family

A

10-Aug

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173
Q

Assesses the capacity of the family’s resources and coping with crisis

A

SCREEM

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174
Q

SCREEM

A

Social, cultural, religious, economic, educational, medical (factors affecting health)

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175
Q

Best way to obtain and record information about the family structure

A

Family genogram

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176
Q

Graphic chart representation of the both the genetic pedigree of the family and the key psychosocial and interactional data using standardized symbols

A

Family genogram

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177
Q

Male symbol in genogram

A

Square

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178
Q

Female symbol in genogram

A

Circle

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179
Q

Used on individuals and small groups; Large circle is drawn on a piece of paper and instruction is given by the family physician

A

Family circle by Thrower et al

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180
Q

Facilitates the communication of information about a family system to colleagues

A

FAMILY MAPPING by Salvador Minuchin

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181
Q

____

A

Functional relationship

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182
Q

__/__

A

Dysfunction Over-involved relationship

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183
Q

__l__

A

Rigid boundary (rules are clear but non-negotiable)

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184
Q

_ _ l _ _

A

Boundary that is clear but negotiable

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185
Q

. . . l . . .

A

Boundary that is diffuse or unclear

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186
Q

[ ]

A

Presence of a coalition or alliance between people encompassed

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187
Q

Disease vs. Illness: Primary biologic disorder

A

Disease

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188
Q

Disease vs. Illness: Includes the sufferer’s experience of the disease and the broad range of dislocations felt by the sufferer and his family

A

Illness

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189
Q

Normal course of the psychosocial aspects of an illness situation that allows the family physician to predict responses and anticipate problems

A

Family illness trajectory

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190
Q

Stages in the family illness trajectory

A

I Onset of illness, II Impact phase, III Major therapeutic efforts, IV Recovery phase, V Adjustment to the permanency of the outcome

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191
Q

Family illness trajectory: Stage experienced prior to contact with health care providers

A

1

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192
Q

Family illness trajectory: Immediate decision necessary; may have little or no support

A

1

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193
Q

Family illness trajectory: Reactions of patient and family: initially there is denial, disbelief and anxiety; may be followed by anger and depression

A

2

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194
Q

Family illness trajectory: A struggle to understand the diagnosis and start problem-solving

A

2

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195
Q

Family illness trajectory: Denies legitimacy of complaints; feelings of guilt and resentment; mistrust and hostility towards medical profession

A

1

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196
Q

Family illness trajectory: Issues on non-compliance and shifting of roles

A

3

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197
Q

Family illness trajectory: Issues on improvement in nurturance & closeness; redefinition of self and reorganization of relationships; affected by quality of coping

A

4

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198
Q

Family illness trajectory: Family realizes that they must accept and adjust to a permanent disability

A

5

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199
Q

Task of doctor in Stage 1 of illness trajectory

A

Explore explanation, fear and anxiety on part of patient/family

200
Q

Task of doctor in Stage 2 of illness trajectory

A

Elicit the family’s explanatory models & attempt to explain; Gauge the amount of information the family can take at any given time; Assist in linkages

201
Q

Task of doctor in Stage 3 of illness trajectory

A

Keep costs low; coordinate all aspects of tx; anticipate pathology

202
Q

Task of doctor in Stage 4 of illness trajectory

A

Psychological support through understanding and repeated reassurance

203
Q

Most difficult time in the illness episode

A

Stage 2

204
Q

Spelunkers

A

Histoplasmosis

205
Q

Development of adult-to-adult relationships between growing children and parents

A

Launching family

206
Q

Launching children and moving on

A

Launching family

207
Q

Brake mechanic

A

Hydrogen sulfide

208
Q

Potter

A

Silica dust

209
Q

Sewer worker

A

Hydrogen sulfide

210
Q

Arc welder

A

Carbon monoxide

211
Q

N-naphthylamine (amino naphthalene)

A

Bladder cancer

212
Q

A concept of caring for dying or terminally ill so that he can die in dignity

A

Hospice care

213
Q

Preventive measure for a cook who is hepatitis A (+)

A

Stop cooking

214
Q

Benzene (benzol)

A

Hematopoietic system cancer

215
Q

Nickel

A

Lung cancer

216
Q

Chromium

A

Lung cancer

217
Q

Asbestos

A

Lung cancer and GI cancers

218
Q

Silica

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

219
Q

Aniline dyes

A

Bladder cancer

220
Q

Chromate

A

Lung cancer

221
Q

Miners/construction workers/agricultural workers

A

Trauma

222
Q

The presence of one or more air contaminants in sufficient quantities, of such characteristics, and of such duration as to threaten human, plant, or animal life or to property or which reasonably interferes with the comfortable enjoyment of life or property

