Pre and Postoperative Care Flashcards

0
Q

One oliguria occurs post operatively how can you differentiate between low output caused by the physiological response to intravascular hypovolemia and that caused by acute tubular necrosis?

A

Fractional excretion of sodium
A FENa less than 1% supports prerenal – Indicates aggressive sodium reclamation in the tubules.

Urine sodium would be below 20 mEq per liter
Urine osmolality would be over 500 mOsm per kilogram

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1
Q

What is the definitive management of hyponatremia?

A

Free – water restriction

Infusion of hypertonic saline may be required with symptomatic hyponatremia – Sodium levels less than or equal to 120 mEq per liter, can result in headache, seizures, coma, and signs of increased intracranial pressure

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2
Q

What electrolyte abnormalities could cause the following symptoms: paresthesia, hyperreflexia, muscle spasm, tetany. How would you differentiate the two?

A

Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia

Electrocardiogram

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3
Q

What would an electrocardiogram show with low calcium levels?

A

Prolonged QT interval, T-wave inversion, heart blocks

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4
Q

What would an electrocardiogram show with low magnesium levels?

A

Prolonged QT and PR intervals, ST segment depression, flattening or inversion of P waves, torsade

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5
Q

When should antibiotics be given in order to reduce the risk of postoperative infectious complications?

A

A single preoperative parental dose of antibiotic effective against aerobes and anaerobes to prevent surgical site infections, No greater than one hour prior to the incision.

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6
Q

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction two years ago, peripheral vascular disease should undergo which test for his preoperative workup?

A

Persantine thallium stress test and echocardiography to assess for his need for coronary angiogram with possible need for angioplasty, stenting, or surgical revascularization prior to surgery.

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7
Q

What are the manifestations of heparin induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Complications are related to venous and or arterial thromboembolic phenomena. Typically manifests after five days as a decrease in platelet counts by 50% of the highest proceeding value or to a level less than 100,000 per cubic millimeters

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8
Q

What is the management for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Cessation of heparin including low molecular weight heparin’s, institution of a non-heparin anticoagulant such as a direct thrombin inhibitor –lepirudin, argatroban and conversion to warfarin when platelet count is about 100,000/mm3

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9
Q

When do most perioperative infarcts occur?

A

When the third – space fluids return to the circulation, increasing the preload and thus myocardial oxygen consumption. Generally occurs around the third postoperative day

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10
Q

Severe sepsis

A

Sepsis + organ dysfunction or hypoperfusion (lactic acidosis, oliguria or altered mental status)

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11
Q

Septic shock

A

Sepsis + organ dysfunction + hypotension – (systolic blood pressure less than 90 mmHg or on vasopressors)

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12
Q

Treatment for class IV hemorrhagic shock?

A

Infusion of packed red blood cells and early administration of fresh frozen plasma and platelets prior to return of laboratory values

1:1 ratio ofPRBC:FFP should be initiated upon recognition of the need for massive transfusion.

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13
Q

Define massive blood transfusion

A

A single transfusion greater than 10 units of packed red blood cells transfused over a period of 24 hours

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14
Q

What is the best method for delivering post operative nutrition?

A

Enteral feeding within 24 hours postoperatively – The small ball functions manually within hours of surgery and is able to accept nutrients promptly Nasoduodenal or percutaneous jejunal feeding catheters. Stomach emptying occurs after 24 hours.

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15
Q

What is a concern in starting total parenteral nutrition in a malnourished patient?

A

Refeeding syndrome – when given IV glucose, insulin levels rise and electrolytes are shifted back intracellularly – Hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypophosphatemia, Hyperglycemia, hyperchloremic acidosis, volume overload with resultant heart failure.

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16
Q

When does a cirrhotic patient with abnormal coagulation studies require a transfusion of fresh frozen plasma to minimize risk of bleeding due to surgery?

A

On call to the operating room. The timing of transfusion is dependent on the quantity of each factor delivered and it’s half life. The half-life of the most stable clotting factor, factor seven is 4 to 6 hours

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17
Q

What is the most common nosocomial infection postoperatively?

