midterm 15% Flashcards

1
Q
  • A molecular biology technique which simply makes many
    copies of specific DNA or genes which takes place in vitro,
    laboratory, or test tube, rather than in the cell.
A

POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION

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2
Q
  • PCR relies on thermostable DNA Polymerase, called
A

Taq Polymerase

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3
Q
  • Heat the reaction strongly to separate, or denature,
    the DNA strands.
A

DENATURING

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4
Q

This provides single-stranded template for the next step,
annealing.

A

denaturing

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5
Q
  • DNA synthesis requires that the template DNA be ______
    stranded.
A

single

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6
Q
  • The hydrogen bonds between the complementary bases in the double strands of the template DNA are broken by
    heating at what temp??
A

94° to 95°C for 30 to 60 seconds.

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7
Q

Cool the reaction so the primers can bind to their
complementary sequences on the single-stranded
template DNA.

A

annealing

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8
Q

oTemperature is ?? to allow primers to base
pair to complementary DNA template.

increased or decreased

A

decreased

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9
Q
  • After denaturation, the temperature is lowered typically
    between __°C to __°C for 30 to 60 seconds
A

47°C to 60°C for 30 to 60 seconds

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10
Q

The ________ temperature of a DNA molecule is described as the temperature at which half of the DNA strands are in a
single-stranded (ssDNA) state

A

melting

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11
Q
  • Raise the reaction temperatures so Taq polymerase
    extends the primers, synthesizing new strands of DNA.
A

extension

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12
Q

The temperature is raised, typically to __°C, to allow the
DNA polymerase to make a complimentary copy of template
starting from the primers.

A

72 deg

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13
Q
  • A typical PCR incudes _____ cycles of amplification, with a
    final extension cycle of 10 minutes at 72°C, followed by
    incubation at 4°C.
A

25-40

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14
Q
  • A typical PCR incudes 25-40 cycles of amplification, with a
    final extension cycle of __ minutes at 72°C, followed by
    incubation at 4°C.
A

10mins

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15
Q

Initial denaturation TEMP/TIME:

A

95°C, 5 min

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16
Q

Denaturation TEMP/TIME:

A

94°C, 1 min (25-40 cycles)

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17
Q
  • It is a technique in a conventional PCR procedure to
    visualize or check if the genes are amplified.
A

GEL ELECTROPHORESIS

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18
Q
  • Gel electrophoresis is a technique in which fragments of
    DNA are pulled through a gel matrix by an electric current,
    and it separates DNA fragments according to ?
A

SIZE

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19
Q

DNA of interest called

A

template DNA

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20
Q

It is extracted
from the sample and it contains the target sequence.

A

TEMPLATE DNA

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21
Q

Before starting PCR, the purity of the DNA of interest
should be checked using ?

A

spectrophotometer.

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22
Q

The higher absorbance means there are ?

A

MORE DNA

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23
Q

RATION OF A PURE DNA

A

1.8-2.0

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24
Q

RATIO WITH <1.8 MEANS

A

PROTEIN AND SOLVENT CONTAMINATION

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25
Q

RATION WITH >2.0 MEANS

A

rna contamination/ presence of chloroform or phenol

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26
Q
  • Short single-stranded synthetic oligodinucleotide that
    serve to start the DNA synthesis, which are
    complementary to the ends of each target DNA.
A

primer

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27
Q

are synthetic oligonucleotides that serve to
initiate DNA synthesis.

A

primers

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28
Q

A pair of primers is required, called ??

A

forward and reverse
primers

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29
Q
  • Primers range from ____ nucleotides and are single
    stranded.
A

15-30

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30
Q

________ temperature refers to the DNA
molecule

A

o Melting

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31
Q

the temperature level at
which 50% of the DNA template are singlestranded and 50% are double stranded.

A

melting temperature

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32
Q

each primer should not have
complementary bases WITHIN the sequences to
prevent FORMATION OF ?

A

HAIRPIN LOOP.

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33
Q
  • Each primer should not have complementary
    sequences BETWEEN F primers and R primers will
    FORMATION OF ?
A

PRIMER-DIMER.