A

Air pollution

223
Q

Emission into air of hazardous substances at a rate that exceeds capacity of natural processes in atmosphere to purify itself (assimilative capacity)

A

Air pollution

224
Q

Routes of Exposure to air pollution

A

1) Inhalation 2) Ingestion 3) Skin contact

225
Q

Outdoor air pollution classification

A

1) Criteria pollutants 2) Hazardous pollutants

226
Q

Hazardous pollutants

A

Asbestos

227
Q

Criteria pollutants

A

Sulfur dioxide Nitrogen dioxide Carbon monoxide Ozone Particulate matter

228
Q

Particles filtered by nose and pharynx; cleared is nasal secretions, coughed out or swallowed

A

> 10_m

229
Q

Particles deposited in the tracheo-bronchial tree

A

Less than 10_m

230
Q

Particles deposited in the alveoli

A

1 to 2 _m

231
Q

Dentist

A

Hepatitis

232
Q

Particles carried by diffusion to the alveolar level and impacted on alveolar surfaces

A

Less than 0.5_m

233
Q

Either solid or liquid particle dispersed into the air

A

Aerosol

234
Q

Dispersed solid particle that usually results from the break-up of larger masses of material, as in drilling, crushing, or grinding operations

A

Dust

235
Q

Visible aerosol of a liquid form by condensation

A

Fog

236
Q

Aerosol of solid particle formed by condensation of vaporized material, particularly molten metal, which reacts with air to form an oxide

A

Fume

237
Q

Dispersion of solid particle that may be in the visible range

A

Mist

238
Q

Aerosol that results from incomplete combustion of carbon-containing materials such as wood, coal, tar

A

Smoke

239
Q

Gaseous phase of the material that is ordinarily solid or liquid at room temperature and pressure

A

Vapor

240
Q

This states that a pollutant released indoors is 1000 times more likely to reach the lungs than a pollutant released outdoors

A

RULE OF 1000

241
Q

Air pollutant which is most significant to public health

A

Particulates (PM10, respirable range)

242
Q

Air pollutant that can cause pneumoconiosis in occupational exposures

A

Particulates (PM10, respirable range)

243
Q

Water-soluble irritant gas predominantly acting on the URT and is the source of acid rain

A

Sulfor dioxide

244
Q

Major component of “London fog” phenomenon

A

Sulfur dioxide

245
Q

WHO guideline for 24h exposure to NO

A

150 ug/m3 (0.08 ppm)

246
Q

WHO guideline for 8h exposure to ozone

A

100 ug/m3

247
Q

Produced by incomplete burning of fossil fuel

A

CO

248
Q

Odorless and colorless gas slightly heavier than air that is not cleared easily from the circulatory system due to high affinity to hgb

A

CO

249
Q

Normal amount of CO in blood

A

1%

250
Q

WHO guideline for 8h exposure to CO

A

10 mg/m3 (9 ppm)

251
Q

Relationship between lead blood levels and IQ of exposed children

A

Every 10 ug/dL increase in blood lead levels is associated with 1 - 5 point decrease in IQ of exposed children

252
Q

Air pollution from fireplaces and stoves

A

Respirable particles

253
Q

Air pollution from space heaters, and tobacco smoke

A

CO

254
Q

Air pollution from formaldehyde, cleaning fluids and solvents

A

Volatile organic compounds (VOCs)

255
Q

Air pollution from pesticides and kerosene

A

Semivolatile organic compounds

256
Q

Air pollution that causes a peribronchial inflammatory response involving fibroblasts proliferation and stimulation which eventually leads to fibrosis

A

Asbestos

257
Q

Most useful finding in asbestosis

A

Bilateral pleural thickening

258
Q

Almost a pathognomonic sign of asbestos exposure

A

Diaphragmatic or pericardial calcification

259
Q

Most sensitive imaging method for detecting early asbestosis

A

HRCT

260
Q

Air pollutant ingested by alveolar macrophages which then releases cytokines that recruit and activate T lymphocytes stimulationg fibroblast proliferation and collagen deposition

A

Silicosis

261
Q

Subacute silicosis occurs after how many years of exposure

A

2-5

262
Q

Chronic simple silicosis occurs after how many years of exposure

A

> 10 years

263
Q

Small round opacities in both lungs with predilection to upper lung zones and calcified hilar lymph nodes (“egg shell” pattern)

