Practice Test 2

Question 1

What can be said to be in common between

liver, spleen, and pancreas?

Answer 1

All three are solid organs and very vascular

Question 2

Which gas is not used intraocularly?

1. sulfur hexafluoride
2. perfluoroethane
3. nitrous oxide
4. perfluoropropane

Answer 2

c. nitrous oxide

All of the other three are mixed with sterile air to stabilize a detatched retina.

Question 3

What vitamin is produced by E. coli?

Answer 3

Vitamin K

Question 4

What procedures are done to correct recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder?

Answer 4

• Bankart
• Putti-Platt

Question 5

Which is NOT associated with inflammation?

1. swelling
2. pain
3. loss of function
4. increased temperature
5. pus

Answer 5

e. pus

Question 6

Which ligament associated with the tail of the pancreas must be transected during a splenectomy?

Answer 6

Splenorenal ligament

Question 7

What agent is administered preoperatively to reduce risk of N&V?

Answer 7

metoclopramide (Reglan)

Question 8

What is Exenteration, in the context of the eye?

Answer 8

Removal of the entire orbital contents, including periosteum. Indications include malignant neoplasm.

Question 9

Which is not a cephalosporin, but rather an aminoglycoside?

1. Ancef
2. Kefzol
3. Keflex
4. Kanamycin

Answer 9

d. Kanamycin

Question 10

A washer/disinfector or sterilizer is effective against what kind of organisms?

Answer 10

Vegetative microorganisms only.

It does not kill spores.

Question 11

What’s the difference between pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics?

Answer 11

Pharmacodynamics is how a drug affects the organism

Pharmacokinetics is how the body affects (metabolizes) the drug

• *dynamic = action** of the drug
• *kinetic = movement** (change) of the drug

Question 12

True or False

A Babcock clamp is often used in a tonsillectomy

Answer 12

FALSE

Question 13

What drug could be used to prevent risk of postoperative N&V?

Answer 13

metoclopramide (Reglan)

Question 14

All of the following organs produce hormones in addition ot their major functions except the

1. Pancreas
2. Pituitary gland
3. Kidney
4. Thymus

Answer 14

The answer given in the key is

c. Kidney

HOWEVER,
the thymus produces only T cells;
the Pituitary only produces hormones;
the Pancreas has two major functions, producing both hormones and enzymes

Question 15

Le Fort II

Answer 15

nasal bones, frontal process of maxilla and lacrimal, orbital floor, infraorbital rim, lateral maxillary sinus wall

Le Fort I fractures primarily involve the maxilla.

Le Fort II fractures primarily involve the maxilla, nasal bridge, lacrimal bones, orbital floors, and orbital rims.

Le Fort III fractures involve the nasal bridge, medial orbital walls, lateral orbital walls, maxilla, and zygomatic arch.

Le Fort IV is simply a Le Fort III fracture plus involvement of the frontal bone.

Question 16

Injecting local anesthetic into subarachnoid space is called ___

Answer 16

Spinal anesthesia

Question 17

The three pairs of extrinsic salivary glands are?

Answer 17

• Parotid
• Submandibular
• Sublingual

Question 18

Which layer of the digestive tract contains nerve plexus, blood vessels, and glands?

Answer 18

Submucosa

Question 19

What is the proper temperature range of the operating room?

Answer 19

68 to 73° F

Question 20

The pars plana layer is the site of incision for what procedure?

Answer 20

vitriectomy

Question 21

The Whipple procedure includes removal of

Answer 21

• pancreas head
• entire duodenum
• partial jejunum
• distal third of stomach (partial gastrectomy)
• lower half of common bile duct
• all 6 things on the list

Question 22

Which gas is colorless, odorless, tasteless, and used as an analgesic/amnestic?

1. Sevoflurane
2. Nigrogen
3. Nitrous oxide
4. Oxygen

Answer 22

c. Nitrous oxide

Question 23

The NBSTSA still believes that the most proper positioning for hemorrhoidectomy is

Answer 23

Kraske/jackknife

Question 24

Which two gases promote rapid induction and recovery, and offer the fastest onset of induction, emergence, and recovery?

Answer 24

Nitrous oxide and halothane

Question 25

What is one of the trade names for fentanyl?

Answer 25

Sublimaze

Question 26

Where is bile produced?

