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Helicopter Private Pilot > Pre-Solo Knowledge > Flashcards

Pre-Solo Knowledge Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

3

What personal documents and endorsements are you required to have before you fly solo?

A

Student pilot certificate
Medical certificate
ID with photo
Logbook with
Endorsements

61.3, 61.51

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2
Q

What class of medical do you need prior to solo flight?

A

3rd class

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3
Q

What are your student pilot limitations regarding carriage of passengers or cargo and flying compensation or hire?

A

No passengers, no cargo, no hire

61.87, 61.89

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4
Q

Explain student pilot limitations concerning visibility and flight above clouds.

A

10 SM, 3000’ ceiling, flight above clouds not allowed.

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5
Q

Who has the final authority and responsibility for the operation of the aircraft when you are flying solo?

A

Me as the PIC.

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6
Q

Discuss what preflight action concerning the airport and aircraft performance is specified in the regulations for a local flight.

A

All information for completion of a safe flight. Examples: Wx, TFR’s, Notams, aircraft performance, frequencies.

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7
Q

During engine run up you cause rocks, debris and rotor vortices to be directed toward another aircraft or person. Could this be considered careless or reckless operations of an aircraft?

A

Yes

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8
Q

How long before flying can you have your last alcoholic beverage? What is the BAC you can have in your blood?

A

8 hrs - 0.04%

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9
Q

What are the general requirements pertaining to the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses?

A

Use during takeoff, landing, taxi, and en route flight.

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10
Q

What is the minimum fuel reserve for day VFR flight, and on what cruise speed is the fuel reserve based?

A

First point of landing + 20 min. 83 kts.

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11
Q

At what altitude is a Mode C transponder required at all times in all airspace’s? Excluding what altitudes?

A

10,000’ MSL - below 2500’ AGL

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12
Q

What aircraft certificates and documents must be on board when you are flying solo?

A

Airworthiness certificate
Registration
Radio cert (outside the US)
Operating handbook (POH)
Weight and balance

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13
Q

No one person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a ______________ .

A

Hazard or collision

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14
Q

Who has the right-of-way when two aircraft are on final approach to land at the same time?

A

Lower aircraft. But this cannot be abused to create the ROW.

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15
Q

What action do you need to take if you are overtaking another aircraft and which aircraft has the ROW? What if flying a head-on collision course? What if another helicopter is converging from the right?

A
  1. Pass on the right. Aircraft being overtaken has the ROW.
  2. Deviate to the right.
  3. Helicopter on the right.
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16
Q

Except when necessary for takeoffs and landings, what are the minimum safe altitudes for helicopters?

A

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, to make an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

Robinson Specific

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17
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available at an airport, what setting should you use before departing on a local flight?

A

Elevation of the departure airport.

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18
Q

What altitudes should you use when operating under VFR in level cruising flight at more than 3000’ AGL?

A

Magnetic course of 0 - 179 - odd thousands plus 500
Magnetic course of 180 - 359 - even thousands plus 500.

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19
Q

When is a go around appropriate?

A

Anytime you are uncomfortable with the approach, especially in conditions likely for vortex ring state (< 30 kts, more than 300’ per min, power applied)

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20
Q

What general steps should you follow after an engine failure in flight?

A

Enter autorotation (collective down, right pedal, aft cyclic)

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21
Q

List the minimum equipment and instruments that must be working properly in your aircraft for day VFR flight. List the additional night equipment necessary.

A

Seatbelts
Oil temp gauge
Fuel gauge
Tachometer
Altimeter
Compass
Oil pressure gauge
Manifold pressure gauge
Airspeed indicator

+R44:
Governor
OAT
Alternator
Low RPM System (horn and light)
Hydraulic System

Night
Position indicator lights (nav lights)
Anticollision lights
Landing lights
Electricity source
Spare fuse

91.205

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22
Q

Define Vy for the R44

A

Best rate of climb - 55 kts

POH section 4

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23
Q

What is the best glide speed for the R44?

A

90 KIAS

POH section 3

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24
Q

What is the max RPM drop during the magneto check on the runup?

A

7% in two seconds

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25
Q

What is the total usable fuel capacity for the r44?

A

46.5 gallons (3.1 hrs)

POH section 2

29.5 main, 17 aux

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26
Q

What grade of fuel can be safely used in your aircraft? What are the colors of the recommended fuels?

