Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pediatrics > Practice Test > Flashcards

Practice Test Flashcards

1
Q

Which condition uses the rule of 3’s: More than 3 hours, more than 3 days a week, for more than 3 months?

A

Colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the criteria for a child to have enuresis?

A

Child over 5- 2x a week for 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most common cause of encopresis?

A

Constipation (90%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the definition of failure to thrive (FTT)?

A

Weight less than 5th percentile on multiple occasions or weight deceleration that crosses two major percentile lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most common primary nephrotic syndrome and between what ages does it occur?

A

Minimal Change Nephrotic Syndrome (Ages 1-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Test of choice for voiding dysfunctions ?

A

Voiding Cystourethrogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What specific gravity is required for a 1+ protein on dipstick to be considered proteinuria and what if it is higher than that?

A

A. Less than or equal to 1.015

B. Needs to be 2+ if higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What conditions should imaging be done for a child with a UTI?

A

A. Kids with 1st UTI before age 5
B. Febrile UTI
C. Recurring UTI
D. Male with UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is heme-positive urine caused by and what do each of these indicate?

A

A. Hemoglobin – Hemolytic anemia

B. Myoglobinuria – Skeletal muscle injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A child comes in with his foreskin trapped behind the glans penis, what is this condition and how is it treated?

A

Paraphimosis – Emergent circumcision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which pediatric orthopedic condition is more common in females?

A

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What tests would you perform on a child with idiopathic osteonecrosis of the femoral head and what sign is seen on x-ray?

A

A. Barlow’s test – Dislocation test
B. Ortolani test – Relocation test
C. Crescent sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden hip pain and limp in children ?

A

Transient Synovitis of the Hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What condition would you expect to see in an overweight child who is having a painful limp and how common is this

A

A. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)

B. Most common adolescent hip disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common cause of “toeing in” ?

A

Internal tibial torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common type of salter-Harris fracture?

A

Type II – 75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What condition is known as the 100 day cough and requires treatment of everyone in the family?

A

Pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A child comes in to urgent care with a barking cough, what would you expect to see on x-ray?

A

Steeple sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a medical condition has fallen in incidence due to HiB vaccination and what would you see on x-ray

A

A. Epiglottitis

B. Thumb sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A patient has fatty white stools and recurrent respiratory infections. What test would you order to confirm your diagnosis and what disease are you testing for?

A

A. Sweat chloride test

B. Cystic Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What medication could be good to try in a child who has asthma and why?

A

Trial of PPI’s since Asthma and GERD are commonly connected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What types of foreign bodies in the nose are you very concerned with and why?

A

A. Batteries
B. Magnets
C. Septal perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When would you see a ground glass appearance on CXR in an infant and what are they lacking?

A

A. Hyaline Membrane Disease

B. Surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most common craniofacial anomaly?

A

Cleft lift and palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula?

A

A. Connection of the esophagus to the trachea and a false pouch instead of an esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An infant comes in who projectile vomits after being fed but is continuously hungry, what would you expect to find on an upper GI series and on physical exam?

A

A. String sign

B. Olive shaped mass in RUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Abdominal x-ray shows a “double bubble sign”. What is causing this sign?

A

Ladd bands have caused a volvulus which is showing air in the duodenum and stomach only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What condition would present with currant jelly stool and a bulls eye or target sign?

A

Intussusception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What disease involves an absence of ganglion cells in the distal rectum and colon and what sign would be present on DRE?

A

A. Hirschsprungs Disease

B. Squirt Sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of hernia is most common in children and which type is most dangerous?

A

A. Umbilical

B. Diaphragmatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A child presents after a possible untreated ear infection. When you look at him you immediately notice that one of his ears is “sticking out”. What condition do you immediately need to consider?

A

Mastoiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What physical finding would you expect to see in a child with Erythemia infectiosum?

A

Slapped cheek appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A child presents to your office with a 4 day history of high fever that finally stopped last night. The child now has a rash. What do you think is going on with them?

A

Roseola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What condition can cause a potential life threatening formation of a pseudo membrane in the posteriod pharynx?