A

Silicosis

264
Q

Cannot be removed by alveolar macrophages and mucociliary clearance; Are retained in terminal respiratory units where fibroblasts secrete a limiting layer of reticulin around the macule

A

Coal dust

265
Q

The chest radiograph shows small, rounded opacities often seen first in the upper lung zones and in later stages may involve the lower zones

A

COAL WORKER’S PNEUMOCONIOSIS

266
Q

Aimed at political actions that will facilitate the necessary organizational, economic, and other environmental supports for the conversion of individual actions into health enhancements and quality of life-gains

A

Health promotion

267
Q

Agents are typically found in nature, could be changed to increase their ability to cause disease, make them resistant to current medicines, or to increase their ability to be spread into the environment

A

Bioterrorism

268
Q

CHOKING AGENTS (LUNG IRRITANTS)

A

1) Phosgene 2) Chloropicrin

269
Q

BLOOD GASES

A

Hydrogen cyanide

270
Q

VESICANTS (BLISTER GASES)

A

1) Mustard gas 2) Lewisite

271
Q

NERVE GASES

A

1) Tabun 2) Sarin

272
Q

Temp used for thermal treatment of hazardous materials and waste

A

200-1000F

273
Q

Any physical, biological or chemical change in water quality that adversely affects living organisms or makes water unsuitable for desired uses

A

Water pollution

274
Q

Triad/3 spheres of health promotion

A

1) Disease prevention 2) Health education 3) Health protection

275
Q

7 domains of health promotion

A

1) Prevention 2) Lifestyle 3) Preventive policies 4) Policy-maker education 5) Health education 6) Health protection 7) Policy support

276
Q

Includes primary and secondary preventive measures

A

Prevention

277
Q

Includes education efforts to influence lifestyle to prevent health-related problems

A

Lifestyle

278
Q

Includes encouragement to avail of preventive services

A

Lifestyle

279
Q

Includes fluoridation of public water supplies and inspections of restaurants

A

Preventive policies

280
Q

Includes lobbying by safety-conscious groups to encourage mandated use of automobile seat belts

A

Policy-maker education

281
Q

8-hour noise level

A

90 dB

282
Q

Includes efforts to stimulate a social environment that demands or accepts preventive health protection measures

A

Policy-maker education

283
Q

Includes influencing behavior by helping individuals, groups, or whole communities develop positive health attributes, such as life skills and self- esteem

A

Health education

284
Q

Includes implementation of a workplace policy forbidding smoking

A

Health protection

285
Q

Includes commitment of public funds to provide safe-walking areas and bicycles paths

A

Health protection

286
Q

Embraces raising awareness of, and securing support for, positive health protection measures among the public and policy makers

A

Policy support

287
Q

What sphere of health promotion: Prevention

A

Disease prevention

288
Q

What sphere of health promotion: Lifestyle

A

Health education

289
Q

What sphere of health promotion: Preventive policies

A

Health protection

290
Q

What sphere of health promotion: Policy-maker education

A

Health education for health protection

291
Q

What sphere of health promotion: Policy support

A

Health education for health protection

292
Q

Chlorination and fluoridation of water supply, primary vs secondary vs tertiary prevention

A

Primary

293
Q

Fluoridation of drinking water reduces caries by

A

50%

294
Q

T/F The advisability of fluoridation is still controversial among dental public health experts

A

F

295
Q

The optimum concentration of fluoride in public drinking water depends on

A

Average daily temperature of the community served

296
Q

A white brown discolouration of teeth from too much fluoride

A

Fluorosis

297
Q

Fluorosis often occurs if fluoride intake exceeds how many mg per day

A

4-8mg

298
Q

Immunization, primary vs secondary vs tertiary prevention

A

Primary

299
Q

Exercise programs, primary vs secondary vs tertiary prevention

A

Primary

300
Q

Pap smears, primary vs secondary vs tertiary prevention

A

Secondary

301
Q

Hypertension and Diabetes Mellitus case-finding, primary vs secondary vs tertiary prevention

A

Secondary

302
Q

Smoking cessation programs, primary vs secondary vs tertiary prevention

A

Secondary

303
Q

Live attenuated vaccines

A

[BOY Loves CRIME] 1) BCG 2) OPV 3) Yellow fever 4) LIVE 5) Chicken pox 6) Rotavirus 7) Influenza (nasal spray) 8) MMR 9) Endemic typhus