A

100LL - Blue

POH section 2

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27
Q

In order to remain outside the shaded area of the height/velocity diagram, what would your air-speed have to be at 200’?

A

45 KIAS

POH section 5

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28
Q

How do you detect an alternator failure?

A

Alternator light. Electrical problems/failure.

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29
Q

When do you use carburetor heat? What are indications of carb icing?

A

Likely with an OAT of -4 to 30 degrees AND the difference between the OAT and the dew point is less than 15 degrees.
Run up - full carb heat
Takeoff, climb, cruise - keep the CAT gauge out of the yellow
Descent, auto - full carb heat

Indications - decrease in manifold pressure, rough engine running

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30
Q

At max gross weight and with an OAT of 20C degrees, what is Vne at sea level? At 6000’?

A

120 KIAS; 103 KIAS

POH section 2

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31
Q

What are traffic patterns for each runway at your airport? What is the MSL altitude for each helicopter traffic pattern?

A

17R/35L or 17L/35R - avoid flow of fixed wing aircraft - 500’ AGL = 6700’ MSL

91.155

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32
Q

How do you enter and exit the traffic pattern at your airport? What if any radio communications are required?

A

Get ATIS - Ask tower to join the pattern - repeat back specific instructions

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33
Q

What radio calls are recommended in the traffic pattern at an uncontrolled airport?

A

10 miles out on the CTAF - entering downwind and each leg

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34
Q

What is the standard direction of turns in the traffic pattern?

A

At controlled airports, generally instructed to avoid flow of fixed-wing traffic. This typically means right-hand patterns (because fixed wing traffic is typically left-hand unless indicated on charts).

At uncontrolled airports

AIM 4-3-3, 4-3-17

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35
Q

What is CTAF? Explain CTAF procedures at your training airport?

A

Common traffic advisory frequency - report 10 miles out and each leg of the pattern.

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36
Q

How can you determine if a runway is closed?

A

White “X” lights at end of the runway.

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37
Q

What are the typical dimensions of Class D airspace and what requirement(s) must be met prior to entry?

A
  • 4 NM Radius - 2500’ AGL (charted in MSL)
  • two way radio comms must be established prior to entry
  • Position, altitude, destination and request

AIM 3-2-5

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38
Q

What are the cloud clearance requirements and visibility requirements when operating in controlled airspace below 10,000’ MSL?

A

3 SM, 1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal
Class B - 3 mi and clear of clouds

91.153

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39
Q

If you receive ATC instructions that you feel may compromise safety or will cause you to violate a FAR, what should you do?

A

Ask for clarification - safety of the flight is the priority.

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40
Q

Meaning of following ATC light signals in flight:
* Steady green
* Flashing green
* Flashing red
* Steady red

A
  • Clear to land
  • Come back to airport for landing
  • Airport unsafe
  • Keep circling
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41
Q

Define the meaning of the following ATC signals on the ground:
* Steady green
* Flashing green
* Flashing white
* Steady Red
* Flashing Red

A
  • Clear to takeoff
  • Clear to taxi
  • Return to starting point on the airport
  • Stop
  • Taxi clear of runway in use
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42
Q

What requirements are there for a student pilot to fly in Class B airspace?

A

Endorsement by CFI and route flown with CFI.

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43
Q

Describe the dimensions, VFR weather minimums, equipment and pilot requirements for class B airspace.

A
  • Upside down wedding cake, as many tiers as needed.
  • surface to 10,000’ MSL typically
  • 30 nm radius
  • Two way radio communication
  • Clearance from ATC
  • Mode C transponder and ADS-B out w/in 30 nm of airport
  • private pilot cert or student with 61.101 endorsement
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44
Q

You have called ATC just prior to entering Class B airspace and the controller tells you “Squawk 2466 and ident”. Are you now allowed to enter without further instructions?

A

No. You must be specifically cleared into Class B airspace.

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45
Q

What does a dashed magenta line around an airport indicate on a sectional chart?

A

Class E sfc to 17,999 MSL

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46
Q

What does a solid blue line around an airport indicate on a sectional chart?

A

Class B airspace

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47
Q

What does a solid magenta line around an airport indicate on a sectional chart?

A

Class C airspace

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48
Q

What does a dashed blue line indicate on a sectional chart? What does the boxed number within mean?

A

Class D airspace. Ceiling of class D in hundreds of feet (a minus means sfc up to but not including that value)

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49
Q

What does a shaded magenta line with “CLASS G” under it indicate on a sectional chart?

