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PRELIM Flashcards

1
Q

Containment principles, technologies and practices that are implemented to prevent unintentional exposure to biological agents or their inadvertent release.

A

BIOSAFETY

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2
Q

Principles, technologies and practices that are implemented for the protection, control and accountability of biological materials and/or the equipment, skills and data related to their handling. It aims to prevent their unauthorized access, loss, theft, misuse, diversion or release.

A

BIOSECURITY

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3
Q

describes safe methods for managing infectious materials in the laboratory environment where they are being handled or maintained.
*To reduce exposure

A

CONTAINMENT

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4
Q

Not known to constantly cause disease to adults, not too harmful. What biosafety level is this?

A

bsl 1

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5
Q

microbes in this bsl has a pose moderate potential hazard

A

bsl 2

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6
Q

it describes safe
methods for managing infectious
materials in the laboratory
environment where they are being
handled or maintained.

A

containment

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7
Q

WHAT BSL LEVEL;
Exotic agents that pose a high risk of
aerosol-transmitted laboratory infections and
life-threatening disease that is frequently fatal,
for which there are no vaccines or treatments.

A

BSL 4

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8
Q

WHAT BSL LEVEL
-Air-supplied positive pressure suit that covers
the full body must be worn.
-Examples:
Ebola virus, Smallpox Virus, Marburg viruses

A

BSL 4

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9
Q

WHAT BSL LEVEL//?
Indigenous or exotic microbes that may cause
serious or potentially lethal disease via
inhalation.

A

BSL 3

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10
Q

WHAT BSL
Examples:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Covid-19 virus,
HIV, H1N1, Yersinia pestis, SARS, rabies,
West Nile viruses, and Rickettsia.

A

BSL 3

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11
Q

WHAT BSL
➢ Microbes pose moderate potential hazard to
personnel and the environment.
➢ Varying severity
➢ The microbes usually infect humans and
produce diseases of different degrees of
severity.
➢ They include microorganisms that cause mild
symptoms to human or are not usually
acquired through airborne particles in a
laboratory environment.

A

BSL 2

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12
Q

WHAT BSL
Examples:
Staphylococcus aureus, Chlamydiae,
Hepatitis A, B, and C, Influenza A,
Salmonella, Mumps, and Measles.

A

BSL 2

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13
Q

COV 2 specimen, it must be processed within a
BSL-__ – follow BSL procedures.

A

BSL 3

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14
Q

If the skin or face is accidentally splattered
by corrosive or harmful chemicals, bacterial or
cell culture
✓ Immediately use emergency safety
shower and flush skin or face with
water for at least __ minutes, if eyes
are affected use the eyewash station.

A

15 MINS

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15
Q

Used agar or any solid material (petri dishes,
pipette tips, toothpicks, cuvettes, soaked paper
towel, etc.)
o should be autoclaved at 121°C for __
min under __ psi.

A

3O MINS UNDER 15 PSI

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16
Q

_________ must be disinfected with 10% bleach
solution 30 min or autoclaved at 121°C for 30
min at 15 psi, and subsequently discarded on
the sink.

A

CULTURES

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17
Q

SOLID WASTE
o has to be autoclaved in special
biohazard bags at ___°C for __ min.

A

121°C for 20 min

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18
Q

LIQUID WASTE
o Either disinfected with 10% ______
solution 30 min,
- Can also be 10% Clorox
o Or autoclaved at 121°C for 20 min,
and then poured down the sink.

A

o Either disinfected with 10% bleach
solution 30 min,

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19
Q

T OR F
Most buffers can be poured down the
sink.

A

TRUEW

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20
Q

an unbranched polymer
in which the monomer units are
nucleotides.

A

nucleic acid

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21
Q

a three-subunit molecule in which a
pentose sugar is bonded to a phosphate group and a nitrogen-containing heterocyclic base.