A

Urinary tract infection

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18
Q

Name the factors that predispose to fistula formation.

A

Friends

Foreign body
Radiation
Inflammation
Epithelialization of the tract
Neoplasm
Distal obstruction
Steroids
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19
Q

Definition of a high output fistula

A

More than 500 mL per day output, usually proximal and unlikely to close

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20
Q

Fever, chills, pain and redness along the infused vein, losing from IV sites, respiratory distress, anxiety, hypertension, oliguria

A

Hemolytic transfusion reaction– Peptides from the compliment, released into the blood as the red cells are destroyed rapidly, cause hypotension, activate coagulation, and lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation

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21
Q

In the setting of severe hemophilia A, what is the best option for preventing or treating a bleeding complication?

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP) + e–Aminocaproic acid

Desmopressin is a synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone that increases levels of factor 8 and von Willebrand factor

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22
Q

A patient is about to undergo a coronary bypass. He is also taking NSAIDS. When should he stop taking this medication to minimize his risks of bleeding?

A

Stop 3 to 4 days before surgery. NSAIDs cause A reversible defect that lasts three or four days and platelets will be functional for surgery

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23
Q

Next step in management for a suspected ureteral injury

A

Intravenous pyelogram

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24
Q

What is hydronephrosis?

A

Water inside the kidney

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25
Q

Treatment for severe, symptomatic hypocalcemia?

A

Intravenous calcium infusion.

Calcium supplementation, up to 1–2 g every four hours is sufficient in patients with mild symptoms

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26
Q

When can zinc deficiency result? What are the symptoms?

A

Often results in the setting of excessive diarrhea. Alopecia, Poor wound healing, night blindness or photophobia, anosmia, night blindness skin rashes

27
Q

Treatment for anaphylactic shock?

A

Steroids and antihistamines

28
Q

Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia

A

Fever, rigors, myoglobinuria

29
Q

How much fluid does a 60 kg man require?

A

100 mL of fluid per hour or 2400 mL of fluid per day

30
Q

Treatment for hyperkalemia?

A

Calcium ions, sodium bicarbonate producing mild alkalosis, shifting potassium into cells

31
Q

Treatment for dehydration, hyponatremia, hypokalemia and non-anion gap metabolic acidosis in a patient with a large ileostomy output?

A

Fluid replacement and stool bulking agents

32
Q

Treatment for a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Fluids + mannitol

Aggressive fluid resuscitation and osmotic diuretics to clear the hemolyzed red cell membranes which may collect in the glomeruli and cause renal damage. Placement of a Foley catheter with subsequent demonstration of oliguria and hemoglobinuria will confirm a hemolytic transfusion reaction and monitor corrective therapy.

33
Q

Metabolic rate required during starvation?

A

Metabolic rate is decreased by 10%

34
Q

How do you approximate caloric requirements for a routine operation?

A

Multiply the basal metabolic rate by 1.1, the stress factor

35
Q

How do you estimate the basal metabolic rate for multiple organ failure?

A

Multiply the basal metabolic rate by the stress factor, 1.5

36
Q

How do you estimate the caloric requirement for a patient with more than 50% body surface area burns?

A

Multiply the basal metabolic rate by the stress factor, more than 50% body surface area Burns is 2.0

37
Q

What are the electrocardiogram changes seen in hyperkalemia?

A

ECG changes in hyperkalemia become prominent when K+ > 6.0 and include:

• PeakedTwaves(by10mm) • AprolongedPRinterval
• WideningofQRSandmerg- ing of QRS with T wave
• Ventricularfibrillation and cardiac arrest (with increasing levels of K+)

38
Q

M/c malignancy of childhood

A
Wilms tumor
Deletion of 2 genes WT1 (willms tumor gene) and PAX6 on chromosome 11p13 resulting in WAGR syndrome
Wilms tumor
Aniridia
Genitourinary anomalies
Mental retardation
39
Q

Patient with medullary carcinoma. Which other diseases should you screen for?

A

25% MEN 2A and MEN 2B

MEN2A: medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, primary hyperparathyroidism

Check urine VMA, serum calcium

MEN2B: MTC, pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuromas, gangliomas, and marfan habitus.