A

Class E airspace with a floor 700 AGL that laterally abuts class G airspace

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50
Q

What does a shaded magenta line indicate on a sectional chart?

A

Class E airspace with a floor 700 AGL that laterally abuts 1200’ or higher class E airspace

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51
Q

What does a shaded blue line indicate on a sectional chart?

A

Class E airspace with a floor 1200 AGL or greater that laterally abuts class G airspace

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52
Q

What is the min. Visibility and ceiling requirement for VFR flight in Class D airspace?

A

3 miles, 1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontally

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53
Q

What are the helicopter special VFR weather minimums and can student pilots request a special VFR clearance in Class D airspace when the visibility is less than 3 miles?

A

Clear of clouds- against the WX prescribed by CFI.

54
Q

You have called ATC prior to entering Class C airspace and the controller responds with your call sign and tells you to “standby”. Are you now allowed to enter the airspace without further instructions?

A

Yes - because two-way radio comms established with tailnumber.

55
Q

Describe typical dimensions of Class C airspace. Is participation in the radar service mandatory within the outer area of the Class C airspace?

A

5-10 NM radius, sfc to 4000 AGL. Not mandatory

56
Q

Describe the risk management model used most often.

A

Pilot:
Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
External pressures/Emotions/Eating
Aircraft: correct one? Airworthy? Planning? CRM?
enVironment: route, airspace, weather
External pressures: time, stress, emotional

57
Q

What is the procedure when inoperable equipment is discovered?

A

Use an MEL if there is one, then check type certificate list, aircraft equipment list/91.205 (SOFTACOMA), and finally airworthiness directives. If not listed, it’s okay to fly after the instrument is placarded inop and deemed ok by a rated pilot.

58
Q

What are the requirements for maintenance, inspections and logs for the aircraft?

A
  • Annual inspection
  • Life limited parts
  • transponder inspected every 24 months
  • 100 hr inspection (for hire)
  • airworthiness directives
  • time before overhaul
59
Q

Explain the difference in aerodynamics between IGE and OGE.

A

In a hover, a ir flow is traveling down vertically through the rotor system. To generate lift, there exists a low pressure area above the blades (airfoil) and a higher air pressure below the blades. Air always wants to travel from high pre ssure to low pressure.
* In IGE hover, airflow is traveling downwards hits the ground, which causes the wi ngtip vortices to dissipate outwards as they move from high pressure to low pressure. AOA is high, induced flow is low.
* In OGE hover, vertical airflow continues downwards, the vortices complete a circle from high pressure to low, and create a small stalled area on the blades, causing them to ge nerate less lift. AOA is less, induced flow is higher

60
Q

Describe the aerodynamics of transition from a hover to forward flight

A

In a hover you have vertical flow. As you start moving, you enter transverse flow which causes the nose to pitch up, right roll due to gyroscopic precession of greater lift on the front of the rotor disk, and a slight yaw left due to the tail rotor becoming more effective. As the aircraft moves through 16-24 kts, it enters Effective Transitional Lift where it is completely outrunning its rotor vortices and operating in clean air

61
Q

Describe how you manipulate the blade regions in autorotations

A
  • To maintain RPM: driving region should be equal to driven and stalled
  • To increase RPM: lower collective or aft cyclic to make driving > driven and stalled
  • To decrease RPM: raise collective to make driving < driven and stalled
62
Q

What are the primary considerations for helicopter performance?

A
  • Density Altitude
  • Wind
  • Gross Weight
63
Q

Explain the conditions, indications, prevention protocol and recovery for Dynamic Rollover.

A

Conditions: Power applied, critical rollover angle exceeded, pivot point
Indications: rapid and unrecoverable roll
Prevention: clear the skids, 2-stage pickup, smooth inputs, W/B differences, 3-5 foot hover smooth and controlled
Recovery: lower collective

64
Q

Explain the conditions, indications, prevention protocol and recovery for Retreating Blade Stall.

A

Conditions: advancing side of the disk has a low AOA and high relative wind velocity, retreating side has a low relative wind velocity and high AOA. Blade stall happens when the retreating blade reaches and exceeds the critical AOA and can no longer compensate for dissymetry of lift
Indications: Nose pitch up and left roll due to increased lift on advancing side and gyroscopic precession, low frequency vibrations
Prevention: situational awareness with airspeed/attitude, acknowledge Vne during preflight and comply
Recovery: Lower collective first to reduce AOA, then slow down with gentle aft cyclic. Correct for roll as needed. (immediate aft cyclic without lowering collective will increase AOA further and make it worse

65
Q

Explain the conditions, indications, prevention protocol and recovery for Low RPM Blade Stall.