A

Diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the most common congenital heart disease?

A

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What physical finding would you expect upon auscultation of a patient with an atrial septal defect?

A

Widely split S1/S2 through inspiration and expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What condition would you expect to find a continuous “machinery murmur” and how is it treated?

A

A. Patent ductus arteriosus

B. Indomethacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What condition would you expect to find a difference of more than 10mmHg between the upper and lower extremities?

A

Coarctation of aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What disease is treated with high dose aspirin and puts a child at risk for coronary artery aneurysm?

A

Kawasaki Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common nutritional deficiency in children?

A

Iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the most common malignancy in children?

A

Leukemia – 33%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the most common abdominal tumor in children?

A

Wilms tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis involves a quotidian fever pattern with a rash?

A

Systemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What condition involving a deletion in chromosome 22 causes low PTH and Ca levels?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What disorder involves a female phenotype with an XY genotype?

A

Androgen Insensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a cephalohematoma?

A

Blood between the periosteum and the bone due to difficult labor or delivery with suction or forceps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What condition is caused by a brachial plexus injury at birth?

A

Erb Palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Why is it dangerous for cat ladies to become pregnant?

A

Toxoplasmosis Gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the three components of atopy?

A

A. Asthma
B. Allergic Rhinitis
C. Atopic Dematitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the most common allergic disorder and what are some physical exam findings you would see?

A

A. Allergic rhinoconjunctivitis
B. Allergic shiners
C. Transverse nasal crease
D. Cobblestoning of the posterior pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the most common causes of anaphylaxis in children, adults, and elderly?

A

A. Children – Food
B. Adults – Venom
C. Elderly – Medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What immunologic disease requires daily prophylactic antibiotic and antifungal agents?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the most common neurologic disorder of infants and young children?

A

Febrile seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is considered abnormal head size?

A

2 standard deviations above or below normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the most common cause of hypertension in children (according to the lecture) ?

A

Vesicoureteral Reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the age is considered pediatrics?

A

newborn to 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is recommended frequency of well visits?

A

1-2 weeks, then

2, 4, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 and 24, then annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How do you check growth development?

A

Physical Exam
Growth Charts
Milestones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the overall goal of pediatrics?

A

Disease Prevention and health promotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What factors affect development?

A

Physical, Cognitive, Social, Environmental, and Diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What components of a history is important?

A

Maternal health

Gestational age at bar

Apgar, Hospital course

Meds and allergies

Immunizations

Family history

Social history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When do you start checking BP in kids?

A

3 and check annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When does a child triple its birth weight?

A

within a year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When does a child achieve two-thirds of brain size?

A

by 2 1/2- 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How does the WHO chart kids up to 36 months of age?

A

Length for age
Weight for age
Head circumference for age
Weight for length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How does the CDC chart kids from 2 to 20 years?

A

Stature for age
Weight for age
BMI for age
Weight for Stature (2 to 5 yrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is Hypertension in children?

A

Systolic or Diastolic BP equal to or above the 95th percentile measured on 3 occasions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Newborn HR and RR?

A

HR: 120-160

RR: 40-60

T: 36.5- 37.5 rectally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

6 Months HR and RR?

A

HR: 110-160

RR: 24-38

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

1 year HR and RR?

A

HR: 90-150

RR: 22-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

3 year HR and RR?

A

HR: 80-125

RR: 22-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What O2 sat is dangerous?

A

less than 93%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is considered a temperature?

A

> 100.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are considered vital signs?

A

ht, wt, head circumference, BMI, BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the common diagnoses detected on WCC?

A

Failure to thrive

Sensory Deficits (no tracking, no no loud stimuli)

Congenital Heart Defects

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

Cerebral Palsy

Musculoskeletal disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the components of a newborn PE?

A

Complete PE
Circumcision
Screen for Congenital heart disease w/ pulse ox after 24 hr and before discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What do you want to review with parents in terms of a newborn schedule?

A

feeding
sleeping
diapering
bathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What should you be checking on the 1st week visit?