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34
Q

means accurate synthesis.

A

high fidelity

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35
Q

 If there are excess dNTPs, the _____________
will bind to it.

A

magnesium

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36
Q
  • building blocks
    for the new DNA.
A

Deoxynucleotide triphosphates (dNTPs)

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37
Q

The recommended concentration of each dNTP is ______
uM in each reaction mixture.

A

200-250

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38
Q

Optimum temperature is 72°C
o Makes an error in every 125, 000th nucleotides
o Typically, the recommended concentration in the
reaction mixture is 0.02-0.03 U/uL (unit per
microliter)

A

THERMUS AQUATICUS

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39
Q

o Has proofreading ability
o High fidelity (accuracy) DNA polymerase
o Makes error only in every 676, 000th nucleotid

A

Pfu DNA Polymerase
o Pyrococcus furiosus
o

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40
Q

o It controls the shift of pH by regulating the amount
or the concentration of hydrogen ions in the
solution.

A

Tris-HCl buffer

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41
Q
  • Regulates amount of H+ ions in the solution
  • Specific pH level: 8.0-9.5
A

PCR BUFFERS

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42
Q

important for DNA Polymerase. It serves
as a cofactor, which is important for the specificity of
annealing of primers.

A

MAGNESIUM

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43
Q

the enzyme of choice for routine
amplification of small segments of DNA. Its optimal
temperature at 72°C.

A

TAQ POLYMERASE

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44
Q

o If there’s too much hydrogen ion in the solution, the
hydrogen ion will bind to the phosphate group of
dNTPs leading to the formation of ?

A

phosphoric acid.

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45
Q
  • Water used in the reaction mixture must be
    ?
A

nuclease-free.

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46
Q

a machine that automatically changes
the temperatures and incubation times in each cycle of
the PCR

A

THERMOCYCLER

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47
Q
  • The ideal dNTP concentration is ____ µM of each, but
    some enzymes may require as much as 400 µM each.
A

200

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48
Q

In dNTPs Lower concentration can _________ enzyme fidelity but the
yield may be reduced.

A

INCREASE

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49
Q
  • A method of separating electrically charged substances
    in a mixture (e.g., DNA, RNA, proteins, etc.).
A

electrophoresis

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50
Q
  • A method of separating electrically charged substances
    in a mixture (e.g., DNA, RNA, proteins, etc.).
A

electrophoresis

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51
Q

This electrophoresis technique was first developed by ? in 1930
for the study of serum proteins

A

Arne Tiselius

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52
Q
  • A type of electrophoresis in which supporting medium
    is a gel
A

GEL ELECTROPHORESIS

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53
Q

ELECTROPHORESIS: 3 PARTS are

A

voltage, supporting medium, buffer system

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54
Q

____________ gel structure held together by covalent
cross-linking of Acrylamide and N, N’-methylene
bisacrylamide
* Tougher than agarose gels

A

Polyacrylamide Gel (PAGE)

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55
Q
  • Most effective in separating DNA fragments of
    varying sizes from 100bp to 25kb.

what type of gel is this

A

agarose gel

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56
Q
  • It is a linear carbohydrate polymer composed of
    repeating units of agarobiose, which consists of
    alternating units of galactose and 3,6-anhydrogalactose
A

agarose gel

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57
Q
  • This is a procedure that separates molecules based on their rate of movement through agarose gel under the influence of an electrical field.
A

AGAROSE GEL ELECTROPHORESIS

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58
Q
  • It is placed in the liquid agarose after it has been poured
  • Removing the it from the hardened gel produces
    a series of wells used to load the DNA.
A

comb

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59
Q
  • Its function is to prevent the pH from changing. It is used
    to resist pH changes.
A

running buffer

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60
Q

used in analyzing
large sizes (around 1500 bp or higher); generates
less current compared to TBE

A

tris acetate EDTA

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61
Q

used in analyzing
smaller sizes or fragments.

A

tris borate EDTA

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62
Q
  • Also known as Molecular
    Weight Marker
  • It is usually dispensed in
    the first lane of the well.
A

DNA LADDER

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63
Q

most used DNA stains

A

ethidium bromide

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64
Q

oDerived from two species of seaweeds: Gelidium
and Glacilaria.