A

Conditions: Any flight condition that creates excessive AOA. Low RPM causes blades to produce less lift and the aircraft sinks. Then the pilot increases collective which increases AOA on the blade, which increases drag and requires more engine power. Because there is not enough power available, the aircraft descends causing upward air flow through the disc, increasing AOA and drag, which further exacerbates the stall
Caused by: 4H’s, pulling more power than available, poor maintenance of RPM in autorotation, rolling throttle the wrong way. Critical RPM is below: 80% +1% per 1000ft DA
Indications: Low RPM horn and light. Retreating blade stalls first, pitching the nose up. Upward air on tail surface causes the nose to pitch down. If aft cyclic is applied with a nose up attitude (an already aft tilting disc), the tail boom can be chopped off
Recovery: Lower collective (reduce AOA), roll on throttle (give power to drive rotors), gentle aft cyclic

66
Q

Explain the conditions, indications, prevention protocol and recovery for Low G / Mast Bumping.

A

Conditions: Only a hazard on semi-rigid rotor systems. Pushing forward into a dive disrupts the balance because thrust is now acting forward while gravity is acting down. This causes the rotor system to be temporarily unloaded. Can also be caused by unexpected turbulence-the helicopter doesn’t need a nose forward attitude. The light feeling from an auto is NOT low G because lowering collective reduces lift and torque together
Indications: light-in-the-seat feeling, and a right roll caused by TR torque
Prevention: avoid conditions and inputs where it might occur (pushing forward after a steep climb, pushing forward into a dive, sideslip)
Recovery: Apply aft cyclic to reload the rotor system and then correct for roll. If roll is corrected first, the underslung rotor system will hit the mast and detach the rotor blades from the helicopter

67
Q

Explain the conditions, indications, prevention protocol and recovery for Vortex Ring State.

A

Conditions: Powered flight, more than 300fpm descent and less than ETL (16-24 kts). The helicopter settles into its own downwash, which enlarges the wingtip vortices and increases the stall region on the blades. If allowed to develop, a second set of vortices is generated, further increasing the stall region. As collective pitch is applied (in a recovery attempt) the additional power is wasted in recirculating the air and further increases the stall region
Indications: turbulent, unstable condition with uncommanded pitch and roll oscillations, little to no collective authority, and increasing descent rate
Prevention: maintain forward airspeed greater than 30 knots when descending, or less than 300fpm descent
Recovery: Increase airspeed (forward cyclic) and lower collective if altitude permits. Vuichard method: left pedal, right cyclic, raise collective. If fully developed, enter autorotation

68
Q

Explain the conditions, indications, prevention protocol and recovery for Loss of Tailrotor Effectiveness.

A

Conditions: Caused by an aerodynamcic interaction between the main rotor and the tail rotor.

  • Low and slow OGE flight (more power needed to main rotor for lift)
  • Winds +or- 10oclock position and 5oclock position
  • Tailwinds, which alter the onset of ETL and translational thrust, which requires more power to main rotor, causing more torque than there is power available to the TR
  • Low speed downwind turns
  • Large changes of power at low airspeeds
  • Low speed flight in proximity of physical obstructions that could alter smooth airflow to both rotor systems
  • Weathercock Stability
  • Tail Rotor Vortex Ring State
  • Main Rotor Disk Interference
  • AOA Reduction

Indications: Uncommanded rapid yaw to the right
Prevention: Slow pedal turns, especially to the right, situational awareness to wind conditions, avoiding high power demands especially with a low airspeed
Recovery: regain airspeed, reducing collective if possible, left pedal. In hover, roll off throttle and hover auto. If mechanical failure, enter auto

69
Q

Explain the conditions, indications, prevention protocol and recovery for Downwind Takeoffs and Landings.

