Pre assessment

Question 1

What was a Federalist argument in support of the ratification of the Constitution?

A. A strong national government is better for national defense and economic growth.

B. A strong national government is better for the representation of small landowners of modest wealth.

C. Strong state governments are better for funding internal improvements like roads.

D. Strong state governments are better for facilitating business transactions.

Answer 1

A. A strong national government is better for national defense and economic growth.

Question 2

Which concept was James Madison referencing when he stated, “Ambition must be made to counteract ambition” in Federalist, no. 51?

A. Free enterprise and competition

B. Life and the pursuit of happiness

C. Separation of powers and checks and balances

D. Equality and individual rights

Answer 2

C. Separation of powers and checks and balances

Question 3

What is a judicial check on the executive branch?

A. The Supreme Court can veto an executive order.

B. The Supreme Court can override an executive pardon.

C. The Supreme Court can declare actions by the executive branch unconstitutional.

D. The Supreme Court can block a declaration of war.

Answer 3

C. The Supreme Court can declare actions by the executive branch unconstitutional.

Question 4

What describes dual federalism?

A. State government authority and national government authority are shared without distinct jurisdictions.

B. The branches of the national government have oversight of state and local policy.

C. The branches of the national government have limited control over creating public policy.

D. State government and national government have exclusive authority in clearly defined jurisdictions.

Answer 4

D. State government and national government have exclusive authority in clearly defined jurisdictions.

Question 5

What was a major difference between the Articles of Confederation and the Constitution?

A. The Articles of Confederation did not provide for a national judiciary.

B. The Articles of Confederation required states to provide troops for national defense.

C. The Articles of Confederation did not allow states to establish banks.

D. The Articles of Confederation required states to pay for land claims west of the Appalachian Mountains.

Answer 5

A. The Articles of Confederation did not provide for a national judiciary.

Question 6

Why did the framers design the government under the Articles of Confederation with a Congress?

A. They wanted a government funded by the people.

B. They wanted a government based on the representation of the population.

C. They wanted the government to have supreme authority instead of a monarch.

D. They wanted the government to resemble the British Parliament.

Answer 6

B. They wanted a government based on the representation of the population.

Question 7

What did the Great Compromise between the Virginia Plan and the New Jersey Plan that was finalized in the Constitution establish?

A. Authority to tax and regulate trade

B. A two-chamber Congress

C. National armed forces

D. A national currency

Answer 7

B. A two-chamber Congress

Question 8

What were the results of the three-fifths compromise?

A. It allowed free states to pay taxes on only three-fifths of its foreign imports.

B. It required slave states to pay taxes on three-fifths of enslaved persons sold domestically.

C. It allowed slave states to count three-fifths of their enslaved population for the purpose of representation.

D. It required slave states to pay taxes on three-fifths of all imported enslaved persons.

Answer 8

C. It allowed slave states to count three-fifths of their enslaved population for the purpose of representation.

Question 9

Who was responsible for drafting the Bill of Rights and submitting it to Congress?

A. Patrick Henry

B. Alexander Hamilton

C. James Madison

D. Thomas Jefferson

Answer 9

C. James Madison

Question 10

Why did the colonists oppose being taxed by Great Britain?

A. They did not have elected representatives in the House of Commons.

B. They had already paid taxes to fund Great Britain’s war with France.

C. They needed the funds for maintaining the colonies.

D. They were not allowed to import British manufactured goods.

Answer 10

A. They did not have elected representatives in the House of Commons.

Question 11

Which power does the president have under the Constitution?

A. Regulating international commerce

B. Appointing judges

C. Declaring war

D. Raising and maintaining an army

Answer 11

B. Appointing judges

Question 12

What is a protection against an elected president abusing powers for personal gain?

A. The restriction on presidents being elected to only two terms

B. The power of Congress to impeach the president

C. The election of the president by the Electoral College

D. The oath of office needing to be administered by the chief justice

Answer 12

B. The power of Congress to impeach the president

Question 13

Which constitutional amendment established term limits for the president?

A. The Nineteenth Amendment

B. The Seventeenth Amendment

C. The Twentieth Amendment

D. The Twenty-Second Amendment

Answer 13

D. The Twenty-Second Amendment

Question 14

What is the purpose of executive agreements?

A. To influence domestic policy without passing legislation through Congress

B. To establish agreements with foreign countries without congressional approval

C. To exercise the use of the military without requiring a declaration of war from Congress

D. To override congressional legislation that the president does not support

Answer 14

B. To establish agreements with foreign countries without congressional approval

Question 15

Which congressional action would be the result of the implied powers of Congress?

