Preventative Care Strategies

Question 1

Primary prevention is aimed at _____.

Answer 1

maintaining a healthy population, by adopting measure to avoid occurrence of disease either through eliminating the pathogen or increasing resistance to disease.

Question 2

Define secondary prevention.

Answer 2

An action which halts the progress of a disease at its incipient/early stage and prevents complications.

Question 3

Define incubation period.

Answer 3

The time elapsed between infection and when clinical symptoms are first apparent.

Question 4

How often should a farmer review and update vaccination and treatment protocols?

Answer 4

Biannually

Question 5

How often should a farmer examine animals for signs of illness?

Answer 5

Daily

Question 6

In what time period should deceased animals be disposed of?

Answer 6

48 hours

Question 7

In what ways can a deceased animal be disposed of?

Answer 7

Burying, composting, incinerating

Question 8

Define decontamination

Answer 8

a process or treatment that renders a medical device, instrument or environmental surface safe to handle. This can range from sterilization to simple cleaning with soap and water.

Question 9

Define sterilization.

Answer 9

A process that destroys or eliminates all forms of microbial life/pathogens, including highly resistant pathogens such as bacterial spores.

Question 10

Define disinfection

Answer 10

a process that eliminates many or all pathogenic microorganisms, except bacterial spores, on inanimate objects.

Question 11

Define antisepsis

Answer 11

the application of liquid antimicrobial chemical to skin or living tissue to inhibit or destroy microorganisms.

Question 12

In what order should PPE be applied?

Answer 12

Gown, mask, eyewear, gloves

Question 13

In what order should PPE be removed?

Answer 13

Gloves, eyewear, gown, mask

Question 14

Define Isolation

Answer 14

Separation of individuals who are known to be ill with a contagious disease.

Question 15

Define quarantine

Answer 15

Separation of individuals who have been exposed to a contagious disease.

Question 16

For what length of time should an individual remain in quarantine?

Answer 16

the longest incubation period of the disease.

Question 17

Chemoprophylaxis is….

Answer 17

the use of antimicrobial drugs to increase host resistance to a disease.

Question 18

The disadvantages of chemoprophylaxis are ___.

Answer 18

Potential adverse rxns to the drug

Pathogens may be resistant to the antimicrobial

Host resistance only lasts as long as the drug is present.

Question 19

What are the OiE guidelines for establishing an animal disease control program (11)?

Answer 19

1. ) Rationale for establishing a disease control programme - justify the need for such a program
2. ) Set up goals and objectives
3. ) Program planning
4. ) Implementation - surveillance system will help provide guidance on priorities and targets for the application of interventions
5. ) Diagnostic capability
6. ) Vaccination and other control measures
7. ) Traceability - facilitates the ID of affected animals, herds or flocks
8. ) Regional cooperation
9. ) Social participation
10. ) Role of research in support of disease control programme
11. ) Training and capacity building

Question 20

What does OiE stand for?

Answer 20

World Organization for Animal Health

Question 21

What are sentinel labs?

Answer 21

represent the thousands of hospital-based labs that are on the front lines. These labs have direct contact with patients

Question 22

Reference labs

Answer 22

Can perform tests to detect and confirm the presence of a threat agent. These labs ensure a timely local response in the event of a threat incident

Question 23

National Labs

Answer 23

have unique resources to handle highly infectious agents and the ability to identify specific agent strains.

Question 24

What does DIVA stand for?

Answer 24

Differentiating Infected from Vaccinated Animals

Question 25

What is FAD

Answer 25

Foreign Animal Disease

Question 26

What is the infected zone?

Answer 26

3 km perimeter around the premises where presumed or confirmed disease occurs. This is the one that immediately surrounds the infected premises.

Question 27

What’s the buffer zone?

Answer 27

7 km perimeter around the perimeter of the infected zone. This surrounds the infected zone.

Question 28

What is the control area?

Answer 28

10 km perimeter around the premises where presumed or confirmed disease occurs. This includes the infected zone and buffer zone.

Question 29

What is the vaccination zone?

Answer 29

emergency vaccinations administered to potential hosts in this zone. This may be the control area or just outside the control area depending on classification.

Question 30

What is a pandemic?

Answer 30

global emergence of disease

Question 31

what is an endemic?

Answer 31

Localized emergence of disease

Question 32

What is “GLEWS”.

Answer 32

The Global Early Warning System for Major Animal Disease including zoonoses. This system was established by collaboration of FAO (Food an Agriculture Organization of the United Nations), OiE (World Organization of Animal Health), and WHO (World Health Organization).

Question 33

What does GLEWS do?

Answer 33

Provides disease alerts, trends and analysis of diseases, disease forecasting and risk assessments.