A
  • STANDARD (HIGH-MELTING-TEMPERATURE)
    AGAROSES
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65
Q

Gel casted horizontally in this gel

A

agarose

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66
Q

this gel is Commonly used for DNA
separations

A

agarose

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67
Q

Running buffer too diluted,
voltage too high results to

A

a poor resolution

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68
Q
  • This is used to separate very large DNA molecules.
  • This process uses more than one electrical field (e.g., one
    direction, horizontal, vertical, or opposite direction).
A

pulse-field gel electrohporesis

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69
Q

: The mobility of DNA molecules is HIGHLY
DEPENDENT ON THE ELECTRICAL FIELD applied to
the gel, because it disrupts hydrogen bonds t or f

A

true !!

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70
Q

a process that involves a
reverse transcriptase (RTase), an enzyme that
uses RNA as the template to make complementary
DNA (cDNA)

A

reverse transcription

71
Q

primers used in rt-pcr?

A

random hexamers & oligo dt pimers

72
Q
  • This primer is used for templates that does not contain
    mRNA. This is used to any RNA template except
    mRNA.
  • This primer does not require a Poly-A tail in its 3’ end.
A

RANDOM HEXAMERS

73
Q
  • This primer is used if the template is a messenger RNA
    (mRNA).
  • Oligo dT primers only attach to Poly-A tail, which is why
    the sample must have a Poly-A tail in its 3’ end.
  • Poly-A tail located in the 3’ end
A

OLIGO dT PRIMERS

74
Q

a technique used to amplify multiple
target sequences in a single PCR reaction using
multiple primer sets

A

multiplex-pcr

75
Q

This method is also used to detect different viral,
bacterial and other pathogens in a single tube.
oThe method is commonly used in Microbiology
lab applied in bacteria and viruses.

A

multiplex-pcr

76
Q
  • This method is used to detect deletions,
    polymorphisms, mutations, etc.,
A

multiplex pcr

77
Q
  • a modification of PCR that was
    designed to improve sensitivity and specificity.
  • involves the use of two primer sets
    and two successive PCR reactions.
    oEXTERNAL/OUTER PRIMERS
    oNESTED PRIMERS.
  • The process is repeated two (2) times.
A

nested pcr

78
Q

developed to increase both the
sensitivity and specificity of PCR. This technique uses two
pairs of amplification primers and two rounds of PCR

A

nested pcr

79
Q
  • It is also known as Real-time PCR.
  • It monitors the amplification of a targeted DNA
    molecule during the PCR (i.e., in real time).
A

QUANTITATIVE PCR (qPCR)

80
Q

TWO COMMON METHODS FOR THE
DETECTION OF PCR PRODUCTS in real-time
PCR are:

A

non-specific fluorescent dyes
sequence-specific DNA probes

81
Q
  • The ______________ of the real-time PCR reaction refers to the
    signal level during the INITIAL CYCLES OF PCR,
    usually cycles 3 to 15, in which there is little change in
    fluorescent signal
A

baseline

82
Q

The _______ of the real-time PCR reaction is the level
of signal that reflects a statistically significant
increase over the calculated baseline signal.

A

threshold

83
Q
  • The cycle at which the amplification plot crosses the
    threshold (i.e., there is a significant detectable increase
    in fluorescence).
  • CT can be a fractional number and allows calculation of
    the starting template amount
A

Cycle Threshold

84
Q
  • Dictates if the reaction/sample is correct and valid.
  • Rerun the sample if it does not contain value for IC.
A

Internal Control

85
Q
  • The time where the target is amplified.
  • There is an amplification is increasing.
A

Exponential Phase

86
Q
  • The level of reagent aligns to the target.
A

Linear Phase

87
Q
  • It reaches this phase when the reagents are exhausted
    and there are no site for binding of primers.
A

Plateau Phase

88
Q

The FLUORESCENCE is ? PROPORTIONAL to
the CONCENTRATION of the target.

directly or inveresly

A

DIRECTLY

89
Q

The CYLE NUMBER (CT Value) is ?
PROPORTIONAL to the CONCENTRATION of the target.

directly or inversely

A

INVERSELY

90
Q

two types of DNA analysis in qPCR

A

ds DNA binding dye chemistry
fluorophore-linked probes

91
Q

oIt intercalates with the double stranded DNA and
will form fluorescence. The more concentrated the
target, the more fluorescence.
oThe dye intercalates during extension phase
because dsDNA is only present in extension
phase.

