Prenatal screening, dx, tx Flashcards

1
Q

cystic fibrosis - what kind of inheritance?

A

AR

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2
Q

median survival for CF patients

A

30 years

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3
Q

what are the 2 most common mutations in CF?

A

deltaF508 and G542X

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4
Q

what is risk of fetus being + for an AR disorder if both mother and father are carriers? What is next step if both parents are found to be carriers?

A

25%. Amniocentesis or CVS to dx fetus.

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5
Q

rate of CF carriers among caucasians

A

1 in 28

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6
Q

pattern of inheritance for sickle cell

A

AR

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7
Q

who should be screened for sickle cell?

A

all pg AfAms

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8
Q

pattern of inheritance for tay-sachs

A

AR

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9
Q

signs & sx’s of tay-sachs:

A
occur 3-10mos after birth.
loss of alertness
hyperacusis
progressive neuro'c degeneration, dvp'l delay
myoclonic & akinetic seizures
cherry-red spots on retina (macular fovea centralis is red, macula is pale)
paralysis, blindness, dementia
death by age 4
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10
Q

Tay-Sachs is a def’y of what?

A

enz def’y (hexA) which is responsible for ganglioside degradation.
Results in ganglioside accumulation in brain gray matter neurons => neuronal death.

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11
Q

who gets screened for Tay-Sachs

A

ashkenazi Jews, French canadians

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12
Q

when is beta thalassemia dx’d? More common in who?

A

several months after birth, when the beta-globin chain starts to replace fetal gamma-globin chains. More common in Mediterranean, Asian, African

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13
Q

what are the different types of alpha thalassemia?

A

4 diff alleles encode alpha globin gene.
Deletion of 1 alpha-globin gene = silent carrier, asx’c.
deletion of 2 = alpha-thal trait. Normal Hb electrophoresis, mild pht.
deletion of 3 = HbH dis. excess beta chains
accumulate
deletion of all 4 = hydrops fetalis. They only produce HbBart.

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14
Q

how do you screen for thalassemias?

A

do a CBC in high-risk populations. If microcytic anemia is found, then do Hgb electrophoresis.

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15
Q

cis vs. trans mutations of alpha globin gene: which is more common in who?

A
cis = 2 alpha globin muts, both on same chrom.  More common in Asians.
trans = 2 alpha globin muts, on diff chroms.  More common in Africans.
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16
Q

why is dtm’n of cis vs. trans mutation important?

A

if both parents have cis mut, then there’s a 25% chance that fetus will dvp hydrops fetalis. If both have trans, the child will get the trans mut and will be an asx’c carrier.

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17
Q

when to screen for trisomy 21 and how?

A

use triple or quad screen, b/w 15 and 19 weeks (second trimester)

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18
Q

first trimester screen for down syndrome =

A

nuchal translucency + b-hCG + PAPP-A (pg’y-ass’d plasma prot A)

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19
Q

Trisomy 18 is screened for how?

A

triple screen during 2nd tri

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20
Q

findings of trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome)

A

clenched fists, overlapping digits, rocker bottom feet seen on u/s. VSD, tetralogy of fallot, omphalocele, congenital diaphragmatic hernia, neural tube defects, choroid plexus cysts.
Incompatible w/life beyond age 2.

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21
Q

Trisomy 13 is screened for how?

A

Not detected by triple screen but on routine screening u/s. CP is similar to trisomy 18. Most do not live beyond 1 year. Holoprosencephaly, cleft lip, cleft palate, cystic hygroma, single nostril or absent nose, omphalocele, hypoplastic left heart, club foot, club hand, polydactyly, overlapping fingers.

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22
Q

what are the most common sex chromosome abnormalities?

A

Turner (45X), Klinefelter (47XXY)

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23
Q

CP of turner syndrome

A

pht’lly female, primary amenorrhea, webbed neck, low-set ears, wide carrying angle, shield chest, short 4th metacarpal, renal anomalies, lymphedema, coarctation of aorta, cystic hygroma seen on prenatal u/s.

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24
Q

screening for Turner syndrome?

A

none. Dx’d w/CVS.

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25
Q

screening for Klinefelter syndrome?

A

none. Dx’d w/CVS.

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26
Q

CP of Klinefelter:

A

small, firm testes at puberty, infertility, gynecomastia, mental retardation, elevated gonadotropin levels.

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27
Q

what 2 chromosomal abnormalities are screened for on the triple or quad screens?

A

Trisomy 21 and 18.

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28
Q

what is a morula & when does it dvp?

A

16-cell embryo, day 4

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29
Q

what is blastocyst?

A

product of morula separating into inner & outer cell mass. Implants into endometrium by week 1

30
Q

what does trophoblast become?

A

placenta

31
Q

inner cell mass becomes the…

A

bilaminar disk, composed of epiblast & hypoblast

32
Q

what is gastrulation & when?

A

form’n of primitive streak on epiblast, then formation of 3 germ layers. Occurs during week 3.

33
Q

what does each germ layer give rise to?

A

endoderm => GI and resp’y systems
mesoderm => CV, msk, GU systems
ectoderm => skin, nervous system, sensory organs

34
Q

when does organogenesis occur

A

week 3 to 8 after conception (5-10 of GA)

35
Q

when does neural tube form?