A

nucleotide

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22
Q

3 PYRIMIDINE DERIVATIVES FOUND IN
NUCLEOTIDES:

A
  • Thymine (T)
  • Cytosine (C)
  • Uracil (U)
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23
Q

2 PURINE DERIVATIVES FOUND IN
NUCLEOTIDES:

A
  • Adenine (A)
  • Guanine (G)
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24
Q

Adenine, Guanine, and Cytosine can be found in both DNA and RNA.

t or f

A

true !

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25
Q

Uracil can be found in DNA

A

FALSE! URACIL IS ONLY FOUND IN RNA !!

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26
Q

DNA OR RNA:
THYMINE?

A

DNA

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27
Q

It is the third component of a nucleotide

A

phosphate

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28
Q

the pentose sugar and nitrogen-
containing base react to form a two-
subunit entity called a _________.

A

nucleoside (sa nucleotide formation 2 guys eto yung first step process :> )

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29
Q

Addition of a phosphate group to a
nucleoside produces a ____________

A

nucleotide

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30
Q

The nucleotide units within a nucleic acid
molecule are linked to each other through:

A
  • sugar–phosphate bonds
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31
Q

They gave an explanation for the base
composition patterns associated with
DNA molecules

A

▪ American microbiologist: James Watson
▪ English biophysicist: Francis Crick.

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32
Q

The 2 strands in DNA are connected by ___________________
between their bases.

A

hydrogen bonds

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33
Q

A physical restriction, the size of the interior
of the DNA double helix, limits the base pairs
that can hydrogen-bond to one another.

A

BASE PAIRING

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34
Q

➢ are pairs of bases in a nucleic acid
structure that can hydrogen-bond to
each other.

A

COMPLEMENTARY BASES

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35
Q

is the biochemical process by which DNA
molecules produce exact duplicates of
themselves.

A

DNA REPLICATION

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36
Q

This enzyme
* verifies that the base pairing is
correct
* and then catalyzes the formation of a
new phosphodiester linkage between
the nucleotide and the growing
strand.

A

dna polymerase

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37
Q

PRIMERS are produced by

A

DNA PRIMASE

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38
Q

The breaks or gaps in this daughter strand
are called _____

A

NICKS

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39
Q

The strand that grows continuously is called
the?

A

leading strand

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40
Q

The process of DNA unwinding does not have
to begin at an end of the DNA molecule. It
may occur at any location within the molecule.

T OR F

A

TRUEW

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41
Q

➢ is an individual DNA molecule bound to a
group of proteins.

A

CHROMOSOMES

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42
Q

Once the DNA within a cell has been
replicated, it interacts with specific proteins in
the cell called ______ to form structural
units that provide the most stable
arrangement for the long DNA molecules.

A

HISTONES

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43
Q

consists of a purine or a pyrimidine
base that is covalently bonded to a
sugar.

A

NUCLEOSIDES

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44
Q

➢ The chemical bond that connects all
nucleotides together to form a nucleic
acid molecule.

A

3’,5’-PHOSPHODIESTER BOND

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45
Q

➢ necessary to initiate DNA replication

A

RNA PRIMERS

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46
Q

▪ unravels the DNA double
strands

A

DNA helicase

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47
Q

▪ stabilizes the unwound regions
as replication proceeds, this
protects the single-stranded
DNA from exonuclease
attacks.

A

Single-Stranded DNA Binding Protein
(SSB)

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48
Q

▪ is necessary to facilitate the
unwinding of the twisted DNA
without breaking the strands.

A

DNA topoisomerase I

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49
Q

➢ is RNA formed directly by DNA
transcription

A

HETEROGENEOUS NUCLEAR RNA (hnRNA)

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50
Q

➢ is RNA that carries instructions for
protein synthesis (genetic information)
to the sites for protein synthesis.

A

MESSENGER RNA (mRNA)

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51
Q

➢ is RNA that facilitates the conversion
of heterogeneous nuclear RNA to
messenger RNA.