304
Q

Inactivated vaccines

A

[HAPIR] 1) Hepatitis A 2) Polio IPV 3) Rabies

305
Q

Toxoid

A

DT of DTaP

306
Q

Administration of single injection of live attenuated measles vaccine results in

A

Seroconversion in 95% of susceptible children

307
Q

Prevention of human brucellosis depends on

A

Pasteurization of dairy products derived from goat, sheep, or cows

308
Q

Influenze vaccine is generally recommended for

A

All persons with severe pulmonary disorders regardless of age

309
Q

Effective means of preventing trichinosis in humans include

A

Prohibiting the marketing of garbage-fed hogs

310
Q

The major environmental source of lead absorbed in the human blood stream in adults

A

Air

311
Q

Vitamin deficiency: Petechiae, sore gums, hematuria, bone or joint pain

A

C

312
Q

Vitamin deficiency: Dermatitis, diarrhea, delirium

A

Niacin

313
Q

Vitamin deficiency: Edema, neuropathy, myocardial failure

A

Thiamine

314
Q

Vitamin deficiency: Poor mineralization of bones and teeth; osteoporosis

A

Sodium depletion

315
Q

Vitamin deficiency: Nausea, diarrhea, muscle cramps, dehydration

A

Sodium depletion

316
Q

Vitamin deficiency: Dwarfism, hepatosplenomegaly, poor wound healing

A

Zinc

317
Q

2 vitamin deficiencies that impair wound healing

A

1) Zinc 2) Vitamin C

318
Q

Vitamin deficiency: Hemolytic anemia in premature infants

A

E

319
Q

Hemorrhagic disease of newborn

A

K

320
Q

Health measure that has the greatest potential for prevention of disease

A

Modification of personal health behavior

321
Q

The measure of dispersion of choice when the mean is used as the reference point

A

Standard deviation

322
Q

Vitamin deficiencies to be eliminated as part of DOH goals

A

A and iodine

323
Q

Modified bacterial toxin made nontoxic but still able to induce an active immune response

A

Toxoid

324
Q

Classification of age as a variable into young or old is an example of what scale of measurement

A

Nominal

325
Q

Ability of a test to give a positive result when the variable of interest is present

A

Sensitivity

326
Q

Conjugate vaccine (polysaccharide capsules conjugated to protein carrier)

A

SHiN organisms (Pneumococcal, Hib, Meningococcal)

327
Q

Polysaccharide capsules:

A

1) Pneumococcal 2) Meningococcal

328
Q

Subunit/part

A

1) HepB 2) HPV 3) Influenza injection 4) P of DTaP (acellular pertussis)

329
Q

Study of the distribution and determinants of disease frequency in man

A

Epidemiology

330
Q

Uses of epidemiology

A

1) Causation 2) Natural history 3) Description of health status of population 4) Evaluation of health interventions

331
Q

NON LIVING, THE EXCESSIVE PRESENCE OR THE RELATIVE LACK OF WHICH IS THE IMMEDIATE OR PROXIMAL CAUSE OF THE DISEASES

A

Etiologic factor

332
Q

ABILITY TO LODGE & MULTIPLY IN THE BODY OF THE HOST

A

Infectivity

333
Q

ABILITY TO PENETRATE INTO OR GROW WITHIN THE HOST AWAY FROM THE ORIGINAL SITE

A

INVASIVENESS

334
Q

ABILITY TO PRODUCE TOXIN

A

Toxicity

335
Q

A HABITAT (LIVING OR NON-LIVING), IN WHICH AN INFECTIONS AGENT LIVES, MULTIPLIES AND DEPENDS PRIMARILY FOR ITS SURVIVAL & FROMWHICH IT CAN BE TRANSMITTED TO AN INTERMEDIATE OR SUSCEPTIBLE HOST

A

Reservoir

336
Q

A LIVING OR NON-LIVING THING THRU WHICH THE AGENT PASSES IMMEDIATELY OR DIRECTLY TO SUSCEPTIBLE HOST

A

Source of infection

337
Q

The ability of an agent to invade and adapt itself to the human host

A

Infectivity

338
Q

The measure of the ability of an agent, when lodged in the body, to set up either a local or general tissue reaction

A

Pathogenicity

339
Q

Measure of the severity of the reaction produced

A

Virulence

340
Q

A person not possessing resistance against a particular pathogenic agent

A

Susceptible human host

341
Q

A person who possesses antibodies that are specific and protective

A

Immune human host

342
Q

Factors of disease causation

A

1) Susceptible host 2) Agent 3) Environment

343
Q

ABILITY TO CAUSE DISEASE or symptomatic illness

A

Pathogenicity

344
Q

Stages of disease

A

1) Susceptibility 2) Pre-symptomatic/pre-clinical /incubation 3) Clinical/symptomatic period (clinical horizon) 4) Disease outcome (complete recovery, disability or defect, carrier state, death)

