Preop Medication/Antiemetics 2-3 Flashcards

Test 1

1
Q

Histamine is endogenous. What does this mean?

A

It is in our body all the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is histamine released from?

A

Basophils
Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does histamine induce?

A

smooth muscle contraction in airways
-secretion of acid in stomach
-release of neurotransmitters in CNS (Acetylcholine, NE, Serotonin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are we worried about with endogenous histamine release?

A

Bronchospasms
-painful aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which drugs induce histamine release?

A

Morphine
Mivacurium (Mivacron)
Atracurium (Tracrium)
Protamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do we treat drug induced histamine released?

A

Both H1 & H2 antagonist

Have to give both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What receptors does histamine receptors H1 & H2 activate?

A

H1: Muscarinic, cholinergic, 5-HT3, Alpha-adrengic

H2: 5-HT3, B-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drug do we give in the OR almost everytime we give heparin?

A

Protamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which generation of drugs typically block the histamine cascade reaction?

A

1st generation antihistamine drugs such as benadryl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the presentations that you’ll see from histamine release from the H1 & H2 receptors?

A

H1: Hyperalgesia; inflammatory pain

H2: Increases cAMP (B1 stimulation –> inreases HR); increases acid/volume production

Both: Hypotension, capillary permeability, flushing, prostacyclin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does histamine release cause hypotension?

A

H1&H2 activation causes hypotension from release of nitric oxide & capillary permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Histamine receptor antagonist are actually _______ agonists

A

inverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F: Histamine receptor antagonist prevent the release of histamine

A

F

Responds to the release of histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where are H1 receptors located?

A

Vestibular system
airway smooth muscle
cardiac endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What types of patients should we be cautious with H1 receptor antagonist? Why?

A

Ambulatory
elderly

Crosses BBB & makes you sleepy –> can fall more easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Beside histamine induced reactions, what is another H1 receptor antagonist indication?

A

Motion sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

H1 receptor antagonist should provide protections against _______ & ________ stability

A

brochospams

cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

H1-R antagonists has _______ tachyphylaxis? What does this mean?

A

little

should not decline in effectiveness with doses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are SE of H1-R antagonists?

A

Blurred vision
Urinary retention
Dry mouth
Drowsiness (1st gen)

BUDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are 2 1st gen H1-R antagonists?

A
  1. Diphenhydramine (benadryl)
  2. Promethazine (phenergen)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are 2 2nd gen H1-R antagonist?

A
  1. Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
  2. Loratadine (Claratin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are general benefits of H1-R antagonists?

A

Cheap & effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Benedryl is a ____ receptor ______

A

H1

antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is diphenhydramine (benadryl) mostly used for?

A

-antipruritic (itching)
-pre-treat procedure related allergies (ex. contrast)
-anaphylaxis/allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the half time for Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)?

A

7 - 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) may inhibit the ________ arc of oculo-_________ reflex. What does this mean?

A

afferent

emetic

If push on eyeball –> will not vomit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) ___________ ventilation

A

Stimulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the dose for Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)?

A

25 - 50 mg IV

can give 1/2 the dose if worried

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is promethazine (phenergan) mostly used for?

A

Anti-emetic

(even better than Zofran)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the half time for promethazine (Phenergan)?

A

9 - 16 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the black box warnings for Promethazine (Phenergan)?

A

-fatal, respiratory arrest/micro spasm in < 2 yo

-if infiltrates in IV –> ischemia and loss of limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are 2 considerations that we should have with Promethazine (Phenergan)

A
  1. Do not give in children <2yo
  2. Make sure the IV works very well or use picc/cvc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the dose for Promethazine (Phenergan)?

A

12.5 -25 mg IV

Can also give IM, PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the onset for Promethazine (Phenergan)?

A

5 minutes (IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Promethazine (Phenergan) works well as a “rescue”. What does this mean?

A

Works well even if they are already vomiting. Can give if Zofran failed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Promethazine (Phenergan) also reduces __________ pain levels and have __________ affects

A

Peripheral

Anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does H2-R antagonist Tx? How does it do this?

A

Duodenal Ulcer disease
GERD

By decreasing hyper secretions of gastric fluids –> decreases gastric volume
-increases stomach pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What SE does H2-R antagonists have?