A

DOUBLE-STRANDED DNA BINDING DYE

92
Q

Unsuitable for high-resolution melt curve analysis (HRM)

A

SYBR Green

93
Q
  • Less inhibitory to PCR;
  • Higher amount of concentration will not inhibit the PCR.
  • Suitable for qPCR using a fast-cycling protocol
  • It is more suitable for high resolution melt curve analysis.
A

EvaGreen

94
Q

A ?? will result if there are no contaminants
and the result is SPECIFIC.

A

single peak

95
Q
  • A multiple peak will result in the graph if there are
    presence of contaminants (e.g., primer-dimer). The first
    peak is a?
A

NON-SPECIFIC PRODUCT.

96
Q
  • Their mechanism of action relies on the 5′–3′
    exonuclease activity of Taq polymerase, which
    degrades the bound probe during amplification.
A

Hydrolysis Probes

97
Q

Fluorescence will only happen if there is an
_________ in the sequence because that is
where the action of polymerase (exonuclease
activity)

A

extension

98
Q

enables the absolute and reproducible
quantification of target nucleic acids

A

digital PCR

99
Q
  • It is method is preferred if a person is studying
    cancer or mutation because there is partitioning
    into multiple chambers.
  • Targets will have a fluorescence.
A

DIGITAL PCR

100
Q

iT is a
specific, simple, rapid and cost-effective nucleic acid
amplification method

A

Loop-mediated isothermal amplification (LAMP)

101
Q
  • It uses 4 to 6 primers (Forward Inner and Outer, Backward
    Inner and Outer).
  • The reaction time takes about 40-60 minutes. Adding
    another set of primers speeds up the reaction to 20-30
    minutes.
A

LAMP

102
Q

This method relies on the auto-cycling strand
displacement deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis
which is carried out at a constant temperature water
bath/heat block in the presence of Bacillus
stearothermophylus (Bst) DNA polymerase.

A

LAMP

103
Q

The process of determining the
sequence of nucleotide bases.

A

DNA SEQUENCING

104
Q

● This is not a DNA sequencing
technique, but rather a detection
technique.
● It will detect expressed genes.

A

DNA MICROARRAY

105
Q

Chain Termination Sequencing

A

SANGER TECHNIQUE

106
Q

Chemical Sequencing

A

MAXAM-GILBERT:

107
Q

it was the______________
Technique that was used in
1991 during the Human
Genome Project.

A

Sanger

108
Q

● The target DNA is targeted many
times. It is a PCR based
technique.

A

SANGER SEQUENCING

109
Q

is a unique component of the
Sanger Technique.

A

Dideoxyribonucleotides (ddNTP)

110
Q

ddNTP lacks a hydroxyl group
on the _____prime carbon.

A

THIRD

111
Q

this version requires
chemical modifications of the DNA
and further cleavage and
electrophoresis

A

MAXAM-GILBERT SEQUENCING

112
Q

A method of sequencing for
single-stranded DNA by taking
advantage of the two-step catalytic
process involving four chemicals
that will selectively attack the
purines and pyrimidines and the
addition of piperidine.

A

MAXAM-GILBERT SEQUENCING

113
Q

__________– cuts the DNA strand at
specific locations.

A

Piperidine

114
Q

In Maxam-Gilbert, For G and A, we add ??
to modify the purines.