345
Q

A logical sequence of factors necessary for disease to ensue

A

The epidemiological chain

346
Q

SUM TOTAL OF AN ORGANISM’S SURROUNDINGS, CONDITONS & INFLUENCES THAT AFFECT ITS LIFE & DEVELOPMENT

A

Environment

347
Q

Questions about the cycle by which the organism maintains its existence in nature and by means it reaches man

A

1) Nature? 2) Reservoirs? 3) Spread? 4) Portals of entry and exit?

348
Q

ABILITY TO INDUCE PRODUCTION OF ANTIBODIES

A

Antigenicity/immunogenicity

349
Q

Factors for disease causation

A
  1. A causative or etiologic agent 2. A reservoir or source of the causative agent 3. A mode of escape from the reservoir 4. A mode of transmission from the reservoir to the potential new host 5. A mode of entity into the new host
350
Q

T/F about the epidemiological chain: INTERRUPTION IN ANY STAGE OF THE CHAIN, DISEASE WILL NOT DEVELOP

A

T

351
Q

In the epidemiological chain, the reservoir and source are identical if

A

Transfer is direct from reservoir to host

352
Q

ESCAPE FROM THE BODY

A

Period of communicability

353
Q

Relationship between period of communicability and degree of communicability

A

Inverse

354
Q

Measured by the percentage of severe or fatal cases

A

Virulence

355
Q

Ability to spread in a population of exposed susceptible persons

A

Contagiousness

356
Q

REQUIREMENTS FOR SUCCESSFUL PARASITISM aka Host-Agent Interaction Requirements

A
  1. Favorable conditions in the environment for the agent 2. SUITABLE RESERVOIR/receiver 3. PRESENcE OF SUSCEPTIBLE HOST 4. SATISFACTORY PORTAL OF ENTRY TO THE HOST 5. ACCESSIBLE PORTAL OF EXIT FROM THE HOST 6. APPROPRIATE MODE OF TRANSMISSION TO NEW HOST
357
Q

HOST PARASITE RELATIONSHIP DEPENDS ON

A
  1. CHARACTERISTICS AND DOSAGE OF AGENT 2. DURATION OF EXPOSURE OF THE HOST T 3. REACTION OF THE TISSUES OF THE HOST TO THE AGENT 4. PORTAL OF ENTRY AND TISSUES AFFECTED
358
Q

Infection in which the host is a healthy carrier

A

Inapparent infection

359
Q

Refers to EVERY MILD REACTIONS THAT ESCAPES DETECTION

A

SUBCLINICAL CONDITION

360
Q

THE INTERVAL BETWEEN THE TIME OF ENTRY OF THE AGENT INTO THE HOST AND THE ONSET OF SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS OF DISEASE

A

Incubation period

361
Q

FACTORS THAT AFFECT INCUBATION PERIOD

A
  1. VIRULENCE, DOSE & PORTAL OF ENTRY 2. PREVIOUS EXPERIENCE OF THE HOST & THE STATE OF IMMUNITY 3. INHERENT CHARACTER OF THE ORGANISM
362
Q

THE RESISTANCE OF A GROUP TO INVASION & SPREAD OF AN INFECTIOUS AGENT

A

Herd immunity

363
Q

T/F IT IS NOT NECESSARY TO HAVE A 100% LEVEL OF HERD IMMUNITY TO PREVENT THE OCCURRENCE OF AN EPIDEMIC

A

T

364
Q

Defined as more the the usual expected occurrence of disease

A

EPIDEMIC

365
Q

Defined a a disease constantly occurring in a GEOGRAPHICAL AREA

A

Endemic

366
Q

An epidemic occurring within more than 1 country or territory

A

Pandemic

367
Q

Occasional or infrequent occurrence of a disease

A

Sporadic

368
Q

Epidemic vs endemic vs pandemic: MERS CoV

A

Pandemic

369
Q

Epidemic vs endemic vs pandemic: Bird flu

A

Pandemic

370
Q

Epidemic vs endemic vs pandemic: HIV

A

Pandemic

371
Q

Temporary occurrence in a small community or region, of a group of illness of similar nature, clearly in excess of normal expectancy and derived from a common or propagated source

