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NASM CPT 7 Practic test > Practice Test 2 > Flashcards

Practice Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How many skin fold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

A. Six
B. Three
C. Seven
D. Four

A

D. Four

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2
Q

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility?

a. Dynamic posture assessment
b. Static posture assessment
c. Performance posture assessment
d. Overhead squat assessment

A

C. Performance assessment

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3
Q

What is the definition of anthropometry?

a. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
b. The measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity
c. A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body
d. The assumption that stating the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or the specific fraction of the volume below the service

A

a. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion

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4
Q

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?

a. Ball cobra
b. Seated cable row
d. Close grip bench press
d. Lat pulldown

A

c. Close grip bench press

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5
Q

Programming exercises that are two advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client’s emotional considerations?

a. Resilience
b. Self-esteem
c. Self-efficacy
d. Self-image

A

C. Self efficacy

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6
Q

Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement?

a. Maintaining equal extension of the ankles and hips
b. Allowing the gaze to move freely
c. Keeping the feet facing inward
d. Tracking the knees over the second and third toes

A

d. Tracking the knees over the second and third toes

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7
Q

What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw?

a. First class
b. Third class
c. Second class
d. Fourth class

A

a First class

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8
Q

Which of the following is a banned substance in the US?

a. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)
b. Hordenine
c. Creatine
d. Caffeine

A

a. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

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9
Q

What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity?

a. A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines
b. A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention
c. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence
d. A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile?

A

c. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence

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10
Q

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?

a. Low-impact activity
b. High-impact activity
c. Proprioceptive training
d. Loaded movement training

A

a. Low-impact activity

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11
Q

What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises?

a. Side-to-side hops
b. Sport skills
c. Depth jumps
d. Dual-foot drills

A

d. Dual-foot drills

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12
Q

What types of foods provide all the essential amino acids?

a. Legumes
b. Plant proteins
c. Fortified foods
d. Animal proteins

A

d. Animal proteins

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13
Q

Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support?

a. Instrumental support
b. Emotional support
c. Companionship support
d. Informational support

A

a instrumental support

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14
Q

Which activity best demonstrates evidence-based practice?

a. Referencing peer-reviewed research
b. Referencing a social media post
c. Referring to a colleague’s practical knowledge
d. Reading information presented in a blog article

A

a. Referencing peer-reviewed research

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15
Q

Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins?

a. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body
b. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health
c. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body
d. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy

A

c. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.

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16
Q

Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.

a. Perfomance
b. Posture
c. Injury Resistance
d. Rehabilitation

A

c. Injury Resistance

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17
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

a. Gluteus medius
b. Hamstrings complex
c. Hip flexor complex
d. Gluteus maximus

A

c. Hip flexor complex

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18
Q

During which phase of the OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercise?

a. Phase 1: stabilization endurance
b. Phase 2: Muscular development
c. Phase 4: maximal strength
d. Phase 5: power

A

d. Phase 5 Power

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19
Q

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?

a. 2 or 3 drills per workout
b. 4 to 8 drills per workout
c. 1 or 2 drills per workout
d. 9 or 10 drills per workout

A

b 4 to 8 drills per workout

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20
Q

What are the three levels of the OPT model?

a. Stabilization, strength and power
b. Flexibility, cardiorespiratory, and resistance
c. Diet, exercise, and recovery
d. Health, fitness, and wellness

A

a. Stabilization, strength, and power

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21
Q

What is excess post exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?

a. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals
b. EOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise
c. EOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise
d. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise

A

c. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.

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22
Q

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?

a. Amortization
b. Concentric
c. Isometric
d. Eccentric

A

a. Amortization

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23
Q

What does the eccentric phase of plyometric movement accomplish?

a. Acceleration
b. Amortization
c. Deceleration
d. Stabilization

A

c. Deceleration

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24
Q

What is the definition of energy balance?

a. When carbohydrates are consumed before a workout
b. When daily food intake is consistent
c. When protein intake is higher than protein breakdown
d. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

A

d. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

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25
Q

Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?

a. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
b. It involves expiring against a closed glottis
c. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension
d. It can raise an individual’s heart rate and blood pressure

A

c. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension

26
Q

What is the anatomical term that describes something on the opposite side of the body?

a. Contralateral
b. Posterior
c. Lateral
d. Ipsilateral

A

a. Contralateral

27
Q

Which joints are most associated with human movement?

a. Nonsynovial
b. Nonaxial
c. Synovial
d. Saddle

A

c. Synovial

28
Q

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?

a. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse
b. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening
c. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion
d. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

A

d. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

29
Q

How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?

a. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint
b. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle
c. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary
d. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted.

A

d. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted.