A

Diarrhea
-HA
-skeletal muscle pain
-confusion
-bradycardia
-increase serum creatinine 15%
**weakened gastric mucosa dt bacteria (prolonged administration) –> increase pulmonary infections & overgrowth of Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What symptom does H2-R antagonist cause with prolonged administration? Why?

A

Increased pulmonary infections
-of a growth of candida albicans

Increasing the pH in the stomach, weakened the gastric mucosa, allowing increased amounts of bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

H2-R antagonists are metabolized in the _______ and cleared in the _______

A

Liver

Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cimetidine (Tagamet) strongly inhibits _________. Which includes which drugs? How does this affect them?

A

CYP450

Warfarin
-Phenytoin
-lidocaine
-tricyclics
-propanolol
-nifedipine
-meperidine
-diazepam

These drugs are not going to be metabolized as quickly and will build up in your system to possible toxic levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are AE of Cimetidine (Tagamet)?

A

Bradycardia & Hypotension (cardiac H2-R during rapid infusions)

-increased plasma levels of prolactin (increases milk, production)

-inhibits dihydrotestosterone binding to androgen receptors (causes impotence –> ED)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the dose for Cimetidine (Tagamet)?

A

150 -300 mg IV

Renal impaired: 75 - 150 mg IV
half of normal dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the only difference between Ranitidine (Zantac) & Cimetidine (Tagamet)?

A

Ranitidine (Zantac) binds weaker to CYP450 enzymes. So if Im on a drug that is metabolized by CYP450, I would choose Ranitidine (Zantac) bc metabolism of those types of drugs wouldnt be as impaired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the dose for Ranitidine (Zantac)?

A

50 mg diluted to 20 cc

Renal impaired: 25 mg (1/2 normal)

give over 2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which H2-R antagonist has no CYP450 interference?

A

Famotidine (Pepcid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Famotidine (Pepcid) is the most ______ H2-R antagonist

A

potent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the halftime for Famotidine (Pepcid)?

A

2.5 - 4 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Famotidine (Pepcid) interferes with _________ absorption and causes _______. What type of patient should we not give this in?

A

Phosphate

Hypophosphatemia

A patient that has Ca/Phos bone issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the dose for Famotidine (Pepcid)?

A

20 mg IV

Renal: 10mg (1/2 normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do PPIs work?

A

Irreversibly bind to acids secretion pumps (only inhibit the pumps that are currently working, we are constantly making new pumps)

-inhibit the movement of protons across the gastric parietal cells

52
Q

What is the onset for PPIs?

A

Up to 5 days

53
Q

PPIs are most effective for?

A

Control a gastric pH
-decrease gastric volume

54
Q

What disease process are PPIs more effective for treating than H2-R antagonist?

A

Esophagitis
-ulcers
-GERD
-Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

55
Q

What is the best Tx for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

56
Q

What are side effects of long-term PPI use?

A

-bone fx
-SLE (lupus)
-acute interstitial nephritis
-Cdiff
-Vit B12/Mag deficiency

57
Q

PPIs blocked the enzyme that activates ___________

A

Clopidogrel

58
Q

PPIs inhibit the metabolism of __________ (list). What effect does this have?

A

Warfarin
-antibiotics
-antifungals
-anti-seizure

These medications will stay in your system longer
INR will be increased

59
Q

Why do PPIs only work when you continue to take them?

A

Acid inhibition increases with repeated doses bc they inhibit new pumps that are being made. PPIs only inhibit the pumps that are currently there.

60
Q

Omerprazole (Prilosec) is a ______ and is a _______

A

PPI

Prodrug

61
Q

What is the dose for Omerprazole (Prilosec)?

A

40 mg in 100cc NS
give over 30 minutes

or PO > 3hrs prior (last oral intake more than 3 hours ago)

62
Q

What are SE of Omerprazole (Prilosec)?

A

-HA
-agitation
-confusion
-abdominal pain
-N/V
-flatulence
-small bowel bacteria overgrowth

63
Q

What are the 3 signs that something crosses the BBB?

A

-HA
-agitation
-confusion

64
Q

How does Pantroprazole (Protonix) compare to Prilosec (Omerprazole)?

A

-greater bioavailability (less lost in 1st pass effect)

-longer halftime

65
Q

When can we give Pantroprazole (Protonix)? What effect does it have?

A

1 hour prior

Decrease gastric volume and pH

66
Q

What drugs are PPIs?