A

day 22-23

36
Q

when do most neural tube defects occur and why

A

occur by week 4, as a result of failed closure of neural tube

37
Q

spina bifida findings on u/s

A

“lemon” sign - concave frontal bones
“banana” sign - cerebellum pulled caudally & flattened
ventriculomegaly
club feet

38
Q

what MSAFP finding occurs in neural tube defects?

A

elevated MSAFP levels

39
Q

when does cardiac development occur?

A

week 3

40
Q

what is the bulbus cordis

A

caudal section of the heart tube. Develops into trabeculated part of RV, outflow tracts of both ventricles, and proximal aorta & PA

41
Q

how does cardiac septum form

A

endocardial cushions separate atria from ventricles. Atria divide into R and L by septum primum and septum secundum

42
Q

what is Eisenmenger syndrome:

A

VSD or PDA initially causes L–>R shunt. W/time, RVH dvps, => pulm HTN, dir of flow thru shunt reverses (now R–>L)

43
Q

what are the cardiac findings of tetralogy of fallot

A

VSD
overriding aorta
pulm a. stenosis
RVH

44
Q

what is the ductus arteriosus?

A

vessel connecting PA to aorta in fetus. Shunts de-O2’d blood from PA away from undvp’d fetal lungs into systemic circl’n.

45
Q

what is potter syndrome?

A

bilat renal agenesis or distal urinary obstr’n => anhydramnios => pulm hypoplasia, contractures

46
Q

how do kidneys dvp?

A

3 “scafffolds” dvp and regress sequentially.
1) Pronephros - nonfct’l
2) Mesonephros - temporarily fct’l, => formation of mesonephric duct (Wolffian).
Ureteric bud comes off of it - forms collecting tubules, calyces, renal pelvis, ureter.
3) Metanephros - forms nephrons. Gets connected to ureteric bud.

47
Q

what does Wolffian (mesonephric) duct become?

A

in males, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, seminal vesicles.
In females, degenerates. Gartner duct remains (can have cyst formation)

48
Q

what happens if ureteric bud does not contact the metanephros?

A

nephrons do not connect to collecting tubules => renal agenesis. Potter syndrome ensues.

49
Q

what does the bladder derive from?

A

UG sinus

50
Q

what is the urachus?

A

The obliterated allantois. A fibrotic cord that becomes median umbilical lig.

51
Q

what is the allantois?

A

embryonic structure responsible for waste collection and oxygenation.

52
Q

tx for Potter syndrome

A

none. Have attempted in utero ablation of urinary obstruction if that was the cause, but conflicting results.

53
Q

what is a first-tri screen for aneuploidy?

A

Nuchal translucency

54
Q

what is a second-tri screen for aneuploidy?

A

MSAFP, triple screen, quad screen

55
Q

triple screen findings for Trisomy 21

A

low MSAFP
low estriol
high b-hCG

56
Q

triple screen findings for Trisomy 18

A

low MSAFP
Low estriol
Low b-hCG

57
Q

what does a +LR tell you?

ex: a 37 yo G1P0 has an odds of 2.0 (made that up) of giving birth to a Downs baby. The MSAFP test has a +LR of 1.5.

A

You need pre-test odds. Then if pt tests +, the odds is increased by a that amt.
ex: if she tests + on the MSAFP (has a low level), her odds increases from 2.0 to 3.0 of having a downs baby.

58
Q

what is an echogenic intracardiac focus?

A

a “soft call” u/s finding c/w Down syndrome

is a calcification of papillary m. w/no obvious pathophysiology

59
Q

what are the 3 methods of prenatal dx?

A

amniocentesis
CVS
percutaneous umbilical blood sampling

60
Q

how is amniocentesis done & when?

A

done anytime after 15 weeks. Needle placed through mom’s skin into uterus to sample some of amniotic fluid, collect sloughed fetal cells, cells are cx’d and karyotyped or FISHed.

61
Q

who gets amniocentesis?

A

parents who are known carriers of genetic dis.

offered to all moms of AMA

62
Q

what is the risk of miscarriage for amniocentesis?

A

1 in 200

63
Q

how is CVS done and when?

A

done b/w 9 and 12 weeks. Needle placed transabdominally or transvaginally. Chorionic vili from placenta are sampled. Results are quicker than amniocentesis.

64
Q

what is risk of miscarriage for CVS?

A

higher than 1 in 200

65
Q

how can false +’s occur in CVS?

A

rare cases of confined placental mosaicism. Cells of placenta that are sampled during CVS do not reflect fetal cells.

66
Q

when is PUBS done?

A

when fetal hct m/b obtained - w/u of fetal anemia, Rh isoimmunization
rapid karyotype analysis (no need to cx cells like in amnio or CVS)

67
Q

diff b/w level I and level II u/s?

A

level I u/s is a screening u/s, done b/w 18 & 22 weeks.

level II u/s can better pick up congenital anomalies, is ordered when level I is abnormal.

68
Q

when is fetal echocardiography used?

A

in pts at high-risk for cardiac anomalies, esp pregestational DM

69
Q

when is fetal MRI used?

A

to eval for hypoxic brain injury

70
Q

what is a 3D u/s?

A

makes an image that looks more like a fetus, but doesn’t offer any more dx’c ability than a 2D u/s.