A

Epidemic

372
Q

Highest alert level declared by the WHO

A

Pandemic level 6, June 12, 2009

373
Q

FACTORS IN DETERMINNG THE PROPORTION OF THE POPULATION THAT SHOULD BE IMMUNED TO MAKE SPREAD OF INFECTION HIGHLY IMPROBABLE

A
  1. INFECTIOUSNESS OF THE INFECTED HOST & THE LENGTH OF TIME HE IS INFECTIOUS 2. STANDARDS OF HYGIENE 3. DENSITY & DEGREE OF MIXING OF THE POPULATION.
374
Q

Mode of transmission: IMMEDIATE TRANSFER OF AN INFECTIOUS AGENT FROM AN INFECTED HOST OR RESERVOIR TO AN APPROPRIATE PORTAL OF ENTRY W/O THE INTERVENTION OF INTERMEDIATE OBJECTS

A

Direct

375
Q

Mode of transmission: TRANSFER OF INFECTION W/O CLOSE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN RESERVOIR AND NEW HOST

A

Indirect

376
Q

WHO Pandemic phase: Predominantly animal infections; few human infections

A

1-3

377
Q

WHO Pandemic phase: Sustained human-to-human transmission

A

4

378
Q

WHO Pandemic phase: Widespread human infection

A

5-6

379
Q

WHO Pandemic phase: Possibility of recurrent infections

A

Post peak

380
Q

WHO Pandemic phase: Disease activity at seasonal levels

A

Post pandemic

381
Q

Constant presence in a community of a disease in numbers

A

Endemic

382
Q

Disease that is clearly in excess of what is present in other communities

A

Endemic

383
Q

Disease in animals transmissible to man

A

Zoonotic

384
Q

Type of epidemics: Outbreaks due to exposure of a group of persons to a common, noxious influence

A

Common Source Epidemics

385
Q

A common source epidemic wherein the exposure to the source is brief and essentially simultaneous so that the resultant cases all develops within one incubation period of the disease

A

Point or point source epidemic

386
Q

S. japonicum is endemic in

A

1) Samar 2) Leyte 3) Lanao del Sur 4) Maguindanao 5) ARMM

387
Q

Type of epidemics: Outbreaks due to transmission of an infectious agent from one susceptible host to another

A

Propagated or progressive epidemics

388
Q

Type of epidemics: Food intoxication

A

Common source

389
Q

Type of epidemics: Chemical poisoning

A

Common source

390
Q

Type of epidemics: Influenza

A

Direct person-to-person, propagated

391
Q

Type of epidemics: Malaria

A

Indirect, propagated

392
Q

Type of epidemics: Hepatitis

A

Direct person-to-person, propagated

393
Q

Type of epidemics: Yellow fever

A

Indirect, propagated

394
Q

Type of epidemics: Atmospheric pollution

A

Common source

395
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: Picture of common source epidemics

A

Classical Epidemic Curve

396
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: Picture of person to person spread

A

Inverted Epidemic Curve

397
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: Rapid ascending and rapid descending limb

A

Bell-shaped Epidemic Curve

398
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: Food poisoning

A

Classical Epidemic Curve

399
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: Malaria

A

Inverted Epidemic Curve

400
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: Measles

A

Bell-shaped Epidemic Curve

401
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: Rapid transmission due to big dose of

the identified organism

A

Classical Epidemic Curve

402
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: Poliomyelitis

A

Bell-shaped Epidemic Curve

403
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: DHF

A

Inverted Epidemic Curve

404
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: Short ascending limb and climb

A

Classical Epidemic Curve

405
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: Long ascending and short descending

limb

A

Inverted Epidemic Curve

406
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: The spread is rapid; transmission is simple; and rapid elimination and reduction of susceptible cases

A

Bell-shaped Epidemic Curve

407
Q

EPIDEMIC CURVE: Indicates that the transmission is more complex and the disease has a longer incubation period

A

Inverted Epidemic Curve

408
Q

More deaths on the ascending limb of the classical epidemic curve is due to

A

Heavier dose of the organism and less resistance

409
Q

Longer descending limb of the classical epidemic curve represents

A

Development of secondary cases

410
Q

Less deaths on the descending limb of the classical epidemic curve is due to

A

Lesser dose or virulence

411
Q

Shape of the bell-shaped epidemiological curve indicates that

A

Those who develop the disease earlier has more deaths as considerations include experience with the disease and resistance

412
Q

A graphical presentation of the geographic distribution cases

A

Spot Map

413
Q

Importance of spot map

A

1) Orients the epidemic as to place 2) Shows where the epidemic started (located index case’) 2) Pinpoints source of infection