A

Omeprazole (Prilosec)
Pantoprazole (Protonix)
Lansoprazole (Prevacid)
Dexlansoprazole (Dexilent)

67
Q

What is the dose for Pantroprazole (Protonix)?

A

40 mg in 100cc
give over 2-15 minutes

68
Q

What is our DOC for aspiration pneumonitis & intermittent heart burn? Why?

A

H2-R antagonists

They dont take long to work. PPIs take a bit longer to work

69
Q

What are the 2 types of antacids? What are their bases? Which one do we use an anesthesia? How does it work?

A
  1. Particulate: Aluminum/Magnesium based
  2. Non-particulate: sodium, carbonate, citrate, bicarbonate based –> neutralize acid

non-particulate is used in anesthesia

70
Q

Why are antacids not a good choice for longterm use?

A

-Increase pH: inhibit breakdown of food & increase bacteria

  • magnesium based: osmotic diarrhea & hypermagnesium –> neuro/neuromuscular impairment

-Calcium based: hypercalcemia –> kidney stones

-sodium based: hypernatremia –> HTN/CHF

71
Q

What is Sodium Citrate? How does it work? What do we use it for?

A

Nonparticulate antacid

It is an alkaline (base) & works by combining with stomach acid to neutralize (creates salt, co2, water)

Uses: prevents aspiration pneumona (NOT ASPIRATION!! CAN ASPIRATE)

72
Q

Sodium Citrate ________ intragastric volume

73
Q

How fast does Sodium Citrate work? how long does it last?

A

immediately

loses effectiveness 30-60 minutes

74
Q

What is the dose for Sodium Citrate?

A

15 - 30cc PO

75
Q

How do dopamine blocker work?

A

Stimulate gastric motility (prokinetic)
-Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone
-relaxes pylorus/duodenum
-stimulates peristalsis
has everything move down

76
Q

What kinda of pts do we not want to give dopamine blockers to? why?

A

parkinsons
huntingsons

depletes dopamine even further

77
Q

What are SE that dopamine blockers have?

A

Crosses BBB –> extrapyramidal reactions
-orthostatic hypotension`

78
Q

What drugs are dopamine blockers?

A

Droperidol (inapsine)
Domperidone
metoclopramide (reglan)

79
Q

Dopamine blockers have effects on ___________ trigger zone. What does this mean?

A

Chemoreceptor

great for chemo induced N/V

80
Q

What is the drug for Diabetic gastroparesis?

A

Metoclopramide (reglan)

81
Q

What is your dose for Metoclopramide (reglan)?

A

10 - 20 mg IV
give over 3-5 minutes (15-30 mins prior to induction)

82
Q

What are the SE of Metoclopramide (reglan)?

A

-abdominal cramping (if rapid IV)
-muscle spasms
-hypotension
-sedation (crosses BBB)
-increases prolactin release
-neuroleptic malignant syndrome
-decreases plasma cholinesterase levels –> slow metabolism of succs, mivacurium, ester local anesthetics

83
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome mimics what? What are the S/S?

A

MH

-increase temperature
-muscle rigidity
-tachycardia
-confusion

84
Q

What are some facts about domperidone?

A

Does not cross BBB
-No anticholinergic activity
-increases prolactin levels (greater degree)
-not approved in US: causes dysrhythmia and said death

85
Q

Droperidol (Inapsine) is related to ______ and was developed for what type of diseases?

A

Haldol

Schizophrenia and psychosis

86
Q

Droperidol (Inapsine) has what type of SE?

A

Extrapyramidal symptoms
-neuroleptic malignant syndrome

87
Q

What type of drugs do you want to avoid with Droperidol (Inapsine)?

A

Other CNS depressants: barbiturates
-opioids
-General anesthetic

88
Q

Droperidol (Inapsine) is more effective than _________ & equally effective as __________

A

Metoclopramide

Zofran (4mg)

89
Q

What are the black box warnings for Droperidol (Inapsine)?

A

-prolonged QT intervals/torsades with higher doses

-serious drug interactions: amiodarone
-diuretics
-Sotalol
-mineralocorticoids
-CCB

90
Q

Where is serotonin released from?

A

Chromaffin cells in small intestines

91
Q

Serotonin stimulates _____ afferents through ______ receptors. What does this cause?