A

Monitor weight- Should regain or exceed birth weight by 2 weeks

Postpartum Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How long should you exclusively breastfeed according to the AAP?

A

6 months

then add complementary food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What important milestones would you expect from a 2 month old?

A

Turning head to sounds

Eyes able to follow people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What important milestones would you expect from a 4 month old?

A

Holds head up unsupported

Recognizes people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What important milestones would you expect from a 6 month old?

A

Responds to name

Crawls

Pass between hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What important milestones would you expect from a 9 month old?

A

Stands while holding on

Understands “no”

Plays peek-a-boo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What important milestones would you expect from a 12 month old?

A

Says mama and dada

Grazing

Takes a few steps without holding on

Can switch from breastfeeding to whole milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What important milestones would you expect from an 18 month old?

A

Uses single words

Walks alone

Helps dress themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What important milestones would expect from a 3 year old?

A

Shows affection

Rides a tricycle

Plays make believe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What important milestones would you expect from a 4 year old?

A

Correct grammar

Hops on 1 foot

Understands counting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What important milestones would you expect from a 5 year old?

A

Uses future tense

uses fork, spoon and table knife

Toilets

Understands money and time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What important milestones can you expect in a 2 year old?

A

Can switch from whole to skim milk
Avoid choking by sitting down
Toilet readiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

When adding food at 6 months what is it best to start with?

A

thin consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is considered baby food?

A 
Cereal 
Fruits
Veggies
Meat
Snacks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What age does a baby go through a night without being fed?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How do children 6 to 10 years of age attempt goals?

A

Achievement by trial and error, goal- directed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What can be difficult about adolescence (11-21 years of age)?

A

Puberty (girls 10 ends at 14 , guys 11 ends at 16)

Struggle for identity, independence and eventually intimacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What scale do you use for sexual maturity?

A

Tanner stage
I- Preadolescence, no hair
II-Sparse pigmented, long straight along labia and base of penis with breast budding
III-Darker courser curlier, continued enlargement of boobs
IV-Adult but decreased distribution, Areola and papilla form in secondary mound
V- Adult in quantity and type and medial spread to thighs with mature female breasts

96
Q

What are the priorities for the Middle childhood and adolescence visits?

A

School bullying, academics and sports

Mental health, self esteem, temper and independence

Nutrition and Development

Oral Health

Safety

97
Q

What Screening Tests should be done 24 hours after birth?

A

Newborn Metabolic Screening

98
Q

What screening tests should be done at 12 months?

A

Hematocrit or hemoglobin (risk assessment at 15 and 30 months)
Lead Screening

99
Q

What screening test should be started at age 3 and checked periodically?

A

(BP)

Visual Acuity

100
Q

When should you screen for hearing?

A

after birth and then at age 4

101
Q

When should you do dyslipidemia screening?

A

once between 9-11 and again between 17-21

102
Q

When do you start screening for STI’s?

A

HIV between 16 and 18 and if sexually active then annually

103
Q

How long do you stay in rear facing car seats?

A

age 2 (cant sit up front til 13)

104
Q

When will kids have most of their baby teeth?

A

age 3 should have 20 teeth

105
Q

When will a kid start showing teeth?

A

between 4 months and 15 months

106
Q

When can you expect permanent teeth?

A

5-7 years start and ends by age 13-14 yrs.

107
Q

According to CA what is the most chronic disease in children?

A

Dental Caries. brush with fluoridated toothpaste

108
Q

When should kids get a fluoride varnish?

A

6 months to 5 years and then every 3-6 months

109
Q

How much screen time is recommended?

A

avoid before age 2 and limit 2 hours for children and teens

110
Q

What is the leading cause of death in children and adolescents after 1st year of life?

A

Injuries

111
Q

When should you be screening for depression?

A

ages 11 to 21 (also screen for alcohol and drug use)

112
Q

What is your work up for enuresis?

A

H&P and UA/UC

113
Q

How do you treat enuresis?

A 
education
limit liquids
wake child at night
bed wetting alarms
desmopressin
114
Q

What is encopresis?

