Pre-industrial world (pre-1800) - The Great Divergence Flashcards
What is the underlying notion of the Great Divergence?
- Certain areas of the world advanced in wealth more than others.
- Concerned with the question of why some countries are richer than others. (e.g. North America v South America & Western Europe v Eastern/Mediterranean Europe)
When does the Great Divergence begin/become noticeable?
- Ca. 1700 with ‘industrious revolution’ but can actually be dated back prior.
How does urbanisation contribute to the Great Divergence?
- Cities becoming more populated.
- Unable to grow food in urban areas, the New World responsible for bring food into these urban areas.
- Example of urbanisation creating a divergence: Beijing, China = most populated city from 1500-1800 but overtaken by London, UK in 1900s.
Why did the industrial revolution occur in Britain?
- Key question
- Studied by many different historians (e.g. Ken Pomeranz investigated potential reasons why China did not industrialise like Europe)
Why did sustained economic growth occur in North West Europe in the 19th century?
- Key question
- Why did this not occur earlier as many great civilisations have previously existed?
Why are key powers so expansionist (economically) and colonising?
- Key question
- Concerns impact/role of colonies/slavery on sustaining economic growth in Europe –> a cause or a result?
Why is the fact that China failed to industrialise first so heavily questioned?
- China had similar power to invade and colonise coastal areas of Europe for trade benefits.
What are some explanations that have been argued as the reason why China failed to industrialise first & West accelerated in power?
- West experienced sustained economic growth.
- European colonialisation.
- Sense of investment, not just consuming.
- Good institutions and governments (limited credibility as Asia also had this).
- Energy and coal (argued that this significantly contributed to IR of Europe esp. Britain. Britain = large population growth, coal being used as for energy and steam power).
- Endogenous forces in Europe (internal causes)
- Exogenous forces in Europe (external causes)
What do endogenous forces refer to in regards to the West’s acceleration to power?
Theorised by Max Weber that rise of protestantism in Europe influencing their culture and ethics - idea that being wealthy was valued in the afterlife.
What do exogenous forces refer to in regards to the West’s acceleration to power?
Karl Marx theorised that power and wealth accumulated through slavery, colonies & plunder (i.e. robbery).
How can the argued explanations for why China didn’t industrialise first be considered invalid?
Arguments exist exploring idea that China was just as advanced as other parts of the world.
What are some of the arguments claiming that China was just as advanced as other areas of the world?
- Ken Pomeranz explores the ‘surprising resemblances between Asia & NW Europe.
- Argues that industrialization is only parts of Europe so he looks at wealthiest parts of China and makes comparison.
- Similarities = agricultural productivity, great transportation links, urbanised areas, high life expectancies, just as technologically advanced, sophisticated markets for land, labour and goods, increasing populations (putting demand on their resources i.e. land and wood)
- Ways that China more advanced than West = many Chinese cities larger than European with better public health, sanitation & cleaner water, self-sustainable i.e. not dependant on trade, wealthiest people in world e.g. Wu Bingjian not Rothchilds.
In what ways was the Western World advancing/more advanced?
- Niall Ferguson argues in ‘The West and the Rest’:
- Scientific Revolution
- applied science - Rule of law based on property rights
- Proportion of household heads who owned land (Canada 1895=83%; USA 1900= 75%; La Pampa Argentina 1895 = 10%; Mexico 1910= 3%) - Medical advances (esp. mid 19th century)
- Microscope invented in 17th century
- Citrus fruit prevents scurvy discovered in 18th century by James Lind.
- Stethoscope invented early 19th century as well as first successful blood transfusion in this time period. - Consumerism
- Creates new desires, new demands for goods (initially textiles) = supply and demand - Work ethic
Why Europe? What reasons are their for why they industrialised and experienced sustained progression?
- Europe gradually diffused mechanised techniques of production across manufacturing and transportation leading to industrialisation.
- Britain/Europe just lucky?
- Argued by Ken Pomeranz that England was ‘fortunate freak’ endowed with ‘coal and colonies.’
- Europe had higher energy intensity per capita (less fuel shortages like China—wood) because of coal (China has coal but inland and distant, never revolutionary)
- Colonies allowing land to be obtained which could later be used to grow crops that could not be grown in Europe (e.g. “ghost acres” and grain, timber, sugar & tobacco)
How is the Great Divergence emphasised as debate?
- Researchers can no longer refer to inherent qualities of Europe because it is clear that other parts of the world were in fact just as advanced.
- there is a lack of information (e.g it’s difficult to measure agricultural productivity against other countries)