40
Q

What tests should you order to test for MEN1?

A

Serum gastrin, insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin

Pituitary, parathyroid, pancreatic tumors

41
Q

Type of biopsy for soft tissue tumor

A

INCISIONAL biopsy, excisional for small masses.

42
Q

Common side effect of patients on chemotherapy that requires a surgical consult.

A

Perirectal abscesses common in immunosuppressed patients.

43
Q

Tx for early stage seminomas

A

Orchiectomy and external beam radiation.

Seminomas are extremely radiosensitive.

44
Q

Name the diseases in which pheo’s are associated

A

MEN2A, MEN2B, von Hippel-Lindau disease, neurofibromatosis I

45
Q

Amsterdam criteria

A

(1) 3 relatives with histologically confirmed CC, one 1st degree
(2) 2 successive generations
(3) diagnosis before age 50

Used to clinically diagnose hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer HNPCC

46
Q

Screening for patients with HNPCC

A

start between 20-25 or 10 years earlier than youngest family member with CRC.

47
Q

Treatment for stage III CRC

A
  • Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by:

- Low anterior resection (resect rectum with colorectal anastomosis)

48
Q

How are cardiac donors matched to recipients?

A

Size

ABO blood type

49
Q

Mainstay of immunosuppression for both cardiac and renal allografts

A
  • Calcineurin inhibitors (FK506, cyclosporine)
  • Steroids
  • Antimitotic agents (azathioprine, mycophenolate mofetil)
50
Q

Tx for metastatic GIST (Gastrointestinal stromal tumors)

A
  • GISTs express the c-kit receptor, a tyrosine kinase

- Imatinib - selective tyrosine kinase inhibitor used as neoadjuvant or palliative therapy

51
Q

associated with the p16 tumor suppressor gene

A

Hereditary malignant melanoma

52
Q

Cancer risks BRCA1

A

colon cancer

Prostate cancer

53
Q

BRCA2 cancer risks

A
gallbladder
Bile duct
Pancreatic
Gastric
Melanoma
Prostate
54
Q

Cancer drug that causes hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide

55
Q

Post transplant lymphoproliferative disorders are associated with which virus?

A

EBV

56
Q

What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

persistent hypercalcemia secondary to autonomous parathyroid function after renal transplantation.

57
Q

Tx for tertiary hyperparathryoidism

A

total parathyroidectomy with autotransplantation or subtotal parathyroidectomy

58
Q

Treatment for adenocarcinoma in the proximal sigmoimd colon

A

Left hemicolectomy
Adequate margin is 5 cm with draining LN basin.
-Adjuvant chemotherapy: 5-fluorouracil and leucovorin

59
Q

Major SE azathioprine

A

bone marrow toxicity - monitor WBC and platelet counts immediately postop when used as immunosuppresant.

60
Q

Tx for CMV pneumonitis

A

high-dose gancyclovir

61
Q

Patient receives kidney transplant but 3 months PO p/w elevated creatinine. What is your DDx? If no graft tenderness, fever, and edematous kidney on ultrasound, what is likely?

A
Rejection
Anastomotic problems
Urologic conplications
Infection
Nephrotoxicity - Cyclosporine induced

If rejection signs, give steroid boost.

62
Q

Isolated focus of increased uptake on thyroid scan

A

Diagnostic of HYPERFUNCTIONING ADENOMA

63
Q

Diffuse uptake of radioactive iodine by thyroid gland on thyroid scan

A

Graves’ disease

64
Q

Effect of a ‘not nodule’

A

hot noduule = hyperfunctioning adenoma - independent of TSH control and secrete thyroid hormone resulting in clinical hyperthyroidism.

65
Q

35 y/o F s/p thyroidectomy p/w progressive swelling under incision, stridor, difficulty breathing 6 hours post operatively. What is it? Management.

A

Wound hematoma

Wound exploration and control of any bleeding vessels

66
Q

What is multifocal breast disease?

A

multiple tumors within 1 quadrant of the breast.