Prenatal care Flashcards

1
Q

When do you test for GBS?

A

After 36 weeks typically - they are valid for 5 weeeks and given most will deliver by 41 weeks covers most women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why do we care about GBS?

A

To prevent early onset GBS sepsis in newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What if women’s urine grows GBS?

A

GBS bacteriuria is present in any amountat any time during pregnancy, this is considered a positive result (proxy for heavy colonization), and thus repeat screening is not necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What about GBS in preterm women who have not been tested?

A

In the case of prematurity, treatment should begin while awaiting screen results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the gold standard for GBS treatment?

A

gold standard for the treatment of GBS colonization intrapartum to reduce risk to neonates for early-onset disease is penicillin G.

loading dose of 5 million units loading, then 2.5-3 million units IV every 4 hours until delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long do you need for GBS tx to work?

A

Studies done with PCN or ampicillin prophylaxis demonstrate that 4 or more hours pf prophylaxis is preferable, though 2 hours has been shown to reduce GBS count and decrease neonatal sepsis. That said, obstetric intervention should not be delayed solely to provide 4 hours of antibiotic administration., when it is indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What if patient is PCN allergy with positive GBS?

A
  • ask about allergies
  • low risk: ancef; high risk: clinda
  • try and do allergy testing during pregnancy
  • get susceptibiltiy testing in the lab if no testing
    (Clindamycin should only be utilized if culture results have shown susceptibility)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When to pursue GBS tx in preterm labor? What risk factor

A
  • Prematurity or PPROM (< 36 weeks 6 days)
  • History of a prior newborn affected by GBS disease
  • Amniotic membrane rupture > 18 hours duration
  • Presence of intrapartum fever > 100.4F (38 C)
  • If known GBS positive result in a previous pregnancy (may engage in shared decision making in this clinical scenario).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two kinds of testing for GBS?

A

culture (takes longer) vs rapid test (shorter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When can you NOT treat for GBS bacteriuria?

A

If asymptomatic GBS bacteriuria is present at >10^5 CFU/mL, treatment should be considered as you would for any other form of ASB. If at less than 10^5 CFU, no correlation has been found between treatment of this lower-level bacteriuria and improved maternal or neonatal outcomes; however, it should still be noted that this patient would be considered GBS positive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should RhoGam be given?

A

At 28 weeks, post-delivery within 72 hours, and sensitizing bleeding events in either 1st/2nd vs 3rd trimester
- RhIg should also be given within 72 hours of a sensitizing event – that is, one that causes or potentially causes bleeding at the fetal-maternal interface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is alloimmunization?

A

formation of maternal antibodies against blood group antigens not possessed by the mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the tests we use to give amount of RhoGam?

A

KB test measures the amount of fetal hemoglobin in the mother’s circulation, and thus estimates the amount of RhIg needed to prevent alloimmunization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the half-life of RhoGam, and when can you hold off on redosing?

A

• RhIg has a half life of about 23 days, and thus a 300mcg dose is detectable for approximately 12 weeks.
- Redosing may be held if delivery or subsequent sensitizing events occur within 3 weeks (or 1 half life) of a dose; redosing should be more strongly considered after this interval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn get started?

A

Generally, a sensitizing pregnancy (1st event) is unaffected as antibodies are created in maternal serum from the first exposure to Rh(+) antigen.
Subsequent infants with Rh(+) types will be affected by disease as antibodies in maternal serum cross and attack fetal red cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How much Rhogam should be given depending on timing of sensitive event? What about for late 2nd trimester or 3rd trimester event?

A

• 50 - 120 mcg RhIg before 12 weeks.

  • 300mcg dose for events after 12 weeks.
  • Late 2nd or 3rd trimester bleeding events have a more significant risk for alloimmunization, as fetal blood volume is higher. So get the KB test. and type and screen.
17
Q

What is the difference between FGR and SGA? and what is the threshold?

A

Less than 10% percentile
Fetal growth restriction - prior to delivery
small for gestational age - after birth

18
Q

When should you begin checking fundal heights?