A

repeated passage of stool into inappropriate places by child who is older than 4 years old

115
Q

How do you work up and treat enopresis?

A

H&P with DRE

educate, behavioral strategies, tx constipation

116
Q

When does colic usually peak?

A

age 2-3 months

117
Q

What is a common feeding problem?

A

food refusal due to pain or frightening

118
Q

When is a feeding problem getting severe?

A

failure to thrive

119
Q

When do kids usually have nightmares?

A

ages 3-5

120
Q

When does Sleep walking occur?

A

Ages 4-8

121
Q

What happens to the body during a night terror?

A

Increased HR and RR, sweating, screaming and thrashing

122
Q

When are temper tantrums common?

A

ages 1-4

123
Q

How frequent do temper tantrums happen?

A

once a week in 50-80% of kids ages 1-4

124
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle usually close?

A

18 months- 2 years

125
Q

When does the posterior fontanelle close?

A

Within 1-2 days

126
Q

Baby has unequal red reflexes?

A

Congenital cataracts maybe, punt to optho

127
Q

What are the components of a cardiovascular PE?

A 
auscultation of murmurs
Skin color
Assess Perfusion
Assess Respiratory Effort
O2 stats pre and post ductal
128
Q

What are the components of the lung PE?

A

Auscultation

Observe for: Retractions, grunting, nasal flaring and rate

129
Q

What are common Lung findings?

A 
Transient tachypnea of the newborn
Neonatal pneumonia
Meconium aspiration syndrome
pneumothorax
Hyaline membrane disease
130
Q

What are the components of the Abd exam?

A

palpate, ubilical cord, abd wall defects

131
Q

What are normal findings on a GU exam?

A

Female:
Vernix and discharge may be present

Male:
Palpate testes
Check urethral meatus position

132
Q

What is the rooting reflex?

A

brush face and face will turn to you

133
Q

What is the galant reflex?

A

tickle side and baby will curl to that side

134
Q

What are the risk factors or having a jaundice baby?

A 
Premature
Breast feeding
Illness/sepsis
ABO incompatibility
G6PD deficiency
135
Q

What is preterm considered?

A

less than 34 weeks

136
Q

What is late preterm considered?

A

35-36/37 weeks

137
Q

What is term considered?

A

37-42 weeks

138
Q

What is post term considered?

A

> 42 weeks

139
Q

What are you looking at for gestational age assessment?

A 
Skin texture
Lanugo
Plantaer markings
Joint mobility
Eyes/ears
Genitalia and breast development
Tone and posture
140
Q

What should your newborn screening involve?

A 
Hearing
Hyperbilirubinemia
Metabolic state screen
Critical Congential Heart Disease
Infection
Hypoglycemia
(SGA/LGA, prematurity, diabetic moms, sepsis, maternal beta blocker use)
141
Q

Symptoms of Sepsis?

A 
tachycardia and tachypnea
Respiratory distress
Low tone
Poor feeding
HYpoglycemia
apnea
lethargy
temp instability
hyperbilirubinemia
pallor
142
Q

What procedures are parental consent NOT needed for?

A 
Substance abuse treatment
STI screening
Pregnancy prevention and care
Sometimes abortion
Mental health care
Emergency care
143
Q

What is the purpose of Well checks in adolescence?

A

Reduce morbidity and premature mortality, both during adolescence and in later years
Major components:
Screening, Counseling to reduce risk, Providing immunizations and giving general health guidance

144
Q

What are the major causes of Morbidity in adol?

A 
Mostly psychosocial and often correlate with poverty
unintended pregnancy
STI's
Substance abuse
Smoking
Dropping out of school
Depression
Homelessness and Physical violence
145
Q

What are some common mental health red flags?

A

Excessive sleeping: insomnia
Loss of self esteem
Abandonment or loss of interested in favorite activities
Unexpected and dramatic declines in academic performance
Weight loss & loss of appetite
Personality shifts and changes

146
Q

What are common issues that arise during puberty?