A

Conditions: Tailwind conditions (120-240 degrees) rob the helicopter of airspeed and can lead to LTE, loss of directional control and longitudinal stability early loss of ETL, and especially VRS. Less rearward cyclic is available and hovering may not be possible. There will be an overall higher power requirement in tailwinds
Indications: Turbulence, loss of control, LTE, high work load, high power demands
Prevention: Avoid tailwind conditions as much as able
Recovery: land/set back down (if taking off), go around (if landing), try to turn into the wind as soon as possible or request an alternate approach. If mandatory, plan for a long takeoff run or approach path to compensate, and be active on the controls

70
Q

Explain the conditions, indications, prevention protocol and recovery for Ground Resonance.

A

Conditions: Encountered in fully articulated systems as the rotor system becomes unbalanced due to rotor blades moving out of phase with each other. Potentially a malfunction in the lead-lag damping system or unbalanced blades. Could also result from a hard hit. Sloping ground also affects undercarriage damping. Must be on the ground.
Indications: Uncontrollable vibrations
Recovery: If RPM is in the green, lift off to a hover. If not, lower collective and attempt to stop the rotor system using the brake if possible.

71
Q

Describe the Powerplant on the R44.

A

Lycoming IO-540 six-cylinder, horizontally opposed, overhead-valve, air-cooled, fuel-injected engine with a wet sump oil system. Equipped with a starter, alternator, shielded ignition, two magnetos, muffler, two oil coolers, oil filter, and induction air filter.

Displacement: 541.5 cubic inches
Max continuous rating: 205 BHP at 2718 RPM (102% on tach)
5 min takeoff rating: 245 BHP at 2718 RPM

Limitations:
Max continuous speed: 102% (2718 RPM)
Max transient speed: 105% (2800 RPM)
Cylinder Head Max Temp: 500F (260C)
Oil Max Temp: 245F (118C)
Oil Pressure min during idle: 25 psi
Oil Pressure min during flight: 55 psi
Oil Pressure Max during flight: 95 psi
Oil Pressure Max during start & warm up: 115 psi
Minimum oil quantity for takeoff: 7qt
Max oil quantity for takeoff: 9qt

72
Q

Describe The Drive/Clutch System on the R44.

A

A vee-belt sheave is bolted directly to the engine output shaft. Vee-belts transmit power to the upper sheave which has an overrunning clutch contained in it’s hub. The inner shaft of the clutch transmits power forward to the main rotor and after to the tail rotor. Flexible couplings are located at the main gearbox input and at each end of the long tail rotor drive shaft. The main gearbox contains a single-state spiral-bevel gear set which is splash lubricated. The tail gearbox contains a single 90 degree splash-lubricated spiral-bevel gear set.

After the engine is started, it is coupled to the rotor drive system through the vee-belts which are tensioned by raising the upper drive sheave. An electric actuator, located between the drive sheaves, raises the upper sheave when the pilot engages the clutch switch. The actuator senses compressive load and switches off when the vee-belts are properly tensioned. The clutch caution light illuminates whenever the actuator circuit is energized. the light stays on until the belts are properly tensioned or fully disengaged.

A fuse on the test switch panel prevents an actuator motor overload from tripping the clutch circuit breaker. If the fuse blows, the actuator motor will stop but the clutch caution light will remain illuminated. An open circuit breaker removes power from both the motor and the light.

73
Q

Describe the Electrical System on the R44.

A

A 28-volt DC electrical system including an alternator and a sealed lead-acid battery is standard.

A circuit breaker panel is located on the ledge just forward of the left front seat. In flight reset of circuit breakers is not recommended.

A 14V alternator powered by the engine provides electricity when the engine is running, and charges the 12V battery. If the alternator fails the battery acts as a backup but only for 10min or less. If ALT caution light comes on in flight, land as soon as practical.

The 12V battery is needed for backup, initial startup power, and to help protect electrical equipment from voltage spikes.

If electrical power fails, that includes the tachs, governor, low RPM warning system, radios, lights, fuel gauge, etc. The magnetos keep the engine running, converting mechanical energy into electrical energy. Each one provides spark to all four cylinders.

Engine and rotor tachs, governor, and low RPM are on separate circuits. These can still be powered if battery is healthy but switch is off, via a wire bypass fuse near the battery.

74
Q

Describe the Fuel System on the R44.

A

Consists of a main (29.5 usable) and an auxiliary tank (17 usable), a shutoff valve control located between the front seats, a strainer (gascolator) , an engine-driven pump, and an auxiliary (electric) pump. The fuel tanks have flexible bladders in aluminum enclosures. A fuel return line allows pump supply in excess of engine demand to return to the fuel tanks.