A

After 24 weeks, and if greater than 3 discrepancy between GA and estimated FH, then can pursue ultrasounding.

19
Q

What should the surveillance for FGR be?

A

serial USG - every 3-4 weeks

20
Q

What is the role of UA doppler velocimetery?

A

Identifying impedance in flow via umbilical artery – linked to FGR indicates placental insufficiency and absent/reversed end diastolic flow linked with perinatal mortality.

In systole, the blood is being pumped forward, and in diastole, the blood should still move forward, but may be slower than in systole. We look at the S:D ratios, or the speed of the blood flow toward the placenta in systole compared to diastole

With increasing placental dysfunction comes placental resistance. Therefore, this can start to affect forward flow from the umbilical arteries.

In systole, the blood should always flow forward.

However, in diastole, without the heart as a pump, that blood flow can slow down. This is where we can begin to see elevated S:D ratios! Generally, elevated is >95%ile.

21
Q

What are the etiologies of FGR? Name three categories

A

maternal (chronic conditions, nutrition, substance/teratogen exposure) / fetal (genetic / strutural disorders) / placental (umbilical cord abnormalities)

22
Q

What are risks of FGR?

A

Infants with birthweights <10th%ile have increase risk of acidosis at birth, low 5 min Apgar scores, and need for NICU admission, as well as 2-5x rates of perinatal death

23
Q

What is threshold of severe FGR and what are implications?

A

EFW <3% has been associated with an increased risk of adverse perinatal outcome irrespective of UA or MCA Dopplers.

24
Q

What to do with umbilical artery ultrasounds?

A

Once fetal growth restriction is diagnosed, UAs should be serially assessed, usually 1-2 weeks depending on your institution

If elevated, they should be assessed more frequently
The SMFM series also recommends assessment of dopplers 2-3x/week when UAs become AEDF to assess for REDF

25
Q

When do we deliver FGR?

A

if > 3% and normal UA/testing – by 39th week; if < 3% or > S:D ratio, by 37th week; if absent/reversed diastolic flow, should be earlier (by 33 for absent and 30 by reversed diastolic flow)

26
Q

how should we counsel patients to count kicks? for fetal movement

A

lie on their side and count 10 movements over a 2 hour period as reassuring

27
Q

What is a contraction stress test? and what can be used?

A

An adequate CST requires three contractions persisting for at least 40 seconds each in a 10 minute period. If the CST is inadequate, contractions can be stimulated with IV oxytocin or nipple stimulation.

28
Q

What if you do not see a minimal viable pocket > 2cm on US?

A

Oligohydramnios is a separate and significant risk for stillbirth – remember that delivery is recommended for this starting at 36’0 or later! Additional testing should definitely be performed if this is seen earlier than 36 weeks.

29
Q

What is a modified BPP?

A

just the NST in addition to assessment of amniotic fluid volume. If either of these is abnormal, the usual next step is to proceed with the remainder of the BPP.

30
Q

What are the 5 parts to a complete BPP?

A

NST and 4 US components
- Amniotic fluid volume: per the practice bulletin, a single deepest vertical pocket of greater than 2 cm is adequate.
Some practices may use the amniotic fluid index instead, or in addition to, a measurement of the deepest vertical pocket. RCTs suggest that DVP is acceptable and may even be preferred.

  • Fetal movement: three or more discrete body or limb movements.
  • Fetal tone: one or more episodes of extension of a fetal extremity with return to flexion, or opening and closing of a hand.
  • Fetal breathing movements: One or more episodes of fetal breathing movements of 30 seconds or more.

All of the ultrasound criteria should be observed in 30 minutes or less.

31
Q

How is a BPP scored and what are the actions?

A

Each component is scored as a 0 (if criteria not met) or 2 (if criteria met), including the NST.

8-10 / 10: normal

6 / 10: equivocal - generally repeat in 6-12 hours

4 or less / 10: abnormal – context dependent - deliver or repeat testing pending situation