A

formic acid

115
Q

For C and T, we add ? to
break the glycosidic bond between
the ribose sugar and the base

A

hydrazine

116
Q

__________ and _____ will
selectively cleave cytosine
nucleotides to differentiate it from
thymine.

A

Hydrazine and salt

117
Q

_____________________
sequencing is the first
technique developed
for DNA sequencing

A

Maxam-Gilbert

118
Q

________ sequencing
uses radioactively r
fluorescently labeled
ddNTPs.

A

Sanger

119
Q

what year

● Sanger Technique and
Maxam-Gilbert Technique were
developed.
● These two techniques were
regarded as first generation
sequencing techniques.

A

1977

120
Q

what year

● The first genome was sequenced.
Human mitochondrial genome
sequence was completed.
● The entire mitochondrial DNA was
sequenced.

A

1981

121
Q

what year

Complete eukaryotic genome.

A

1996

122
Q

The Human Genome Project was
completed in the year

A

2001

123
Q

refers to methods in which millions
of DNA templates are sequenced
simultaneously in a single reaction.

A

Massively Parallel Sequencing

124
Q

● Are enzymes degrade DNA
molecules by breaking the
phosphodiester bonds that link one
nucleotide to the next in a DNA
strand.
● May be specific for DNA or RNA,
such as DNases or RNases.

A

nucleases

125
Q

● Hydrolyze internal bonds within or
in between a polynucleotide chain.

A

ENDONUCLEASES

126
Q

● Remove nucleotides one at a time
from the ends or the external of a
DNA molecule.

A

EXONUCLEASES

127
Q

● A class of endonucleases able to
cut in between with a restriction
able to recognize a specific site or
restriction site.

A

RESTRICTION ENDONUCLEASES

128
Q

● Sequences recognized by REs
read the same from left to right as
they do from right to left on the
complementary strand.

A

PALINDROME

129
Q

___________ occurs in the DNA of the
bacteria and shields it from the
restriction enzymes by not allowing it to
bind.

A

Methylation

130
Q

● Exhibit both restriction and DNA
modification activities.
● Require the cofactors such as
Mg2+ ions, S-adenosylmethione
(SAM) and ATP for their activity.

A

TYPE I RESTRICTION ENZYMES

131
Q

If aiming for a specific gene
only, Type I is ideal.

true or false

A

false! hnd sya ideal

132
Q

● Recognition site is 4-6 bp
sequence, usually palindromic.
○ Fragments produced are
possibly very short.

A

type II restriction enzyme

133
Q

● Staggered ends on a DNA
molecule with short,
single-stranded overhangs

A

STICKY ENDS

134
Q

● Have straight cut down through
the DNA, that results in a flat pair
of bases on the ends of the DNA.

A

. BLUNT ENDS

135
Q

● Possess both restriction and
modification activities (same with
Type I).
● Recognizes specific sequences
and cleaves 25-27 bp outside of
the recognition sequence, in a 3’
direction (asymmetrical).
● Requires 2 restriction sites in
opposite orientation.
Requires Mg2+ ions for their
activity.

A

TYPE III RESTRICTION ENZYMES

136
Q

used for Correct ionic strength

A

NaCl or KCl

137
Q

If the fragmented DNAs is
asymmetrical, it will have to
undergo _____________ in order to
know what base pair it enters.

A

electrophoresis

138
Q

If the fragmented DNAs is
asymmetrical, it will have to
undergo _____________ in order to
know what base pair it enters.

A

electrophoresis

139
Q

a circular DNA
found in bacteria that is
used in gene cloning. This
is the DNA the bacteria
uses for antibiotic
resistance.

A

plasmid

140
Q

● One of the simplest methods in
identifying mutations.
● Distinguish gene alleles by
specifically recognizing single
base changes in DNA.

A

SINGLE NUCLEOTIDE
POLYMORPHISMS (SNP)

141
Q

● This is a method used to map an
unknown segment if DNA by
breaking it into pieces and then
identifying the location of the
breakpoint.
● The positions of the sites can be
inferred based on the sizes of the
resultant DNA fragments.