414
Q

Determines the interval between cases in a person-to-person spread

A

Generation time

415
Q

Refers to the period between the receipt of infection by a host and maximal communicability of that host

A

Generation time

416
Q

STEPS IN THE INVESTIGATION OF AN EPIDEMIC

A
  1. Establish the existence of an epidemic (Preliminary Investigation) 2. Orient the epidemic as to time, place, and person 3. Formulate hypotheses explaining the occurrence of the epidemic 4. Test your hypotheses 5. Make your conclusions and give your recommendations
417
Q

Measles: Portal of entry

A

Respiratory tract

418
Q

Measles: Mode of transmission

A

Airborne droplets

419
Q

Measles: Avenue of escape

A

Respiratory secretion

420
Q

Colds: Portal of entry

A

Respiratory tract

421
Q

Colds: Mode of transmission

A

Airborne droplets

422
Q

Colds: Avenue of escape

A

Respiratory secretion

423
Q

Typhoid: Portal of entry

A

GIT

424
Q

Typhoid: Mode of transmission

A

Water, food, flies

425
Q

Typhoid: Avenue of escape

A

Feces

426
Q

Polio: Portal of entry

A

GIT

427
Q

Polio: Mode of transmission

A

Water, food, flies

428
Q

Polio: Avenue of escape

A

Feces

429
Q

TB reservoir

A

1) Man 2) Diseased cattle

430
Q

TB case definition

A
  • a history of contact with a suspect or confirmed
    case of pulmonary tuberculosis - any child who does not return to normal health after measles or whooping cough - loss of weight, cough and wheeze which does not respond to antibiotic therapy for acute respiratory disease - abdominal swelling with a hard painless mass and free fluid - painful firm or soft swelling in a group of superficial lymph nodes - any bone or joint lesion of slow onset - signs suggesting meningitis or disease in the
    CNS
431
Q

MOT of TB

A

1) Droplet infection 2) Dust inhalation of bacilli which have dried on the surface of the ground or floor and become suspended in the air

432
Q

Incubation period of TB

A

~ 4-12 weeks; 1-2 years after infection of pulmonary or extra-pulmonary TB

433
Q

Average the sum of observations divided by the number of observations

A

Mean

434
Q

Middle observation in a series of ordered observations

A

Median

435
Q

First step in epidemiological approach or strategy

A

Identify the problem

436
Q

Observation that occurs with greatest frequency

A

Mode

437
Q

Branch of medicine that deals with the study of the causes, distribution, and control of disease in populations

A

Epidemiology

438
Q

Sampling unit in epidemiologic studies

A

Group of individuals

439
Q

Ultimate goal of an epidemiological investigation

A

Institute curative, preventive, and control measures to avoid cases

440
Q

Studies both the distribution of disease and determinants of the observed distribution

A

Epidemiology

441
Q

Epidemiology began as a study of

A

Infectious disease

442
Q

Study of the distribution of diseases in animals

A

Epizootiology

443
Q

Cause of changes in strain that allow infection despite adequate vaccination

A

Antigenic drift

444
Q

Slow and progressive change in antigenic composition of microorganisms

A

Antigenic drift

445
Q

Sudden change in the molecular structure of a microorganism and produces NEW STRAINS

A

Antigenic shift

446
Q

Explanation for new epidemics or pandemics

A

Antigenic shift

447
Q

Measure of central tendency used for numerical data and for symmetric distributions

A

Mean

448
Q

Result in influenza with high case fatality rates seen previously with the strain

A

Vaccine failure

449
Q

Measure of central tendency used for ordinal data or numeric data if distribution is skewed

A

Median

450
Q

Appropriate measure of central tendency in qualitative data (e.g. gender, religion, nationality)

A

Mode

451
Q

Decrease rate of infection by decreasing probability that a susceptible person would come in contact with an infected person

A

Herd immunity

452
Q

Measure of central tendency used for bimodal distributions

A

Mode

453
Q

Distribution when mean=median

A

Symmetrical

454
Q

Distribution when mean>median

A

Skewed to the right/POSITIVELY SKEWED

455
Q

Distribution when mean is less than median

A

Skewed to the left/NEGATIVELY SKEWED

456
Q

T/F Herd immunity affects the clinical presentation of those infected in a group

A

F

457
Q

Absence of disease is defined as

A

1) No cases on record 2) Absent from the beginning 3) Has been eradicated

458
Q

Study design best for rare cases

A

Case-control

459
Q

Study design in which subjects are categorised on the basis of exposure or lack of exposure to a risk factor and then are followed to determine a specific outcome