A

Vagal

5HT3

Vomitting

92
Q

Where are 5HT3-R?

A

Ubiquitous!!!

Kidney, colon, liver, lungs, stomach

High concentration: brain & GI tract

93
Q

CINV =

A

Chemo induced N/V

94
Q

5HT3 antagonist were originally used in what?

95
Q

T/F: 5HT3 antagonist are good for motion sickness/vestibular stimulation

96
Q

What are the side effects for 5HT3 antagonist?

A

Virtually none

97
Q

What drugs are 5HT3 antagonist?

A

-Ondansetron (Zofran)
-Granisetron (Kytril)
-Dolasetron (anzemet)

98
Q

What are SE of Ondansetron (Zofran)?

A

HA
Diarrhea
slight prolong QT

99
Q

What drugs are Ondansetron (Zofran) equivalent to?

A

Droperidol
Dexmethasone
metoclopramide

100
Q

What is the half time of Ondansetron (Zofran)?

101
Q

When should we give Ondansetron (Zofran)?

A

Right before emergence

102
Q

What is the dose of Ondansetron (Zofran)? What dose literature say about dosing?

A

4 - 8 mg IV

literature states that 4mg is the ideal dose

103
Q

Corticosteroids are used in ________

104
Q

How do corticosteroids work as an antiemetic?

A

MOA unknown exactly:
-thought to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis & endorphin release
-antiflammatory –> less preop pain –> less opioids –> less N/V from opioids

105
Q

What drugs are corticosteroids?

A

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

106
Q

What is the onset of Dexamethasone (Decadron)? How long does it last?

A

2 hrs

24 hrs

107
Q

When do we want to give Dexamethasone (Decadron)?

A

Usually 2/3 hrs before emergence

if difficult intubating or trauma during Sx –> give medication

108
Q

What are the SE of Dexamethasone (Decadron)?

A

Diabetic risk of preoperative hyperglycemia (minimal w/ 1 dose)
-perineal burning/itch

109
Q

What is the dose for Dexamethasone (Decadron)?

A

4-8mg or more if trauma

110
Q

Scopolamine patches are ________. What are they used for?

A

Muscarinic antagonist of ACH

antiemetic/motion sickness

111
Q

What is the peak concentration for Scopolamine? When do we apply it?

A

8 - 24 hrs

4 hrs preop (will start working during Sx)

112
Q

What SE does Scopolamine cause?

A

dilated pupils
dries up spit (antisialagogue)
causes sedation

113
Q

What is the dosing for Scopolamine? How long does it work?

A

Priming dose: 140 mcg –> 1.5 mg over next 72 hours

Lasts for up to 3 days

114
Q

Bronchodilators are __________ and are structurally similar to ________

A

Beta-R agonists

epinephrine

115
Q

How does Bronchodilators work?

A

GS –> increase cAMP –> decrease Ca++ entry –> decrease contractile –> relaxes smooth muscle

116
Q

You take ____ puffs of a Bronchodilator every ____ minutes and it increases your FEV by _____

117
Q

Can you give Bronchodilators for severe asthma attacks in preop?

A

Yes, but dont expect to have Sx immediately after. Need to wait and observe. If it doesnt get better –> reeval or maybe even reschedule Sx

118
Q

MDI =

A

metered dose inhaler

119
Q

How do you take a MDI?

A

2 puffs

While taking slow/deep breath over 5-6 secs

Hold breath at max inspiration for 5-6 secs

120
Q

You can give Bronchodilators with a MDI or _______ via ETT or a flowmeter

121
Q

What are SE of Bronchodilators?

A

Tremor
-tachycardia
-hyperglycemia
-transient decrease in arterial oxygenation

122
Q

Why does a transient decrease in arterial oxygenation happen in Bronchodilators?

A

Alveoli has more surface area from Bronchodilator –> for a brief moment, carrying away less O2 bc opened alveoli that weren’t previously being ventilated –> as soon as CO2 out and O2 in arterial O2 improves dramatically

123
Q

What drugs are Bronchodilators?

A

Albuterol (Proventil)
-Levo-albuterol (xopenex)

124
Q

What’s the difference between albuterol and Xopenex?

A

xopenex has less SE, but works a little bit less than albuterol.

Albuterol works better, but has more SE

125
Q

T/F: You can use a syringe to give albuterol via a face mask