A

RESTRICTION ENZYME DNA
MAPPING

142
Q

Genetic alteration that
contributes to complex
disease has smaller effect

A

polymorphism

143
Q
  • PYRIMIDINE TO PURINE
  • T-A to G-C
A

transversion

144
Q
  • Occurs internally
  • This type of mutation is inevitable and uncontrolled.
A

SPONTANEOUS MUTATION

145
Q
  • Occurs externally
  • This type of mutation is controlled
A

INDUCED MUTATION

146
Q
  • A change in a single nucleotide in the genome that causes
    variations in DNA sequences between members of the same
    species.
  • Occurs when two individuals in the population differ by a
    single base in the DNA sequence.
  • Can act as biological markers.
A

SINGLE NUCLEOTIDE POLYMORPHISM (SNP)

147
Q
  • Caused by a single gene, several different mutations
  • Can result in the same disease but with varying degrees
    of severity and phenotype
A

SINGLE GENE DISORDER

148
Q
  • Main factor is genes but the cause includes other factors
    that aren’t genes
A

MULTIFACTORAL DISORDER

149
Q
  • A technique that is used to study genetic variation or
    polymorphisms among individuals using restriction
    enzymes.
A

CLEAVAGE BASED: Restriction Fragment Length
Polymorphism (RFLP)

150
Q

After heating and cooling the mixture, which of the following catalyzes the synthesis of complementary strands of DNA?

A

taq pol

151
Q

DNA is visualized by including in the gel an intercalating dye is:

a.ethidium bromide.

b.methylene blue

c.basic dye

d.eosin dye

A

a

152
Q

Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments by size in a solid support medium called as:

A

agarose gel

153
Q

Pfu polymerase is superior over Taq polymerase because:

A

of more accurate amplification

154
Q

Polymerase used for PCR is extracted from _____________.

A

thermus aquaticus

155
Q

A method that requires a set of four specifically designed primers that can recognize six distinct regions on the target DNA

A

lamp

156
Q

A technique used to amplify multiple target sequences in a single PCR reaction using multiple primer sets.

A

multiplex PCR

157
Q

An enzyme that uses RNA as the template to make complementary DNA (cDNA)

A

REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE

158
Q

Fidelity in amplification may be decreased in which of the following conditions?

A

Increased concentrations of dNTPs

159
Q

It is adjusted to a value above the background of the reaction

A

THRESHOLD

160
Q

Low to no yield of PCR products may be a result of which of the following

A

Decreased MgCl2 and Decreased dNTPs

161
Q

Small fluorescent molecules that are attached to oligonucleotides in order to function as probes

A

FLUOROPHORES

162
Q

Their mechanism of action relies on the 5′–3′ exonuclease activity of Taq polymerase

A

HYDROLYSIS PROBE

163
Q

This PCR technique was designed to to improve sensitivity and specificity.

A

NESTED PCR

164
Q

Which of the following PCR techniques is the gold standard for testing COVID-19 infection?

A

RT-PCR

165
Q

To sequence DNA by Sanger method, the DNA must first be made in single stranded form.

T OR F

A

TRUW

166
Q

When a dideoxyribonucleotide is added to the DNA strands being synthesized:

A

replication of the strand stops

167
Q

To sequence DNA by Maxam-Gilbert method, the DNA must first be made in single stranded form.

TRUE OR F

A

TRUE

168
Q

What is the difference between a deoxyribonucleotide and a dideoxyribonucleotide?

a. A deoxynucleotide is missing a 5’-phosphate group.

b. A deoxynucleotide is missing a 3’-hydroxyl group on its sugar.

c. A dideoxynucleotide is missing a 5’-phosphate group.

d. A dideoxynucleotide is missing a 3’- hydroxyl group on its sugar.

A

d. A dideoxynucleotide is missing a 3’- hydroxyl group on its sugar.

169
Q

ATP, Mg2+ WHAT TYPE OF RESTRICTION ENZYME

A

TYPE III

170
Q

Cleave within or at a short distance from the recognition site

A

TYPE II

171
Q

Cleaves at sites away from recognition site

A

TYPE I

172
Q

Cleave close to or within recognition sequence

A

TYPE IV

173
Q

 Are endonucleases that acts as a Molecular
scissors that cut double stranded DNA molecules at
specific points also known as restiction sites

A

RESTRICTION ENZYMES

174
Q

is a virus that infects bacteria
in the process called transduction

A

Bacteriophage