A. Congress passes a law appropriating money to build a new army base.

B. Congress passes a law raising the minimum wage to $10.00 per hour.

C. Congress passes a law creating a new post office.

D. Congress passes a law raising taxes on the top 1% of income earners.

Answer 15

B. Congress passes a law raising the minimum wage to $10.00 per hour.

Question 16

What best explains why individual members of the Senate have more power than individual members of the House of Representatives?

A. The increased length of the term of office in the Senate

B. The higher minimum age requirement in the Senate

C. The ability of the Senate to approve members of the president’s cabinet

D. The smaller total number of Senate members compared to the number of representatives

Answer 16

D. The smaller total number of Senate members compared to the number of representatives

Question 17

What describes the equal proportions method of congressional apportionment?

A. Congressional districts are drawn in order to maintain similar numbers of voters in each district.

B. Congressional districts are drawn so that states are each given an equal number of members in the House of Representatives.

C. Congressional districts are drawn to guarantee that each district will be equally represented in the Senate.

D. Congressional districts are drawn so each will have an equal number of members of the Republican and Democratic parties.

Answer 17

A. Congressional districts are drawn in order to maintain similar numbers of voters in each district.

Question 18

What describes the process of bills becoming laws in Congress?

A. Bills change significantly through House and Senate revisions.

B. Bills can be filibustered in the House of Representatives.

C. Bills are initially proposed by Senate committees.

D. Bills that are vetoed must be rewritten in committee.

Answer 18

A. Bills change significantly through House and Senate revisions.

Question 19

What is a power reserved for the states?

A. Conducting foreign relations

C. Coining money

C. Declaring war

D. Conducting elections

Answer 19

D. Conducting elections

Question 20

Which constitutional amendment allows states to reserve powers?

A. The Eighth Amendment

B. The Tenth Amendment

C. The Twelfth Amendment

D. The Nineteenth Amendment

Answer 20

B. The Tenth Amendment

Question 21

What did the Supreme Court’s ruling in Gibbons v. Ogden establish?

A. A basis for exercising broad states’ rights under the Tenth Amendment

B. A loose constructionist interpretation of the commerce clause

C. A strict constructionist interpretation of the supremacy clause

D. A foundation for the constitutional principle of judicial review

Answer 21

B. A loose constructionist interpretation of the commerce clause

Question 22

What describes the importance of the Supreme Court decision in Marbury v. Madison?

A. It reinforced congressional impeachment power.

B. It protected presidential control over the military.

C. It established the principle of judicial review.

D. It affirmed the presidential use of veto power.

Answer 22

C. It established the principle of judicial review.

Question 23

How many federal appellate courts exist in the United States?

A. 11

B. 13

C. 25

D. 50

Answer 23

B. 13

Question 24

How many sitting justices are there on the Supreme Court?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Answer 24

D. 9

Question 25

How do most states award votes in the Electoral College?

A. Candidates get electoral votes in proportion to their share of the statewide popular vote.

B. The candidate who wins the popular vote nationwide gets all the electoral votes for the state.

C. The candidate who wins the popular vote in the state gets all the electoral votes for the state.

D. Candidates get one electoral vote for each congressional district where they win the popular vote.

Answer 25

C. The candidate who wins the popular vote in the state gets all the electoral votes for the state.

Question 26

Which amendment provided for the separate election of the president and vice president?

A. The Eleventh Amendment

B. The Twelfth Amendment

C. The Thirteenth Amendment

D.The Fourteenth Amendment

Answer 26

B. The Twelfth Amendment

Question 27

What is true about campaign ads in primary elections?

A. They generally mention all participating political parties.

B. They often try to raise the name recognition of a candidate.

C. They often discourage people from taking actions to vote.

D. They are primarily aimed at more independent voters.

Answer 27

B. They often try to raise the name recognition of a candidate.

Question 28

How are elections for the U.S. Senate conducted?

A. All Senate seats are up for election every six years.

B. Half of the Senate seats are up for election every three years.

C. One-third of the Senate seats are up for election every two years.

D. All Senate seats are up for election every two years.

Answer 28

C. One-third of the Senate seats are up for election every two years.

Question 29

What was the purpose of creating the Federal Election Commission in the 1970s?

A. To manage the operation of polling stations

B. To ensure transparency in campaign financing

C. To limit the influence of negative campaigning

D. To regulate the influence of super PACs

Answer 29

B. To ensure transparency in campaign financing

Question 30

Which type of policy would typically be promoted by public interest groups?

A. Federal laws to protect the rights of gun owners

B. Government funding for public school education

C. Tax cuts for domestic automobile manufacturers

D. Tariffs on foreign imports to protect local manufacturers

Answer 30

B. Government funding for public school education

Question 31

What is generally true of interest groups but not true of political parties?