The auxiliary pump primes the engine for starting and runs in flight to provide fuel pump redundancy.

Fuel gauges are electrically operated by float-type transmitters in the tanks. When gauges read E, the tanks are empty except for a small quantity of unusable fuel. The low fuel caution light is actuated by a separate electric sender located on the bottom of the main tank.

The auxiliary tank is interconnected with the main tank and located somewhat higher so it will become empty first while fuel still remains in the main tank.

Approved fuel grades are shown here.

Fuel burn rate is ~15gpm

`

75
Q

Describe the Engine RPM Controls on the R44.

A

Throttle: Twist grip, mechanically linked to throttle valve
Correlator: mechanically links the throttle to collective inputs.
Governor: the governor maintains engine RPM by sensing change and applying corrective throttle inputs through a friction clutch which can be easily overriden by the pilot. The governor is active only above 80% engine RPM and can be switched on or off using the toggle switch on the end of the right seat collective. It may not prevent over- or under-speed conditions generated by aggressive flight maneuvers.

76
Q

Define Vne on the R44.

A

2200lb TOGW and below: 130 KIAS
Over 2200 TOGW: 120 KIAS
Autorotation: 100 KIAS

77
Q

What is the preferred method for helicopter ground movements on airports?

A

Air taxi. Pilots are expected to remain below 100’ AGL. If a higher than normal airspeed or altitude is desired, the request should be made prior to lift-off.

Use of air taxi enables the pilot to proceed at an optimum airspeed/altitude, minimize downwash, conserve fuel, and expedite movement from one point to another.

AIM 4-3-17 (b)

78
Q

Where may takeoff and landing procedures be conducted on-airport?

A

From a runway, taxiway, portion of a landing strip, or any clear area which could be used as a landing site such as the scene of an accident, a construction site, or the roof of a building. ATC will issue takeoff clearances from movement areas other than active runways, or in diverse directions from active runways, with additional instructions as necessary. Whenever possible, takeoff clearance will be issued in lieu of extended hover/air taxi operations.

Unless requested by the pilot, downwind takeoffs will not be issued if the tailwind exceeds 5 knots.

AIM 4-3-17 (c)

79
Q

What terms are used to describe designated areas from which helicopters operate?

A

Movement area, landing/takeoff area, apron/ramp, heliport and helipad

AIM 4-3-17 (c)

80
Q

What action should be taken if you have a tachometer failure during flight?

A

Allow governor to control RPM and land as soon as practical

81
Q

What action should be taken if you have a governor malfunction during flight?

A

Override governor by gripping throttle firmly, switch governor off, and complete flight using manual control for RPM

82
Q

What action should be taken if you receive an oil warning light during flight?

A

Indicates a loss of pressure or power. Confirm pressure loss with gauge and land immediately. Make radio call as necessary.

83
Q

What action should be taken if you receive an MR Temp light during flight?

A

Indicates excessive temperature on the main rotor gearbox. Land as soon as practical, unless it is accompanied with abnormal noise or vibration; if so, land immediately. Make radio call as necessary.

84
Q

What action should be taken if you receive an MR/TR Chip light during flight?

A

Indicates metallic particles in the main rotor or tail rotor gearbox, respectively. Land as soon as practical, unless it is accompanied by abnormal noise or vibration; if so, land immediately. Make radio call as necessary.

85
Q

What action should be taken if you receive a Low Fuel light during flight?

A

Indicates 3 gallons of usable fuel (12 minutes or less) of usable fuel left. Make a decision and then necessary radio call.

86
Q

What action should be taken if you receive a Clutch light during flight?

A

Indicates clutch actuator circuit is on, either engaging or disengaging clutch. Wait 10 seconds. If light is still on, pull breaker and land as soon as practical, Indicates metallic particles in the main rotor or tail rotor gearbox, respectively. Land as soon as practical, unless it is accompanied by abnormal noise or vibration or other signs of failure (eg loss of rotor RPM); if so, land immediately. Make radio call as necessary.

87
Q

What action should be taken if you receive an Alt light during flight?

A

Indicates low voltage situation or potential failure. Turn off nonessential equipment, turn switch off for one second to reset control unit, then back on. If light remains on, land as soon as practical.

88
Q

What action should be taken if you receive a Brake light?

A

Indicates rotor brake is engaged, engine won’t start. Disengage rotor brake.

89
Q

What action should be taken if you receive a Starter On light?