A

SMALL NUCLEAR RNA (snRNA)

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52
Q

➢ is RNA that combines with specific
proteins to form ribosomes

A

RIBOSOMAL RNA (rRNA)

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53
Q

➢ is RNA that delivers amino acids to the
sites for protein synthesis

A

TRANSFER RNA (tRNA)

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54
Q

the process by which DNA directs
the synthesis of hnRNA/mRNA
molecules that carry the coded
information needed for protein
synthesis.

A

TRANSCRIPTION

55
Q

IT carry the coded
information needed for
protein synthesis.

A

hnRNA/mRNA

56
Q

It helps the conversion of
hnRNA to mRNA

A

snRNA

57
Q

o is involved in the linkage of
ribonucleotides to the
growing hnRNA molecule.

A

RNA polymerase

58
Q

➢ The RNA produced from a gene through
transcription is _____, the precursor for
mRNA

A

hnRNA

59
Q

Is a gene segment that conveys
(codes for) genetic information.

A

exon

60
Q

➢ a gene segment that does not convey
(code for) genetic information.

A

INTRON

61
Q

➢ is the process of removing introns
from an hnRNA molecule
➢ joining the remaining exons together
to form an mRNA molecule.

A

splicing

62
Q

➢ is always found complexed with
proteins in particles called small
nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles
* which are usually called
snRNPs (snurps)

A

snRNA MOLECULE

63
Q

➢ is a large assembly of snRNA
molecules
➢ and proteins involved in the
conversion of hnRNA molecules to
mRNA molecules.

A

SPLICEOSOME

64
Q

is a process by which several different
proteins that are variations of a basic
structural motif can be produced from a
single gene.
* End product is the variation of the
gene

A

alternative splicing

65
Q

➢ is a three-nucleotide sequence in an
mRNA molecule that codes for a
specific amino acid.

A

➔ CODON

66
Q

➢ is the assignment of the 64 mRNA
codons to specific

A

GENETIC CODE

67
Q

There is a pattern to the arrangement of
synonyms in the genetic code table.

t or f?

A

true ! - Left side is the first letters
- upper part is the second letters
- right side is for the third letters

68
Q

Has an active site
for tRNA and a
binding site for the
particular amino acid
that is to be
attached to the
tRNA

A

Aminoacyl-tRNA
synthetase

69
Q

a three-
nucleotide sequence on a
tRNA molecule that
is complementary
to a codon on an
mRNA molecule.

A

anticodon

70
Q

the process by which mRNA
codons are deciphered in a
particular protein

A

translation

71
Q

Next to the P site in an mRNA–ribosome
complex is a second binding site called

A
  • the A site (aminoacyl site)
72
Q

➢ is the part of translation in which a
ribosome moves down an mRNA
molecule three base positions (one
codon) so that a new codon can

A

TRANSLOCATION

73
Q

step 1 in translation phase

A

activation of tRNA

74
Q

step 2 in translation phase

➢ The mRNA attaches to a ribosome so that
the first codon (AUG) is at the P site.
➢ A tRNA carrying methionine attaches to a
first codon.

A

initiation

75
Q

➢ Another tRNA with the second amino acid
binds at the A site.
➢ The methionine transfers from P site to the
A site.
➢ The ribosome shifts to the next codon,
making its A site available for the tRNA
carrying the third amino acid.

step 3 in translation phase

A

elongation

76
Q

step 4 & 5 in translation phase
➢ The polypeptide chain continues to
lengthen until a stop codon appears on the
mRNA.
➢ The new protein is cleaved from the last
tRNA.
➢ During this post-translation processing,
cleavage of Met (the initiation codon)
usually occurs.
➢ S-S bonds between Cys units can also
form

A

TERMINATION AND POST-
TRANSLATION PROCESSING

77
Q

a complex of mRNA and several
ribosomes.