A. They tend to be focused on a single issue.

B. They sponsor candidates who run under their label.

C. They tend to be broad coalitions.

D. They directly control the operation of government.

Answer 31

A. They tend to be focused on a single issue.

Question 32

Why is it difficult to measure the influence of interest groups?

A. There are too many interest groups to determine which groups are influencing government policies.

B. Interest groups tend to support lawmakers who would have likely supported the group’s issues anyway.

C. Interest groups are not required to keep detailed records of their campaign spending.

D. Most meetings between interest groups and lawmakers are conducted in closed-door sessions.

Answer 32

B. Interest groups tend to support lawmakers who would have likely supported the group’s issues anyway.

Question 33

Which Supreme Court decision allowed Super PACs to accept and spend unlimited amounts of money for or against political candidates?

A. Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission

B. Shelby County v. Holder

C. Breedlove v. Suttles

D. Crawford v. Marion County Election Board

Answer 33

A. Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission

Question 34

In which case did the Supreme Court establish that spending on political campaigns constituted political speech that is protected by the First Amendment?

A. Breedlove v. Suttles

B. Buckley v. Valeo

C. Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission

D. Shelby County v. Holder

Answer 34

B. Buckley v. Valeo

Question 35

What is closely associated with a citizen being less likely to vote?

A. Having a college education

B. Being an older adult

C. Having a lower income job

D. Being a woman

Answer 35

C. Having a lower income job

Question 36

What was required by states under the 1993 National Voter Registration Act?

A. It required states to demand proof of citizenship before allowing individuals to register to vote.

B. It required states to allow individuals to register to vote at the same time they go to vote.

C. It required states to allow citizens to register to vote when they sign up for driver’s licenses.

D. It required states to allow driver’s licenses as identification for those registering to vote.

Answer 36

C. It required states to allow citizens to register to vote when they sign up for driver’s licenses.

Question 37

What was the impact of the 1993 National Voter Registration Act, also known as the Motor Voter Act?

A. Voter registration increased, but voter turnout decreased dramatically.

B. Voter registration increased, but voter turnout was largely unchanged.

C. Voter registration increased, and voter turnout increased dramatically.

D. Voter registration and voter turnout were largely unchanged.

Answer 37

B. Voter registration increased, but voter turnout was largely unchanged.

Question 38

A voter casts a ballot for a candidate based solely on the candidate’s previous vote on a tax cut.

Which type of voting decision is demonstrated in this situation?

A. Inspective

B. Retrospective

C. Introspective

D. Prospective

Answer 38

B. Retrospective

Question 39

What is one of the guidelines for the use of capital punishment as established by the Supreme Court in Furman v. Georgia?

A. The death penalty can only be used in cases where murder has been committed.

B. A person can only be given the death penalty if it is believed they can’t be rehabilitated.

C. A jury must be used to make factual determinations to base a death penalty on.

D. The method of execution must be one that uses the newest technology.

Answer 39

C. A jury must be used to make factual determinations to base a death penalty on.

Question 40

What describes the Supreme Court’s ruling in Miranda v. Arizona?

A. It protected people suspected of crimes from illegal searches by law enforcement officials.

B. It required law enforcement officials to inform people suspected of crimes of their constitutional rights.

C. It required states to provide publicly appointed attorneys for people who could not afford legal counsel.

D. It protected people from having illegally obtained evidence used against them in state courts.

Answer 40

B. It required law enforcement officials to inform people suspected of crimes of their constitutional rights.

Question 41

What describes the Supreme Court’s ruling in Mapp v. Ohio?

A. Law enforcement officers do not need a search warrant when using drug-sniffing dogs.

B. Evidence obtained because it was in plain view is not admissible without a warrant.

C. Evidence obtained without a warrant that does not fall under the exception rule is not admissible.

D. Law enforcement officers are required to have a warrant for a search even if consent is given by the suspect.

Answer 41

C. Evidence obtained without a warrant that does not fall under the exception rule is not admissible.

Question 42

What is a reason people can be convicted of a crime without jury trial under the Sixth Amendment?

A. They cannot afford legal council.

B. They do not understand their rights.

C. They accept a plea bargain.

D. They choose to represent themselves.

Answer 42

C. They accept a plea bargain.

Question 43

Which amendment concerns the rights of individuals engaged in civil disputes?

A. The Fifth Amendment

B. The Sixth Amendment

C. The Seventh Amendment

D. The Eighth Amendment

Answer 43

C. The Seventh Amendment

Question 44

What was the impact of the Supreme Court’s decision in Plessy v. Ferguson?

A. It allowed racial segregation by establishing the “separate but equal” doctrine.

B. It prevented African Americans from serving on juries.

C. It prohibited African Americans from holding elected offices.

D. It allowed states to use literacy tests to determine eligibility to vote.

Answer 44

A. It allowed racial segregation by establishing the “separate but equal” doctrine.

Question 45

In which types of cases would the Supreme Court use the standard of strict scrutiny?