Answer 26

Hepatocytes

Question 27

List the stages of anesthesia and major characteristics

Answer 27

1. Analgesia (without amnesia) 2. Excitement (N&V, hyperactivity, irregular respiration) 3. Surgical Anesthesia (sleep, normal respiration and BP) 4. medullary depression (vasomotor and respiratory depression, coma and death)

Question 28

What instruments are used for dilation of the (male) urethra?

Answer 28

Van Buren sounds

Question 29

The esophagus lies in what direction from the trachea?

Answer 29

Posterior

Question 30

Which is a mydriatic? 1. phenylephrine 2. Naloxone 3. hyaluronidase 4. lidocaine

Answer 30

a. phenylephrine ## Footnote PDR.net: "Used orally and intranasally as decongestant, ophthalmically to produce mydriasis for examination or procedures, and parenterally as a vasopressor"

Question 31

Your mask must be removed and disposed of when leaving which areas?

Answer 31

Restricted or semirestricted areas The assumption in the question is that by "leaving" an area you are entering a less restricted zone.

Question 32

What are the four disease agents listed by the CDC as being the most likely to be used in a bioterrorist attack?

Answer 32

* Smallpox * Plague * Botulism * Tularemia

Question 33

True or False: Certification is a permission to do something that is otherwise forbidden

Answer 33

FALSE

Question 34

Amylase begins the digestion of

Answer 34

Carbohydrates

Question 35

The opening separating the uterus from the vagina is called what?

Answer 35

Cervix It can also be said that this is "Between the uterus and vagina" by people who don't think in three (four) dimensions

Question 36

What are the symptoms of a ketamine overdose?

Answer 36

hallucinations and respiratory depression

Question 37

Which mode of _transmission_ is **not** common in the hospital setting? 1. contaminated food 2. dirty hands 3. sneezing 4. air

Answer 37

c. sneezing ## Footnote Because sneezing is not a mode of transmission, it's a means of exit that may or may not connect with a victim. The same can be said for any of the other options, but if you think of it as means of contracting rather than 'mode of transmission' then the question is not as moronic.

Question 38

List the degrees of burn and major characteristics

Answer 38

1st: superficial, epidermis 2nd: partial dermis - superficial or deep partial thickness 3rd: entire dermis 4th: subcutaneous, muscle, bone can be affected

Question 39

A laryngeal mask airway manages the airway during which phase of anesthesia?

Answer 39

The book's answer is: Induction (However, it can also be used during maintenance)

Question 40

Where is the respiratory center located?

Answer 40

Both the medulla oblongata and pons ## Footnote The pontine respiratory group includes the **pneumotaxic center** and **apneustic center**, which limit inhalation (pneumotaxic) and controls the intensity of breathing (apneustic) The medulla holds the **dorsal respiratory group** and the **ventral respiratory group**, which control the muscular contractions for both inspiration and expiration. The ventral group is only active during forceful breathing. The dorsal group is the primary controller of the rate of respiration.

Question 41

Systole = ? Diastole = ?

Answer 41

Ventricular Contraction Ventricular Relaxation

Question 42

Describe the location of the gallbladder in terms of surface features

Answer 42

Within the angle between the **Linea semilunaris** and **Right costal margin**

Question 43

Describe the TRAM flap

Answer 43

pedicle-based Transverse Rectus Abdominis Mycutaneous Used in breast reconstruction

Question 44

Pressure to the cricoid - the Sellick maneuver - does what?

Answer 44

prevents **regurgitation**/aspiration; allows better **visualization** of the vocal cords for the anesthesia provider during intubation

Question 45

Who maintains the safety and operating conditions of many operating room devices?

Answer 45

Biomedical personnel

Question 46

What are the 4 main ligaments of the spleen?

Answer 46

Gastrosplenic Colicosplenic Phrenocolic Splenorenal (Phrenosplenic)

Question 47

For an instrument to be disinfected by glutaraldehyde, it must be dry for how long before being soaked, at room temperature?

Answer 47

20 minutes

Question 48

With a fast turnover time between cases of, say, 35 minutes, how can a laparoscopic set be made ready, if you only have one set?

Answer 48

* *Autoclave** instruments on a prevacuum cycle; * *soak** the light cable, camera, and lens in **gultaraldehyde** for 10 minutes