A

Prospective cohort

460
Q

Refers to groups of subjects followed forward in time to see which ones develop the outcome

A

Cohort

461
Q

Prospective studies in which an intervention is applied

A

Clinical trials

462
Q

Exposure and outcome are measured at the same point in time

A

Cross-sectional

463
Q

Study design: Clinical characteristic or outcome from a single subject or event (n=1)

A

Case report

464
Q

Study design: Clinical characteristic or outcome from a group of clinical subjects or events (n>1)

A

Case series

465
Q

Study design: Prevalence

A

Cross-sectional

466
Q

Study design: Determines in each member of the population the presence or absence of a disease and other variables at one point in time

A

Cross-sectional

467
Q

Study design: With diseases vs without disease

A

Case-control

468
Q

Study design: Population exposed to a risk factor is followed over time and compared to a group not exposed to the risk factors

A

Cohort

469
Q

Study design: Retrospective

A

Case-control

470
Q

Study design: Prospective

A

Cohort

471
Q

Study design: Association of risk factor and disease

A

Cross-sectional

472
Q

Study design: Causality cannot be determined

A

Cross-sectional

473
Q

Study design: Weakest

A

Case-control

474
Q

T/F Case-control study cannot assess incidence and prevalence

A

T

475
Q

Study design: For conditions with very low incidence or prevalence

A

Case-control

476
Q

Methods used in public health

A

1) Public education 2) Surveillance systems 3) Environmental control 4) Dissemination of information to health providers

477
Q

The study of the amount & distribution of disease within a population by person, place & time

A

Descriptive epidemiology

478
Q

The study of the determinants of disease or reasons for relatively high or low frequency in specific groups

A

ANALYTIC EPIDEMIOLOGY

479
Q

The application of epidemiological principles and methods to the practice of clinical medicine

A

Clinical epidemiology

480
Q

The science of making predictions about individual patients by counting clinical events in similar patients

A

Clinical epidemiology

481
Q

Health is defined as

A

A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity

482
Q

WHO CASE-DEFINITION FOR AIDS

A

1) The presence of disseminated Kaposis sarcoma or cryptococcal meningitis OR 2) Two major signs in association with at least one minor sign

483
Q

Include case studies, case series, ecologic studies, and cross-sectional studies

A

Descriptive studies

484
Q

Include cohort studies and case-control studies

A

Observational studies

485
Q

Include clinical trials and community trials

A

Experimental studies

486
Q

Major signs of AIDS

A

Weight loss > 10% Fever > 1 month Chronic diarrhea > 1 month

487
Q

Minor signs of AIDS

A

Persistent cough > 1 month General pruritic dermatitis Recurrent herpes zoster General lymphadenopathy Chronic herpes simplex Oral candidiasis

488
Q

T/F About PhilHealth: Govrernment-owned and -controlled

A

T

489
Q

Covered under the National Health Insurance Program (NHIP)

A

1) Employed sector 2) OFWs under the OWWA 3) Individually paying members (self-employed, private practitioners) 4) Non-paying members 5) Dependents of member

490
Q

Non-paying members covered by NHIP

A

1) Retirees and pensioners provided they have paid at least 120 monthly contributions and reached 60 y/o upon retirement 2) Permanent and partial disability pensioners 3) Indigent members under Medicare Para Sa Masa

491
Q

Dependents of member covered by NHIP

A

1) Legitimate spouse 2) Children below 21, unmarried, unemployed 3) 21 and above but suffering from any illness or disease 4) Parents 60 and above, not retiree/pensioner members and wholly dependent on members for support

492
Q

Benefits included under the NHIP

A

1) Inpatient hospital care 2) Outpatient care 3) Emergency and transfer services 4) Other health care services that the corporation determines to be appropriate and cost-effective 5) NSD up to 5, including abortions

493
Q

Benefits excluded under the NHIP

A

1) Non-prescription drugs and meds (everything not in the formulary) 2) Out-patient psychotherapy and counselling for mental disorders 3) Drug and alcohol abuse dependency treatment 4) Cosmetic surgery 5) Home and rehab services 6) Optometric services

494
Q

Who are eligible to avail of PhilHealth benefits

A

1) At least 3 monthly contributions within the immediate 6 months prior to admission 2) 45-day allowance for room and board has not been consumed yet 3) Confinement in an ACCREDITED hospital of not less than 24 hours

495
Q

Only hospital admissions of more than 24 hours are covered except

A

1) Emergency 2) Transferred to another hospital 3) Expired during confinement

Preventive Medicine (2 decks)

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