A

polyribosome

78
Q

➢ is an error in base sequence in a gene that is
reproduced during DNA replication.
➢ Passed on during transcription

A

mutation

79
Q
  • a substance or agent that causes a
    change in the structure of a gene.
A

MUTAGEN

80
Q

common type of mutation is a

A

point mutation

81
Q

a mutation in which one
nucleotide is substituted for
another.

A

point mutation

82
Q

➢ From the original sequence, a
nucleotide was replaced by a
different nucleotide
➢ So instead of cytosine, the mutated
sequence produced thymine

(type of mutation)

A

substitution

83
Q

➢ There is a substitution in one
nucleotide of a codon. But the
sequence still produced the same
amino acid

A

silent mutation

84
Q

➢ There is an amino acid substitution.
The change in nucleotide resulted to a
change in the amino acid

A

missense

85
Q

➢ The substitution resulted to having a
stop codon

A

nonsense

86
Q

➢ Is a procedure used to isolate DNA from the
nucleus of cells from other cellular
components

A

dna extraction

87
Q
  • remove proteinaceous
    material
A

phenol/chloroform

88
Q

examples of organic extraction reagent are ?

A
  • Cell lysis Buffer
  • EDTA
  • Proteinase K
  • Phenol/ chloroform
  • TE buffer
  • Ethanol
89
Q

In inorganic DNA extraction, Digested proteins are removed by ?

A

salting out

90
Q

Relies on the fact that the nucleic acids may
bind (adsorption) to the solid phase (silica or
other)
➢ A spin column using a silica-based
extraction method is used, this does not
require the use of hazardous chemicals.

A

minicolumn purification

91
Q

are attracted to the silica bead
under high chaotropic salt concentrations

A

nucleic acids

92
Q

Degrades single stranded RNA

A

RNAse (ThermoFisher)

93
Q

dissolves RNAse

A

buffer 1

94
Q

digests proteins

A

proteinase K

95
Q

SEPARATE DNA FROM OTHER CELLULAR

A

PHENOL, CHLOROFORM

96
Q

PRECIPITATES DNA FROM SOLUTION

A

ETHANOL

97
Q

DISSOLVES PRECIPITATED AND DRIED DNA

A

TRIS-EDTA

98
Q

The most frequently used method Of
concentration is

A
  • ethanol precipitation
99
Q

With a pure sample of DNA, the ratio of the
absorbance at ___ nm and 280 nm
equals 1.8

A

260

100
Q

➢ Common laboratory contaminant
➢ Also released from cellular components
during isolation of RNA from biological
samples
➢ Difficult to inactivate

A

RNases

101
Q

is a ready-to-use reagent used for
RNA isolation from cells and tissues.
➢ It works by maintaining RNA integrity during
tissue homogenization, while at the same time
disrupting and breaking down cells and cell
components.

➢ Is light sensitive and often stored in a dark-
colored, glass container covered in foil

A

TRIzol reagent

102
Q

Proteins/DNA
* are precipitated with a ____
concentration salt solution

A

high

103
Q

➢ RNA
* is precipitated with _______ and
rehydrated

A

alcohol

104
Q
  • utilize membranes that are seated at
    the bottom of a small plastic basket
A

Filter-based formats

105
Q

In UV Spectroscopy, the A260/A280 ratio is used to assess
?

A

RNA purity

106
Q

In UV Spectroscopy, An A260/A280 ratio of 2.0 indicates
what?

A

indicates highly purified RNA

107
Q

the application of practices that will protect,
regulate, and account for microorganisms
held in the laboratory that will avert their
misuse, loss, illicit access, pilfering, or
deliberate release

A

LAB BIOSECURITY

108
Q

➔ The practice of precautionary measures to
minimize possible exposure of the laboratory
worker to hazards coming from materials that
are potentially infectious.
➔ This applies to the reduction of possibility of
contamination of the workplace, and
eventually the population.

A

LAB BIOSAFETY

109
Q
  • the space must have a
    window, where specimen can
    pass through from outside to
    inside reception
A
  • Specimen reception
110
Q

Provides a physical method of
sterilization by killing bacteria, viruses,
and even spores present in the material
put inside of the vessel using steam
under pressure.

