Prenatal Testing Flashcards

1
Q

What is measured in FTS?

A
  1. NT measurement

2. PAPP-A and beta hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What conditions does FTS assess risk for?

A

T21 and T18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is FTS most accurate?

A

11-12 weeks, but usually performed anytime between 10w3d and 13w6d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tell me about PAPP-A: what is it produced by? When is it helpful to measure? Levels in T21 pregnancies? Levels in T18 pregnancies?

A

placenta, helpful only in the 1st trimester, significantly decreased in T21, less dramatically decreased in T18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tell me about hCG: What is is produced by? Levels in T21 pregnancies? Levels in T18 pregnancies? Pattern over time?

A

placenta, nearly doubled in T21, markedly decreased in T18, levels peak at 8 weeks and decrease steadily to 20 weeks when they plateau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Analyte patterns in FTS for T21 and T18

A

T21: low papp-a, high hCG
T18: low papp-a, low hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Detection rate of FTS for T21 and T18

A

~83% for T21
~90% for T18
(%5 false positive rate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Differential diagnoses for increased NT

A
  • Aneuploidy (T21, Turner, etc.)
  • Structural heart defect
  • Genetic syndromes (i.e. Noonan)
  • Adverse outcome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is measured in 2nd tri MSS?

A
  1. AFP
  2. hCG
  3. uE3
  4. Inhibin-A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is 2nd tri MSS performed?

A

14-22 weeks, most accurate 15-18 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does 2nd tri MSS provide rise assessment for?

A

ONTDs, T21, T18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the detection rate of 2nd tri MSS?

A

~80% for all conditions (with 5% FPR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tell me about AFP: where is it produced? What is the detection rate for spina bifida? What is the detection rate for anencephaly? Pattern over time?

A

synthesized in the liver and excreted by the kidneys, detects ~80% of spina bifida, detects ~95% of anencephaly, increases steadily throughout pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tell me about uE3: what is it produced by? what pathway is it involved in? pattern over time?

A

placenta, cholesterol pathway, increases steadily throughout pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tell me about inhibin A: what is it produced by? pattern over time?

A

mostly by the placenta, remains constant from 10-25 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What factors are included in the algorithm for calculating a quad screen?

A

maternal age, weight, diabetes, race, number of fetuses, GA, previous child with T21

17
Q

Analyte patterns in quad screen for T21 and T18

A

T21: low AFP, high hCG, low uE3, high inhibin A
T18: All low

18
Q

Does FTS or quad screen have a higher detection rate for T21 and T18?

A

FTS (80-90%)

quad screen is only 70-80%

19
Q

MSS results indicating fetal demise

A

low hCG, low uE3, high AFP if recent but low AFP if not

20
Q

MSS results indicating triploidy

A

high AFP, high uE3, high hCG if diandry but low if digyny

21
Q

Conditions indicated by very low uE3 (2)

A

SLO and x-linked ichthyosis

22
Q

MSS results congenital finnish nephrosis

A

extremely high AFP (levels of 30+)

23
Q

Integrated screening steps and detection rate

A

1st trimester screening (NT, PAPP-A, hCG) –> 2nd trimester screening (AFP, uE3, inhibin A)

  • 91-96% detection rate for T21 and T18
  • results are withheld until both are complete
  • eliminates option of CVS
24
Q

Indications for NIPT

A

AMA, abnormal serum screening, personal or fam hx of aneuploidy, abnormal ultrasound

25
Q

types of Herpes

A
  • type 1 & type 2

- type 2 is genital form, which causes the problem

26
Q

Time of Herpes greatest risk

A
  • primary maternal infection causes the greatest risk early in pregnancy and near term
  • 1st trimester infection poses risk for CNS malformations
  • no curable treatment
27
Q

High AFP differentials

A
  • ONTDs
  • abdominal wall defects
  • finnish nephrosis (really high)
  • adverse outcomes (