A

Indicates starter motor is engaged. If the light does not extinguish at startup, pull mixture full off, turn battery off, and have motor serviced.

90
Q

What action should be taken if you receive a Carbon Monoxide light during flight?

A

Heat off, vents open, and land immediately if accompanied by symptoms.

91
Q

What action should be taken if you receive a Fuel Filter light during flight?

A

Indicates fuel strainer contamination. Indicates low auxiliary fuel pump pressure. Land as soon as practical, unless accompanied by erratic engine operation; if so, land immediately.

92
Q

What action should be taken if you receive an Aux Fuel Pump light during flight?

A

Indicates low auxiliary fuel pump pressure. Land as soon as practical, unless accompanied by erratic engine operation; if so, land immediately.

93
Q

What action should be taken if you experience Power Failure during flight?

A

Above 500’ AGL: Enter auto, establish glide at 65 KIAS, maintain safe RPM with collective, unnecessary switches off if time allows, flare around 50’.
Max glide distance: 75 KIAS, rotor RPM 90%, 4:1 (1nm per 1500’)

Air restart if time allows:
Mixture full rich, throttle cracked, actuate with left hand

Below 500’ AGL: Enter auto, maintain safe RPM with collective.

Below 8’ AGL: Hover auto: throttle, pedal, settle, pull.

94
Q

What action should be taken if you experience Mechanical LTE during flight?

A

Immediately enter auto and roll off throttle.

It is possible to use throttle and low engine power settings (low torque) during the glide to stay under powered flight longer. Find the pont of LTE spin through throttle manipulation. Before reducing airspeed, enter full auto.

95
Q

What are the max operating altitudes on the R44?

A

DA: 14,000’ MSL
AGL: 9000’ to allow landing within 5 minutes in case of fire

96
Q

What is the emergency procedure for an engine fire in flight?

A
  1. Enter autorotation
  2. cabin heat OFF (if time permits)
  3. cabin vent ON (if time permits)
  4. If engine is running, perform normal landing, then fuel mixture and fuel valves OFF
  5. If engine stops running, fuel valve OFF and complete autorotation landing
  6. Battery switch OFF
  7. If time permits, apply rotor brake to stop rotors
  8. Exit the helicopter

POH section 3

97
Q

What is the emergency procedure for an electrical fire in flight?

A
  1. Battery and Alternator off
  2. Open cabin vents
  3. Land immediately
  4. Fuel mixture off, fuel valve off
  5. If time permits, apply rotor brake to stop rotors
  6. Exit helicopter

POH section 3

98
Q

What is the emergency procedure for an engine fire on the ground?

A
  1. While cranking - continue and attempt to start which would suck flames and excess fuel into the engine
  2. If engine starts, run at 60-70% RPM for a short time
  3. Fuel mixture OFF
  4. Fuel Valve OFF
  5. Battery switch OFF
  6. If time permits, apply rotor brake to stop rotors
  7. Exit the helicopter

POH section 3

99
Q

What actions should you take in the event of an emergency?

A
  1. Mayday call on local ATC or 121.5: tail #, nature of emergency, location, SOB, Wx, requests, fuel left
  2. Climb if possible for best line of site
  3. Squawk code: 7700 falling from heaven, 7600 radio glitch, 7500 taken alive
  4. Call flight instructor, 911 if needed. Use local ATC or 121.5 if no cell reception
100
Q

Describe the dimensions of Class E Airspace and the weather and equipment requirements for VFR flight.

A
  • Basically everything else not depicted on a sectional
    can start at sfc, 700 AGL and 1200 AGL. Also between 145-180 and above 600FL
  • 3 SM, 1000 Above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal
101
Q

Describe the dimensions of Class G Airspace and the weather requirements for VFR flight.

A
  • Uncontrolled, sfc to overlying class E
  • Day: .5 SM and clear of clouds below 1200AGL
  • Night: 3 SM 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal below 1200 AGL
102
Q

Describe the dimensions of Class C airspace and the weather and equipment requirements for VFR flight.

A
  • 5-10 nm radius, sfc to 4000 AGL
  • 3 sm, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal
  • Mode C transponder within 10 nm
  • two way radio comms established
103
Q

What is the maximum power-off rotor RPM of the R44?

A

108%

POH 2-2

104
Q

What is the minimum power-off rotor RPM of the R44?