A. Cases that restrict fundamental rights of protected classes

B. Cases related to workplace discrimination against women

C. Cases concerning restrictions of rights against foreign nationals

D. Cases involving discrimination against people with lower incomes

Answer 45

A. Cases that restrict fundamental rights of protected classes

Question 46

Why was the separate-but-equal provision in Plessy v. Ferguson ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in the Brown v. Board decision?

A. It violated the freedom to assemble under the First Amendment.

B. It violated the due process clause protected by the Fifth Amendment.

C. It violated implied protection rights under the Ninth Amendment.

D. It violated the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.

Answer 46

D. It violated the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.

Question 47

Which right is protected under the free exercise clause of the Constitution?

A. Freedom of religion

B. Freedom of speech

C. The right to vote

D. The right to bear arms

Answer 47

A. Freedom of religion

Question 48

What describes the Supreme Court’s decision in Cohen v. California?

A. Symbolic speech to express political opinions is constitutionally protected.

B. Students have the right to politically protest on school campuses.
C. Flag burning is not protected political speech under the Constitution.

D.Pornographic material and other obscenities are not constitutionally protected.

Answer 48

A. Symbolic speech to express political opinions is constitutionally protected.

Question 49

What describes the Supreme Court’s ruling in Texas v. Johnson?

A. Nonthreatening hate speech is constitutionally protected.

B. Flag burning is constitutionally protected political speech.

C. Laws banning same-sex relationships are unconstitutional.

D. Fourteenth Amendment protections extend to all minority groups.

Answer 49

B. Flag burning is constitutionally protected political speech.

Question 50

In which case did the Supreme Court rule that a person must be opposed to all wars and not just a particular war to claim conscientious objector status?

A. Gideon v. Wainwright

B. Miranda v. Arizona

C. United States v. Miller

D. Gillette v. United States

Answer 50

D. Gillette v. United States

Question 51

Which issue did the landmark Obergefell v. Hodges Supreme Court case concern?

A. Same-sex marriage

B. Flag burning

C. Abortion

D. Euthanasia

Answer 51

A. Same-sex marriage

Question 52

In which case did the Supreme Court rule there is a constitutional right to privacy that protects a woman’s right to terminate a pregnancy?

A. Roe v. Wade

B. Planned Parenthood v. Casey

C. Griswold v. Connecticut

D. Whole Woman’s Health v. Hellerstedt

Answer 52

A. Roe v. Wade

Question 53

Which amendment to the Constitution gave women the right to vote?

A. Fifteenth Amendment

B. Nineteenth Amendment

C. Twenty-Third Amendment

D. Twenty-Sixth Amendment

Answer 53

B. Nineteenth Amendment

Question 54

What is an appropriate characterization of media agenda setting?

A. It is based on modern meeting management practices.

B. It determines which events deserve public attention.

C. It is an attempt to cover all news without limit.

D. It censors new stories that are unfavorable to sponsors.

Answer 54

B. It determines which events deserve public attention.

Question 55

What established the requirement that the executive branch provide information to private citizens and news outlets?

A. Branzburg v. Hayes

B. The Freedom of Information Act

C. The Communications Act

D. Miller v. California

Answer 55

B. The Freedom of Information Act

Question 56

What describes the principle of prior restraint?

A. News agencies require permission from government officials before publishing stories.

B. The government can prevent some information from being published if it affects national security.

C. News agencies need court approval to publish stories about government corruption.

D. The government can censor stories that could damage the country’s reputation internationally.

Answer 56

B. The government can prevent some information from being published if it affects national security.

Question 57

Which influence would having parents that are committed and vocal Democrats have on people’s political socialization?

A. They would be less likely to participate in the political process.

B. They would likely become strong Republicans.

C. They would likely become strong Democrats.

D. They would be as likely to become strong Republicans as strong Democrats.

Answer 57

C. They would likely become strong Democrats.

Question 58

How do presidents use mandates after election?

A. They use their public support to implement campaign promises.

B. They use their new power to punish political rivals.

C. They plan reelection for the next campaign immediately.

D. They elect members of their party to local offices.

Answer 58

A. They use their public support to implement campaign promises.

Question 59

What is a criticism of the bandwagon effect on American politics?

A. Democratic candidates are provided preferential treatment in the press.

B. Journalists persuade voters to choose candidates with high social desirability.

C. News media agencies provide more coverage to candidates that are leading in the polls.

D. Candidates that raise the most money get the most media coverage.

Answer 59

C. News media agencies provide more coverage to candidates that are leading in the polls.