Practise Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

According to Orne, demand characteristics are?

A

Information that participants pick up from the experimental context.

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2
Q

Experimenter effects are known to comprise the validity of an experiment. How would you best describe these effects?

A

Subtle cues given out by an experimenter who knows the hypothesis.

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3
Q
The ethical treatment human participants is paramount in all social psychology studies. Which is not a critical element of social psychological research?
A. Deception
B. Informed consent.
C. Confidentiality
D. None of these responses
A

A. Deception

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4
Q

In Batson’s empathy study, what was the scenario that the actual person was least likely to help the other person?

A

It was easy to escape and you perceived you were dissimilar to the participant.

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5
Q

Self-awareness is known to develop from approximately what age?

A

18months.

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6
Q
Which of the following is not considered a consequence of private self-awareness?
A. Evaluation apprehension
B. Clarification of knowledge
C. Intense emotional response
D. Adherence to personal standards
A

A. Evaluation apprehension

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7
Q
Evaluation apprehension is considered a consequence of which of the following?
A. Private self-consciousness
B. Private self-awareness
C. Public self-awareness
D. Public self-consciousness
A

C. Public self-awareness

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8
Q

In the Baumeister et al. (1998) study on self-regulation, why did the participants in the radishes group stop the problem solving task quicker than the chocolate biscuit group?

A

Because self-regulating in one area makes it hard to self-regulate in another.

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9
Q

Which of the following statements best reflects why people prefer to make dis positional attributions?
A. Because they are automatic
B. Because they are more valuable for making predictions about behaviour
C. Because they are more fun
D. Because they require fewer cognitive resources

A

B. Because they are more valuable for making predictions about behaviour

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10
Q

According to Kelley’s covariation model, consensus information refers to what?

A

The extent to which others react in the same way to a stimulus.

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11
Q

When explaining attribution errors, how does perceptual salience explain the fundamental attribution error?

A

Because the person being observed is the most perceptually salient aspect of the situation.

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12
Q

Describe base rate fallacy?

A

People tend to ignore statistical information in favour of representativeness information.

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13
Q

According to Bem’s (1965) self perception theory, we are more likely to make internal attributions when?

A

The bahviour was freely chosen.

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14
Q
Which one of the following is not a psychological need accounted for in the functional approach to attitude formation?
A. Value-expressive
B. Utilitarian
C. Information
D. Ego defensive
A

C. Information

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15
Q

Explain the results from the classic investigation of attitudes and behaviour (LaPierre, 1934)?

A

The behaviour was specific but the attitude was general.

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16
Q

According to the theory of planned behaviour, what reflects perceived behavioural control?

A

That it is determined by our perception of the difficulty associated with performing the behaviour.

17
Q
Which of the following factors is not associated with affected cognitive dissonance?
A. Self-esteem
B. Investment
C. Freedom of choice
D. Consequences of the act
A

A. Self-esteem

18
Q

Describe the foot in the door technique?

A

People have a tendency to judge their behaviour at face value.

19
Q

James is experiencing peer pressure at school to go to a party. Which of the following social psychology strategies would help James resist peer pressure?
A. Festinger’s social comparison theory
B. McGuire’s inoculation theory
C. Festinger’s cognitive dissonance theory
D. The elaboration likelihood model

A

B. McGuire’s inoculation theory

20
Q
You are watching a TV advert selling a product that you don't need. You begin thinking about your social psychology class on persuasion. What will influence you to be persuaded by the person on TV?
A. The expertise of the seller
B. The speed of the person's speech
C. The attractiveness of the person
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

21
Q
Which of the following best explains why our though, feelings and behaviours change as a consequence of being in the presence of others?
A. Conformity
B. Minority influence
C. Mere exposure
D. Social influence
A

D. Social influence

22
Q

___________ explains why we conform to a group norm for informative purposes, and ______ explains why we conform to a group to gain acceptance.

A

Informational influence; normative influence

23
Q

_______ is a change in public and private attitudes, whereas _____ is a change in public attitude only.

A

Conversion; compliance

24
Q
According to Nemeth (1986), minorities exert their influence over the majority by employing which of the following strategies?
A. Convergent thinking
B. Group think
C. Divergent thinking
D. Group polarisation
A

C. Divergent thinking

25
Q
According to the Crisp and Turner (2014) text, which of the following is not a key trait of good leaders?
A. Attractive
B. Confident
C. Talkative
D. Intelligence
A

A. Attractive

26
Q

In collectivist cultures, the best leaders ______ whereas leaders from individualist cultures ______.

A

Foster positive relationships; focus on reaching the goal.

27
Q
According to Lippitt and White (1943), which two leadership styles are high on the socio-emotional dimension?
A. Laissez-faire and autocratic
B. Authoritarian and autocratic
C. Laissez-faire and democratic
D. Autocratic and democratic
A

C. Laissez-faire and democratic

28
Q

According to the least preferred co-worker scale, situational control is determined by which of the following factors?
A. Harmonious leader-member relations
B. Whether the leader has legitimate authority over the group
C. Whether the structure of group tasks is clear
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

29
Q
According to the frustration-aggression hypothesis, which of the following is not a valid reason for preventing the projection of directing one's aggression towards the cause of the frustration?
A. The person is too socially powerful
B. The cause is due to a person
C. The cause is due to the situation
D. The person is too physically powerful
A

B. The cause is due to a person

30
Q

When the purpose of aggression is to cause harm it is termed ______, whereas ______ typically serves a different purpose such as a robbery.

A

Affective aggression; instrumental aggression

31
Q

According to Latane and Darley’s cognitive model, what must a person do immediately prior to accept personal responsibility for an emergency?

A

B. Define the accident

32
Q

Social psychology research suggests that we tend to be attracted to other who are of similar attractiveness because we estimate that they will also have a similar opinion to us. This tendency is known as what?

A

The matching hypothesis

33
Q
Which of the following dispositional traits does not facilitate self-evaluation of job satisfaction?
A. Locus of control
B. Neuroticism 
C. Collective efficacy
D. Self-efficacy
A

C. Collective efficacy

34
Q

After experiencing a small health scare you change your whole life around. Exercise more, eat healthier etc. the theory of planned behaviour can attempt to predict your change in behaviour. What is the most important factor in predicting behaviour change according to this model?

A

Intention to engage in a behaviour.

35
Q
Which of the following approaches has been applied in multiple contexts as an intervention to target prejudiced attitudes and behaviour?
A. Indirect contact
B. Crossed contact
C. Extended contact
D. Imagine contact
A

D. Imagine contact

36
Q

According to research on group processes, _____ is the tendency for people to perform worse when in front of an audience.

A

Social inhibition

37
Q

According to Doise, (1978), the category differentiation model accentuates the _____ categories and accentuates the ____ categories.

A

Differences between; similarities within

38
Q

The underlying purpose of crossed categorisation is to?

A

Make two bases for group membership simultaneously salient.