A

Anemia (girls, Fe)
Gynecomastia (50% boys 13)
Acne (opened and closed comodones)
Psychological changes (depression- girls, pre-frontal cortex impulse)
Gynecologic issues (anovulatory, AUB)
MSK (strains,sprains, asynchronous growth of body parts)
Myopia (growth of axial diameter of the eye)
Scoliosis
STI’s ( high risk, incrased columnar epithelial cells on exocervix)

147
Q

What is the definition of delayed puberty?

A

Absence or incomplete development of secondary sexual characteristics by an age at which 95% of children of that sex & culture have initiated sexual maturation

148
Q

How would you evaluate delayed puberty?

A

Look at growth velocity
Tanner stages
X-ray of L hand and wrist to check skeletal maturation
Pelvic or testicular US, brain MRI, hormone testing and karotyping

149
Q

What is included in a targeted history for sports physical?

A

PMH- chronic disease, prior surgery, hx heat-related illness, menstraul hx
Past injuries, LOC
Cardio HX- dyspnea, chest pain, syncope, palpitations, lightheadedness
Family hx- sudden death, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, marfan syndrome, QT syndrome, pacemaker or defibrillator

150
Q

What is included in the sports physical examination?

A 
vitals- BMI, BP, HR
HEENT- visual acuity, hearing
Cardiac- murmurs
Lung- wheezing
Abd- organomegaly
MSk- 2 minute screening exam for weakness, ROM, previous injury
Neuro- hx concussion
Skin- contagious infx
151
Q

What are the components of a 2 minute sports physical/

A
  1. stand straight, facing forward
  2. Move neck in all directions
  3. Shrug shoulders against resistance
  4. Hold arms out to side against resistance
  5. Hold arms out to side w/ elbows bent raise & lower
  6. Hold arms out, completely bend & straighten elbows
  7. Bend elbows 90 then pronate & supinate forearms
  8. Make a fist, clench, then spread fingers
  9. Squat and duck-walk for 4 steps forward
  10. Stand straight, facing back
  11. Bend forward w/ knees straight, touch toes
  12. Stand on heels, then on top-toes
152
Q

What do you get if you have a normal sports physical?

A

Full clearance for participation
Clearance to participate with limitations
Exclusion from participating pending further evaluation

153
Q

What is the female athlete triad?

A

Eating disorder
menstrual dysfunction
low bone density

154
Q

What sports and complications are related to the female athlete triad?

A 
Running, Dance, gymnastics
Fractures
Arrhythmias
Hyopglycemia
seizures
resp. failure
155
Q

What are the typical CBC findings in an early infection?

A

leukocytosis with neutrophil response

156
Q

What are the typical CBC findings in a viral infection?

A

neutrophil response is transient followed by increased lymphocytes

157
Q

What are the typical CBC findings in a bacterial infection?

A

Greater neutrophil counts (left shift with increased # immature cells)

158
Q

When would you order a peripheral blood smear?

A

to detect abnormalities in form and function

confirmatory test like leukemia and sickle cell disease

Adjunct in evaluation of anemia

159
Q

What information can you get from a urinalysis?

A 
pH
Specific gravity
Protein
Glucose
Nitrite
Ketone
Bilirubin
Blood
Leukocytes
160
Q

Lumbar punctures are gold standard tests for what?

A

meningitis or encephalitits (always get CX)

161
Q

What are normal LP values?

A

Pressure: 70-200 mm H20
Leukocytes:

162
Q

What are the LP results of bacterical meningitis?

A

increased pressure
leukocytes: 200-20,000 (mostly PMN’s)
Preotein: > 50

163
Q

What are the LP results of viral meningitis?

A

Pressure: normal or slightly raised
Leukocytes: 100-1,000 (mostly lymphocytes or monocytes)
protein: normal or slightly increased

164
Q

Gold standard for UTI?

A

urine culture with antibiotic sensitivites

165
Q

What are rapid tests usually testing?

A

antigens

166
Q

When do you use rapid tests?