A

AUTOCLAVE

111
Q

o A closed device primarily for processes
or instruments sensitive to microbial
contamination

A

LAMINAR FLOW/ LAMINAR HOOD

112
Q

o Simple device used commonly in
laboratories to mix small vials of
liquid.

A

VORTEX MIXER

113
Q

o It is a compact type of centrifuge ideal
for separating small liquid samples at
high speed (usually more than 6,000
rpm).

A

MICRO CENTRIFUGE

114
Q

o For quick spin-downs of 5ml
centrifuge tubes
o Includes adapters for 12x75mm tubes
o Conserves valuable bench space
o Starts and stops with closing/opening
of the lid

A

MINI CENTRIFUGE

115
Q

o a procedure that separates
components of liquids that
have different weights.

A

Centrifugation

116
Q

o designed for small
tubes of between 0.2
mL and 2.0 mL.

A

Microcentrifuge

117
Q

➢ Instrument used to measure how much
a chemical substance absorbs light
by measuring the intensity of light as
beam of light passes through sample
solution.

A

SPECTROPHOTOMETER

118
Q

➢ used to amplify (like a photocopier) a
specific region of any DNA sample
with polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
in a test tube

A

THERMOCYCLER

119
Q

➢ used in molecular biology to separate
charged molecules such as DNA, RNA,
or proteins using an electric field.

A

ELECTROPHORESIS APPARATUS

120
Q

➢ an apparatus used for viewing DNA or
protein molecules separated by:
* agarose or polyacrylamide

A

UV TRANSILLUMINATOR

121
Q

A is a measure of a substance’s capacity to absorb light at a
given wavelength. It is equal to the logarithm of the reciprocal of the transmittance. It is also called optical density.
* It states that a substance’s concentration is directly
proportional to the amount of light absorbed or inversely proportional to the transmitted light logarithm

A

absorbance

122
Q

A mathematical relationship which is the basis of analysis
using spectrophotometry. It states that the amount of light absorbed by a substance is directly proportional to its concentration

A

beer’s law

123
Q

A tube that holds the solution to be analyzed using a
spectrophotometer. It is manufactured to strict standards for clarity and lack of distortion in the glass

A

cuvette

124
Q

A device which isolates the wavelength of interest in the
electromagnetic spectrum. This can be made up of colored glass filters, interference filters, prisms or diffraction gratings

A

monochromator

125
Q

A device that converts radiant energy to electrical energy.
Types of photodetectors are photocell, phototube, and photomultiplier tube

A

photo detector

126
Q

A solution which contains some of all the reagents used in the
test except the substance being tested

A

reagent blank

127
Q

is a graph which show
the relationship between concentrations and absorbances (or percent transmittances) of a series of standard solutions

A

standard curve

128
Q

A measure of how much light passes through a substance

A

transmittance

129
Q

Introduced by Mary Lou Pardue and Joseph Gall at Yale
University in 1969.
* In this technique, fluorescently labeled DNA probes are used to screen the interphase or metaphase spread of chromosomes on a glass slide

A

Fluorescence In-Situ Hybridization (FISH

130
Q

This technique was developed in 1977 by
James Alwine, David Kemp, and George Stark at Stanford University

A

northern blot

131
Q

The probe is a single-stranded DNA, where as the
target is usually RNA.
* It is also known as RNA plot is a technique used in
molecular biology research to study gene expression

A

northern blot

132
Q

can* There is blotting step and hybridization step.
* Both the probe and target nucleic acid or DNA.
* It used to detect the presence of the specific DNA by blotting technique with the use of DNA probes.
* It refers to the technique of transferring DNA

A

southern blot

133
Q

the double stranded formation or annealing
between two different single strands of DNA or RNA, due to complementary base pairing regions of these two nucleic acids

A

hybridization

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