A

90%

POH 2-2

105
Q

What is the maximum power-on rotor RPM of the R44?

A

102%

POH 2-2

106
Q

What is the minimum power-on rotor RPM of the R44?

A

101%

POH 2-2

107
Q

Which seat may you solo from?

A

Right seat

108
Q

What is the hazard of operating outside of lateral weight and balance limits?

A

Higher risk of dynamic rollover

109
Q

What is the approximate weight of the maximum usable fuel in the aux tank?

A

102 lbs

17 gal * 6lb/gallon

110
Q

What is the best range airspeed?

A

100 kts

POH 4-1

111
Q

What is the best autorotative speed?

A

60-70 kts

POH 4-1

112
Q

What is the emergency frequency?

A

121.5

113
Q

What is max gross takeoff weight of the R44?

A

2500 lbs

POH 2-3

114
Q

What are the three start inhibitors of the R44?

A
115
Q

True or False?

When the governor fails, the gov off light will always illuminate.

A

False

the light indicates when it is switched off, but not necessarily a failu

116
Q

What three things are required for a thunderstorm to develop?

A
  • Lifting action
  • moisture present
  • instability
117
Q

What is the tower frequency at KCOS?

A

119.9

118
Q

In the event of a confirmed radio failure, what actions should be taken?

A

Squawk 7600, await light gun signals

119
Q

What are the three purposes of the tail rotor?

A
  • anti-torque
  • yaw
    *
120
Q

What are the benefits of a fuel injected engine?

A
  • No need for periodic adjusting
  • Best mix of power and fuel economy
  • No issues in cold weather, no concerns with icing
121
Q

What is the purpose of the magnetos?

A

To provide electricity for the spark plugs independently of the battery electric system

122
Q

What is the difference between an asymmetrical and a symmetrical airfoil? What types of airfoils are on the R44?

A

On a symmetrical airfoil, the camber line and chord line are the same, meaning the upper and lower surfaces are the same. This airfoil produces no lift at 0 AOA. A nonsymmetrical airfoil has greater curvature of the airfoil above the chord line than below. It can produce lift at zero AOA.

the R44 uses a symmetrical airfoil for the main rotor and an asymmetrical airfoil for the tail rotor.

HFH 2-8,

123
Q

What is transverse flow and what does it do to the helicopter?

A

As a helicopter accelerates in forward flight, induced flow drops to near zero at the forward disk area and increases at the aft disk area. These differences in lift are called the transverse flow effect. This increases the AOA at the front disk area causing the rotor blade to flap up and reduces AOA at the aft disk area causing the rotor blade to flap down. Because of gyroscopic tendency, the helicopter rolls slightly to the right as it accelerates through ~20 kts.

124
Q

What is translating tendency?

A

The tendency of a single main rotor helicopter to move in the direction of tail rotor thrust

125
Q

What features may be built into a helicopter to counteract translating tendency?

A
  1. Main transmission is mounted at a slight angle to the left
  2. Flight controls rigged
  3. Transmission is mounted so rotor shaft is vertical with respect to fuselage, helicopter hangs “left skid low”
  4. Fuselage tilted
  5. Tail rotor mounted on vertical fin/stabilizer
126
Q

What is translational lift and when does it occur?

A

Improved rotor efficiency due to directional flight

127
Q

What is dissymmetry of lift? How does the helicopter correct for dissymmetry of lift?

A

The differential lift between advancing and retreating halves of the rotor disk caused by the different wind flow velocity across each half. The main rotor blades flap and feather automatically to equalize lift across the rotor disk.

128
Q

What is LTE and what conditions can cause it?

A

Loss of tail rotor effectiveness, an uncommanded, rapid yaw towards the advancing blade which does not subside of its own accord.

  • downwash from main rotor causing interference
  • main rotor vortices entering tail rotor disk
  • turbulence and other natural phenomena affecting air flow around the tail rotor
  • a high power setting which induces considerable main rotor downwash
  • relative wind within + or - 15 degress of the 10 o’clock position, generatigin vortices that can blow directly into the tail rotor
  • weathercock stability - tailwinds from 120 degrees to 240 degrees
  • tail rotor VRS - relative wind from 210 degrees to 330 degrees
129
Q

Why do you want to avoid tailwind conditions?

A
130
Q

What two things permit an autorotative descent?

A
  • engine failure
  • unrecoverable low rotor RPM

Helicopter Private Pilot (19 decks)

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