A

for preliminary diagnosis,

Strep, Influenza, Monospot

167
Q

What are serologic tests looking at?

A

immune response , development of antibodies like HIV,Lyme, HSV, Hep

168
Q

What are molecular tests looking at?

A

Genetic diseases, dna sequencing via polymerase chain reaction
used to determine carrier status..Examples:
CF, Fragile X, Huntington

169
Q

What hormones are you testing for?

A 
HCG
FSH
TSH
Prolactin
LH
DHEA-S
Estradiol
Testosterone
170
Q

What can you use ultrasound on?

A

Abd (mass, appendicitis)
Pelvic (PCOS)
Scrotal
Ultrasound-guided imaging

171
Q

When are CT’s usually used?

A

primary modality in acute or emergent situations

172
Q

When are MRI’s used?

A

test of choice for CNS abnormalities, Non invasive but time consuming and sedation sometimes required

173
Q

How do you work up a fever?

A

Febrile infants

174
Q

How often do you do an APGAR test?

A

1 minute and 5 minute

175
Q

What is the most likely cause of conjunctivitis on day 1?

A

Chemical Irritation

176
Q

What is the most likely cause of conjunctivitis on days 2-7?

A

Gonorrhea

177
Q

What is the most likely cause conjunctivitis past day 7?

A

Chlamydia

178
Q

What is the most likely cause of conjunctivitis after 3 weeks?

A

Herpes

179
Q

What drops do you give directly after birth to prevent opthalmia neonatium?

A

Erythromycin ointment and Silver nitrate

180
Q

What screening tests do you need to do before discharge?

A 
PKU
Biotinidase
Beta- thalassemia
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
Galactosemia
Hypothyriodism
homocysteinuria
cystic fibrosis
181
Q

Who gets the Hep b vaccine?

A

Every baby but those whose mothers are HbsAg- positive will get HBIG

182
Q

How many babies are born jaundice?

A

60%

183
Q

Do cephalohematoma’s cross suture lines?

A

NO, they don’t cross suture lines

184
Q

What is a common shoulder dystocia and what are the complications?

A

Erbs Palsy, Cant abduct shoulder, cant externally rotate shoulder or supinate arm

185
Q

What is the most common hernia in babies?

A

umbilical hernias

186
Q

What are umbilical hernias sometimes associated with?

A

Congenital hypothyroidism

187
Q

What is commonly seen in patients with the absence of an iris?

A

Wilms tumor

188
Q

Opening of the urethra on ventral surface?

A

Hypospadias

189
Q

Opening of the urethra on dorsal surface?

A

epispadias

190
Q

What is most likely happening when a kid has exercise intolerance and squats to decrease right to left shunting?

A

Tet Spell

191
Q

What are the components of Tetralogy of fallot?

A

Bi-ventricular origin of the aorta

Large VSD

Obstruction to pulmonary blood flow

RVH

192
Q

Holosystolic murmur heard at lower sternal border?

A

Ventricular Septal Defect

193
Q

Most common congenital heart lesion?

A

VSD

194
Q

Loud pulmonic S2 and xray shows increased vascular markings?

A

VSD

195
Q

Fixed wide splitting of S2 and chest XRAY shows increased vascular markings and cardiomegaly

A

Atrial Septal Defect

196
Q

Most common atrial septal defect?

A

Ositum secundum (central atrial septum)

197
Q

What commonly causes dysrhytmias and paradoxical emboli DVT?

A

ASD

198
Q

Machinery like murmur, wide pulse pressure. bounding pulses?

A

Patent Ductuc Arteriosus

199
Q

EKG shows Left ventricular dysfunction and failure?

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

200
Q

How do you close a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

indomethacin

201
Q

Severe CHF and Resp. Distress within first few months, Differential pressure and reduced pulses with rib notchings, EKG LVH?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

202
Q

What conditions are commonly seen with Coarctation of the aorta

A

turner syndrome

203
Q

failure to pass meconium in first 72 hours of life?

A

Hirchsprung Disease

204
Q

How do you confirm Hirchsprung?