30
Q

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event?

a. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity
b. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid
c. 2 to 3 liters of fluid
d. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

A

d. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

31
Q

What equation represents power?

a. Force x velocity
b. Y = mx + b
c. Time / work
d. a2 + b2 = c2

A

a. Force x velocity

32
Q

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?

a. knee flexion
b. Hip abduction
c. Ankle plantar flexion
d. Ankle dorsiflexion

A

c. Ankle plantar flexion

33
Q

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?

a. Calcitonin
b. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
c. Glucagon
d. Cortisol

A

b. Insulin-like grown factor (IGF)

34
Q

Which of the following is a major nutritional contributor to muscle protein synthesis?

a. the essential amino acids
b. Vitamins
c. Caffeine
d. Minerals

A

a. The essential amino acids

35
Q

How many pages are most appropriate for a resume?

a. two to three pages
b. Once page only
c. one to two pages
d. Three to four pages

A

c. one to two pages

36
Q

What is defined as shortness of breath or labored breathing?

a. Dyspnea
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Chronic obstructive lung disease

A

a. Dyspnea

37
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever changing list of stability?

a. High-level balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
c. Dynamic balance
d. Static Balance

A

c. Dynamic balance

38
Q

Which muscles are typically underachieve in association with pet planus distortion syndrome?

a. Upper trapezius
b. Adductor complex (inner thighs)
c. Hip flexors
d. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

A

d. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

39
Q

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?

a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Stretch reflex
d. Isometric contraction

A

c. Autogenic inhibition

40
Q

Which term specially describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?

a. Afferent nerve function
b. Vestibular function
c. Neuromuscular function
d. Sensory function

A

c. Neuromuscular function

41
Q

What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body?

a. Thermoregulation
b. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
c. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
d. Peripheral vasodilation

A

a. Thermoregulation

42
Q

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?

a. It makes the next jump too easy to execute
b. It creates too powerful a jump
c. It causes stress to the connective tissue
d. It reduces force too much

A

c. It causes stress to the connective tissues

43
Q

Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following?

a. Less stability
b. Less braking force
c. Less speed
d. Less forward drive

A

b. Less breaking force

44
Q

When a certified personal trainer wants to enhance a client’s self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-t-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using?

a. Set specific tasks
b. Provide instructions
c. Experience mastery
d. Verbal persuasion

A

a. Set specific tasks

45
Q

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?

a. Thoracic spine
b. Frontal plane
c. Lumbar spine
d. Sagittal plane

A

a Thoracic spine

46
Q

What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training?

a. Jump height
b. Proper technique
c. Explosive power
d. Amortization speed

A

b. Proper technique

47
Q

You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?

a. 0 times per week
b. 4 to 5 times per week
c. 5 to 7 times per week
d. 1 to 3 times per week

A

d. 1 to 3 times per week

48
Q

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.

a. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation
b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress in the low-back
c. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation
d. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back

A

b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back

49
Q

What phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?

a. Phase 2
b. Phase 4
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 5

A

b. Phase 4

50
Q

What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the OPT model?

a. Power
b. Hypertrophy
c. Stabilization
d. Speed

A

b. Hpertrophy

51
Q

Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective?

a. Ratings of perceived exertion
b. Percentage of maximal heart rate
c. Percentage of VO2max
d. Metabolic equivalents

A

a. Ratings of perceived exertion

52
Q

Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?

a. Integrated training
b. Hypertrophy training
c. Circuit training
d. Isolated training

A

a. Integrated training

53
Q

When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

a. It decreases core muscle activation
b. It increases flexibility and joint mobility
c. It decreases challenges to balance and stability
d. It increases muscular hypertrophy

A

b. It increases flexibility and joint mobility

54
Q

When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?

a. Self-myofascial techniques
b. Sports drills
c. Dynamic stretches
d. Active stretches

A

a. Self-myofascial techniques

55
Q

What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down

a. Correct muscle imbalances
b. Increase maximal strength
c. Improve sports skills
d. Restore optimal length-tension relationships

A

d. Restore optimal length-tension relationships

56
Q

Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements?

a. Health supplements
b. Performance supplements
c. Stimulants
d. Anabolic steroids

A

a. Health suppliments

57
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?

a. Upper trapezius
b. Anterior and posterior tibialis
c. Adductor complex
d. Abdominals

A

b Anterior and posterior tibialis

58
Q

You are working with intermediate client on SAW drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills persuasion?

a. 9 or 10 drills
b. 2 to 4 drills
c. 6 to 8 drills
d. 4 to 5 drills

A

c. 6 to 8 drills

59
Q

Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following?

a. Increased cardiac output
b. Lower body temperature
c. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE)
d. Decreased blood flow

A

d. Decreased blood flow

60
Q

Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5% times?

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 5%
d. 30%

A

a. 10%

61
Q

What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapanteaenoic acid (EPA)?

a. About 30%
b. About 5-15%
c. About 50%
d. About 90%

A

b. About 5-15%

NASM CPT 7 Practic test (4 decks)

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