A

Full thickness biopsy showing lack of ganglionic cells

205
Q

What is commonly seen with imperforate anus?

A 
V-vertebral anomalies
A- anal atresia
L- limb anomalies
C- cardiovascular anomalies
T- tracheoesphageal fistula
E- Esophageal atresia
R- Renal anomalies
206
Q

Persistent, multiple air bubbles, bowel looped obstruction?

A

volvulus

207
Q

Sudden onset, telescope on ultrasound?

A

intussuception

208
Q

Grade 2-3 midsystolic Crescendo Decresendo murmur on upper LSD, S2 widely split through inspiration/ expiration?

A

ASD

209
Q

Systolic thrill-suprasternal
Early systolic click upper LSB
Crescendo decresencdo upper LSB radiating towards clavicle and louder with inspriation?

A

Pulmonic Stenosis

210
Q

chorioretinitis, hydroscephalus, and multiple ring- enhancing lesions on CT caused by Toxoplasma gondii?

A

toxoplasmosis

211
Q

Best initial and accurate test for toxoplasmosis?

A

Initial IgM

Accurate PCR

212
Q

Treat for toxo?

A

pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

213
Q

Rash on the palms and soles, snuffles, frontal bossing, hutchinson eighth nerve palsy and saddle nose

A

Syphilis

214
Q

Best initial and accurate test for syphilis?

A

Initial VDRL

Accurate FTA ABS or dark field microscopy

215
Q

Treat syphilis?

A

penicillin

216
Q

Periventricular calcifications with microencephaly, chorioretinitie, hearing loss, and petechiae?

A

CMV

217
Q

Best initial ad accurate test for CMV?

A

initial- urine or saliva viral titers

Most accurate is urine or saliva PCR for viral DNA

218
Q

Treat CMV?

A

ganiciclovir with signs of end organ damage

219
Q

PDA, cataracts, deafness, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, blueberry muffin rash, and hyperbilirubinemia

A

Rubella

220
Q

Best initial and accurate test for rubella?

A

maternal IgM status. TX supportive

221
Q

Week 1: shock and DIC
Week 2: Vesicular skin lesions
Week 3: encephalitits

A

Herpes

222
Q

Best initial and most accurate test for Herpes?

A

Initial is tzanck smear and most accurate is PCR

223
Q

Multiple highly pruritic vesicular rash that begins on face, possible fever and malaise

A

Varicella zoster virus

224
Q

Diagnostic test for for varicella?

A

tzanck smear showing multinucleated giant cells and most accurate test is viral culture

225
Q

The 3 C’s: cough, coryza and conjunctivitis with a koplik spot (grayish macule on buccal surface)

A

Rubeola or measles (parmyxovirus)

226
Q

How do you diagnose rubeola or measles?

A

IgM antibodies

227
Q

parvovirus b19?

A

fifth disease (erythema infectiosum)

228
Q

Roseola

A

Herpesvirus types 6 and 7

229
Q

Mumps

A

paramyxovirus, fever precedes classic parotid gland swelling with poissibe orchitis

230
Q

When do you get MMR vaccine?

A

1st dose 12-15 months then 2nd atleast 28 days after (4-6 years of age)

231
Q

When do you get pertussis vaccine?

A

DTap: 2, 4, 6, 15-18 months, 4-6 years

Accelerated 1st three doses at 6, 10, and 14 weeks; 4th dose given 6-12 months after 3rd dose; 5th dose age 4-6 years

232
Q

Meningococcal vaccine

A

kids aged 11-12 years with a booster at age 16 ages (HIV 2 doses, 2 months apart)

233
Q

Zoster Vaccine

A

single dose for adults 60 years of age and older

234
Q

Influenza virus

A

approved 6 months and older, live virus for 2-49 who aren’t pregnant

235
Q

HPV

A

4 or 2 for females
2 for males
HPV is 4 doses begins at 11 and 12

236
Q

Prevnar vaccine

A

Routine vaccination: 4-dose series at ages 2, 4, and 6 months and at age 12-15 months

Pediatrics (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions