Practice Test 1 Flashcards
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?
A. the location of where one foot touches the ground
B. the area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base support
C. The approximate midpoint of the body
D. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface.
D. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface.
Which of the following is true ab out cholesterol?
A. For the body to produce enough cholesterol for daily needs, the diet must bee supplemented with vitamins and minerals
B. Cholesterol is found only in the body’s major organs
C. One can live without cholesterol
D. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol
D. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high colesterol.
What is the most accurate description of motor control?
A. The cumulative changes in motor behavior over time, throughout the life span
B. The integration of motor control processes through practice
C. The motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli
D. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements.
The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements.
Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable?
A. The requirements of the leader
B. Leader’s qualities
C. The personality of the leader
D. Leader’s style
B. Leader’s qualitities
How is Fartlek training best described?
A. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.
B. Farlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
C. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
D. In Farlet training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
When AdP is converted to ATP, what is the process called?
A. Transformation
B. Phosphorylation
C. Oxydation
D. ATP-PC
B. Phosphorylation
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for rapid concentric contraction
A. Series elastic component
B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Stretch-shortening cycle
D. Altered reciprocal inhibition
C. Stretch-shortening cycle
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
A. 3 to 5 Reps
B. 1 to 2 Reps
C. 8 to 10 reps
D. 6 to 8 reps
A. 3 to 5 reps
The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique?
A. Dynamic stretching
B. Ballistic stretching
C. Static stretching
D. Active stretching
Static stretching
Before studying to become a NASM CPT, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential?
A. Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area
B. Becoming a NASM Master Instructor
C. College Football Conditioning Coach
D. College Instructor
Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area.
Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise?
A. Bench press
B. Overhead press
C. Seated leg extension
D. Barbell Squat
Seated leg extension
Which type of motivation would be characterized by a client who enjoys the process of becoming more fit?
A. Intrinsic motivation
B. Extrinsic motivation
C. Affiliation Motivation
D. Achievement Motivation
A. Intrinsic Motivation
What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?
A. Arterioles
B. Capillaries
C. Veins
D. Arteries
C Veins
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
A. Core stability
B. Core Power
C. Core Strength
D. Core Endurance
C. Core Strength
An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?
A. substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching
B. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities
C. Strive for 20-30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily
D. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling
C. Strive for 20-30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
What concept allows a person to jump higher during polymeric exercises?
A. Ankle stability
B. Concentric contractions
C. Eccentric Loading
D. Increased amortization
C. Eccentric loading
Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations?
A. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
B. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch
C. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
D. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch.
A. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch.
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target?
A. Infraspinatus
B. anterior tibialis
C. Scalenes
D. Subscapularis
D. Subscapularis
Vitamin C has a role in which of these functions?
A. Immunity only
B. Increasing bone density
C. Collagen synthesis and immunity
D. Collagen synthesis only
C. Collagen synthesis and immunity
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
A. Medicine ball overhead throw
B. Plank
C. Back Extension
D. Dead Bug
C. Back extention
What the the end products of the electron transport chain?
A. ATP and oxygen
B. ATP and water
C. ADP and hydrogen ions
D. ADP and water
B. ATP and water
What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?
A. Carbohydrates that are difficult to digest.
B. Carbohydrates used for high-intensity exercise
C. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch
D. Carbohydrates fro beans and legumes
C. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch.
What is Bernadette’s waste-to-hip ration (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?
A. 0.97
B. 1.04
C. 0.85
D. 1.18
C 0.85
What type of health concern is the leading cause of death in the world today?
A. Chronic diseases and conditions
B. Injuries
C. Alcohol
D. Acute diseases
A. Chronic diseases and conditions
What the two signs of a muscle being overstretched?
A. Increased mobility and balance
B. Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion
C. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
D. Increased muscle strength and speed
C. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
How could the personal trainer make the “single-leg throw and catch” balance exercise more difficult for the client?
A. Decreasing the velocity of each throw
B. Increasing the velocity of each throw
C. Decreasing the distance between the client and the personal trainer
D. Throwing the ball at the same height each time
B. Increasing the velocity of each throw
Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the oPT model?
A. Powerlifter
B. Avid resistance trainer
C. Olympic weightlifter
D. Cross-Country runner
D Cross Country runner
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
A. Intensity
B. Training duration
C. Speed
D. Rest Interval
C Speed
Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofacial rolling?
A. The direct roller compression my create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors
B. The direct roller compression increases eccentric contraction to enhance muscle hypertrophy after the session
C. The direct roller compression leads to endocrine release of growth hormones, which leads to enhanced physical performance
D. The direct roller compression leads to delayed onset of muscle soreness 72-96 hours after rolling
A. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle?
A. External obliques
B. Erector spinae
C. Transverse abdominis
D. Diaphragm
C. Transverse abdominis
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for polymeric training?
A. PAR-Q+
B. Strength assessments
C. Body composition assessments
D. Movement assessments
D. Movement assessments
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?
A. Hearing system
B. Visual System
C. Vestibular System
D. Somatosensory system
B Visual System
Balance is best described as which of the following?
A. Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping.
B. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
C. The ability to maintain control of the body while in motion
D. The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate
B. the ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
Which AdL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
A. Getting in and out of the car
B. Raking leaves
C. Cleaning
D. Moving a grocery Cart
C Cleaning
Which of the following is an example of linear periodization?
A. Phases 1 and 5 every other day
B. 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2
C. Phase 4 and 5, each trained 2 days per week
D. Phase 1, 2, and 5, each trained 1 day per week
B. 4 weeks in phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in phase 2
What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?
A. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons
B. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron
C. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
D. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
D. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
How often is it recommended to reassess clientele? A. Every week B. Every Month C. Every 6 months D. Every year
B Every Month
Which movement assessment is a global observe action of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?
A. Pushing assessment
B. Overhead squat
C. Pulling assessment
D. Single-leg squat
B. Overhead squat
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen enter (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, verses percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
A. The formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate
B. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym
C. It does not use resting heart rate,, so it is easier to estimate
D. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate
D. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate
An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following?
A. The group feels distinct from other people
B. Groups function only when all members are present
C. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in
D. Groups rely only on the leader for support
A. The group feels distinct from other people
The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to provide the body with what gas?
A. Oxygen
B. Water
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Platelets
A. Oxygen
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
A. Strength and volume
B. Strength and Stabilization
C. Growth and stabilization
D. Growth and Volume
D. Grown and volume
During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is “cutting out all carbs” from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional?
A. Carbohydrates provide more calories per gram than protein and fat, so they should be limited for effective weight loss
B. Carbohydrates contribute excess calories in our diet, and avoiding them is an effective weight loss strategy during training
C. Carbohydrates are not required unless training for long periods of time; so as long as sessions are kept short, this strategy should be fine.
D. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weigh-loss efforts
D. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weigh-loss efforts
what might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in pre contemplation stage of change?
A. Help them identify barriers to exercise
B. Tell them to exercise with a friend
C. Encourage them to make plans to exercise
D. Provide them with education and knowledge
D. Provide them with education and knowledge
Which statement about cancer is most accurate?
A. It is most common in adults between the ages of 30-55
B. There is a lack of cell growth in the body.
C. Almost all cancers are preventable
D. Cells int eh body grow abnormally
D. Cells in the body grow abnormally
Which of the following is a component of agility training?
A. Assessment of visual stimuli
B. Stride rate
C. Deceleration
D. Reaction
C. Decleration
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane?
A. Elastic band woodchop
B. Dumbbell lat row
C. Seated abdominal crunch machine
D. Suspended chest press
A. Elastic band woodchop
If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle?
A. Undulating
B. Mesocycle
C. Macrocycle
D. Lienar
A. Undulating
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder?
A. Shoulder impingement
B. Frozen shoulder
C. Dislocation of the shoulder
D. Rotator cuff tear
A. Shoulder impingement
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?
A. Improved physical appearance
B. Competition with others
C. Health and well-being
D. Being a part of a social group
C. health and well-being
To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented?
A. Fewer exercises
B. Increased complexity of exercises
C. Decreased Intensity
D. Decreased rest periods
D. Decreased rest periods
Which of these is one of the major curvatures of the spine?
A. Posterior lumber curve
B. Posterior thoracic curve
C. anterior lumbar curve
D. Anterior cervical curve
A. Posterior lumbar curve
Which of the following exercises and modalities would require the use of a spotter?
A. Terra-Core push up
B. Selectorized machine lat pull down
C. Barbell chest press
D. Stability ball wall squat
C. Barbell chest press
A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client’s bone mineral density?
A. Walking
B. Water aerobics
C. Cycling
D. Swimming
A. Walking
What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)?
A. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise?
B. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise
C. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise
D. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise
B. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise.
What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing polymeric training, due to its high-impact nature?
A. Supportive shoes
B. Uneven surfaces
C. Soft mats
D Balance Squats
A. Supportive shoes
What is defined as consistency elevated blood pressure?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypotension
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypertension
D. Hypertension
Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?
A. Dyspnea
B. Pulmonary hypoplasia
C. Pneumonia
D. hypoxia
A Dyspnea
Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?
A. 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
B. 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise
C. 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise
D. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
D. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations?
A. Stabilization endurance
B. Power
C. Strength endurance
D. Muscular Development
B. Power
In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?
A. Power Training
B. Stabilization Endurance Training
C. Muscular development training
D. Strength Endurance Training
A. Power Training
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?
A. Pes Planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward
B. Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head just forward
C. Knee dominate, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome
D. Pes Planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, upper crossed syndrome
D. Pes Planus distortion Syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome.
How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?
A. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test
B. It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test
C. It is measured over a30-second count during the last minute of the test.
D. It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test
It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
A. Strength
B. Vision
C. Vestibular senses
D. Somatosensation
A. Strength
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point?
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Superior
D. Inferior
C. Superior
In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?
A. Concentric
B. Acceleration
C. Amortization
D. Eccentric
D. Eccentric
What is the correct order of the stages of change?
A. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
B. contemplation, pre contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
C. Preparation, pre contemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance
D. Precontemplation, Action, preparation, contemplation, maintenance
A. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
A. Balance
B. Agility
C. cooredination
D. Quickness
D. Quickness
Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?
A. Stabilization Endurance Training
B. Muscular Development Training
C. Maximal Strength Training
D. Strength Endurance Training
C. Maximal Strength Training
Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate?
A. Brisk walking is not recommended, as it can bring on symptoms
B. It is an acute disease
C. It is typically a stress-induced condition
D. It is not a curable disease
D. it is not a curable disease
Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?
A. Kettlebells
B. BOSU balls
C. Strength machines
D. Medicine balls
D. Medicine Balls
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?
A. Pulmonary arteries
B. Trachea
C. Alveolar Sacs
D. Bronchioles
C. Alveolar sacs
What the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
A. Delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength
B. Davis’s law and Wolf’s law
C. Pain response and muscle spasms
D. Mechanical and neurophysiological response
D. Mechanical and neurophysiological response
What is glycogen?
A. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown n humans
B. The storage form of carbohydrate in plans
C. The storage form of carbohydrates in animals and humans
D. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals
C. the storage form of carbohydrates in animals and humans.
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
A. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency
B. lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability
C. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability
D. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency.
D. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency.
At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rathe3r skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client?
A. Exercise is known to exacerbate a bad mood; therefore, stopping the session is a good idea.
B. Exercise cannot improve mood,, so it would be best to reschedule the session for another day.
C. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.
D. Exercise can only affect mood when done for at least 60 minutes, so it would behest to stay longer than normal.
C. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes so exercise is a good remedy.
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer?
A. Pre-contemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Maintenance
D. Action
C. Maintenance
What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats?
A. Pulse
B. Diastolic Blood Pressure
C. Systolic Blood Pressure
D. Hypertension
B Diastolic Blood Pressure
Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?
A. A reduction in blood pressure at rest.
B. Increase hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers
C. A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest
D. A decrease in metabolic rate
D. A decrease in metabolic rate
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
A. 40-yard dash
B. Vertical jump
C. Pro-shuttle
D. Lower extremity function text (LEFT)
D. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Which vitamin is most transient A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin C
Which characteristic is exhibited by type 1 muscle fibers?
A. Short-term contractions
B. Fewer Capillaries
C. Decreased oxygen delivery
D. Slow to fatigue
D. Slow to fatigue
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?
A. Heart function
B. thyroid function
C. Kidney function
D. Liver function
B Thyroid function
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
A. 6-10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
B. 4-6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
C. 10-12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill and timed drills
D. 6-8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-Drill, box drill, and stand up to figure 8
B. 4-6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels?
A. inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone and cortisol levels
B. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone levels and cortisol levels
C. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone levels and decrease cortisol levels
D. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels
D. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels
Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?
A. People with a low body mass index
B. Males
C. People with a low body fat percentage
D. Females
D. Females
Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?
A. Medicine Ball
B. ViPR
C. Sandbag
D. Kettlebell
A. Medicine Ball
How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat?
A. About 5500
B. About 500
C. About 1000
D. About 3500
D. about 3500
Which muscle would b e considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
A. Lumbar extensors
B. Hip Flexor Complex
C. Gluteus maximus
D. Latissimus Dorsi
C. Gluteus Maximus
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
A. Deltoid
B. Rotator cuff muscles
C. Rhomboids
D. Serratus anterior
D. Serratus anterior
What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node?
A. Right bundle branch
B. Internal pathway
C. Left bundle branch
D. intercalated discs
B Internal pathway
What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?
A. Validity
B. Appropriateness
C. Relevance
D. Reliability
D. Reliability
Which of the following best demonstrates an example of activities of daily living separate from planned exercise?
A. Cycling
B. Yardwork
C. Weightlifting
D. Running
B Yardwork
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
A. stable balance
B. dynamic balance
C. static balance
D. semi-dynamic balance
D. Semi-dynamic balance
A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?
A. Recommend she increase on her protein intake at every meal.
B. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals
C. Recommend she eat high-calorie “cheat meals” more often
D. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake
B. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals
According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?
A. Strength
B. Neuromuscular stabilization
C. Speed
D. Power
B. Neuromuscular stabilization
what is meant by the term tolerable upper limit (UL)?
A. The amount recommended for the average person to take.
B. the amount of a specific nutrient in a single serving
C. The same as daily value (DV)
D. the greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect
D. the greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect
What are the two categories of bone markings?
A. Short and long
B. Irregular and flat
C. Depressions and processes
D. Surface and deep
C. Depressions and processes
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities?
A. Squat
B. Lunge
C. Overhead squat
D. Single Leg Squat
A. Squat
The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body?
A. Scapular Region
B. Lumbo-Pelvic-Hip complex region
C. Leg Region
D. Back Region
B. Lumbo-Pelvic-Hip complex region
If someone went out for a 5-Mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
A. The ATP-PC system
B. Glycoloysis
C. Oxidative phosophorylation
D. Beta-oxidation
C. Oxidative phosphorylation
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous intensity exercise (eg jogging or running)?
A. 120 Minutes per week
B. 90 Minutes per week
C. 60 Minutes per week
D. 75 Minutes per week
D. 75 minutes per week
Which individual is suffering from an acute disease?
A. Jorge, who is sick with the flu
B. Tricia, who has type 1 diabetes
C. Roger, who has type 2 diabetes
D. Perry, who suffers from a congenital heart condition
A. Jorge, who is sick with the flu
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
a. ViPR
b. Strength machines
c. Suspended bodyweight training
d. dumbbells
a. ViPR
Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model?
A. Cable Machines
B. TRX rip Trainer
C. Terra-Core
D. Suspended bodyweight training
A Cable Machines
What of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body?
A. They provide some calories, and they are requeried for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism
B. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes
C. They are the primary energy source during short, high intensity training
D. They regulate various metabolic process, including energy metabolism
D. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
A. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
B. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises
C. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
D. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
C. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
What is the principle of specificity?
A. the process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium.
B. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle
C. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts
D. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it.
D. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it.
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?
A. 1 or 2 drills
B. 4 to 6 drills
C. 7 to 9 drills
D 9 or 10 drills
B. 4 to 6 drills
What type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?
A. Bony scoliosis
B. Structural (non-functional) scoliosis
C. Permanent scoliosis
D. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
D. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteopenia
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Osteoarthritis
What statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer?
A. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column
B. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation
C. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer
D. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis
B. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments
Which upper body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
A. Bound angle pose
B. Cat pose
C. Downward dog pose
D. Plow pose
D. Plow pose
What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous systems?
A. spindles
B. neuron
c. nucleus
d. axon
B. Neuron
What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?
A. Pattern overload
B. Stretch reflex
C. Autogenic inhibition
D. Reciprocal inhibition
A. Pattern overload
What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?
A. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching
B. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling
C. osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercise
D. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling
D. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?
A. 5.0 mL/kg/min
B. 2.5 mL/kg/min
C. 7.0 mL/kg/min
D. 3.5 mL/kg/min
D. 3.5 mL/kg/min
What is acidosis in muscle?
A. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
B. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength
C. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
D. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength
C. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue.
For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise contraindicated?
A. Youth clients between the ages of 4 and 8, in whom growth plates are not fused
B. Clients with an underachieve gluteal complex
C. Clients who are the third trimester of pregnancy
D. clients with no comorbidities but who sit for extended periods of time.
C. Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy
Strength training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?
A. Transverse and frontal
B. Frontal and sagittal
C. All planes of motion
D. Sagittal and transverse
B. Frontal and sagittal
What is plyometric training also known as?
A. Resistance training
B. Strength training
C. Reactive training
D. Stability training
C. Reactive training
How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes?
A. Less than 15 seconds
B. 90 to 120 seconds
C. 60 to 90 seconds
D. 15 to 60 seconds
D. 15 to 60 seconds
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
A. Mechanical specificity
B. Posture specificity
C. Neuromuscular specificity
D. Metabolic specificity
A. mechanical specificity
How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?
A. 7
B. 11
C. 3
D. 9
D. 9
What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles?
A. Stretch Reflex
B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Autogenic inhibition
D. Isometric contraction
C. Autogenic inhibition
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a declaration and balance standpoint?
A. Multiplayer hop with stabilization
B. Multiplayer single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
C. single-leg hop forward
D. Multiplayer single-let box hop-up with stabalization
B. Multiplayer single-leg box hop-down with stabalization
What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training?
A. 10% per week
B. <15% per week
C. 20% per week
D. 25% per week
A. 10% per week
Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?
A. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups
B. Bench press and stability ball push-ups
C. Deadlifts and squats
D. Power step-ups and ice skaters
B. Bench press and stability ball push-ups
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
A. Stabilization Endurance Training
B. Muscular Development Training
C. Power Training
D. Strength Endurance Training
C Power Training
What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?
A. A twist
B. A pull
C. A Strain
D. A sprain
D. A sprain
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position?
A. Low-level balance
B. Semi-dynamic balance
C. Static balance
D. Dynamic balance
C. Static Balance
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
A. Front medicine ball oblique throw
B. Soccer throw
C. Medicine ball chest pass
D. Two-arm Push press
D. Two-arm push press
Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation?
A. Extrinsic Motivation
B. Intrinsic Motivation
C. Amotivation
D. Incentive motivation
B. Intrinsic Motivation
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, ,which helps remove heat from the gody/
A. Thermoregulation
B. Heart Rate
C. Peripheral Vasodilation
D. Blood Pressure
C. Peripheral vasodilation
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?
A. Latissium dorsi
B. Rhomboids
C. Middle and lower trapezius
D. Posterior deltoid
A. Latissium Dorsi
What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on?
A. Speed of force generation
B. Muscle size
C. Speed of force reduction
D. Fat content
A. Speed of force generation
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e. reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
A. Agility
B. Quickness
C. Speed
D. Stride Rate
B. Quickness
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?
A. Stage 4
B. Stage 3
C. Stage 2
D. Stage 5
C. Stage 2
Which of the following modalities provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4, and 5 of the OPT model?
A. Sandbags
B. Strength Machines
C. TRX Rip Trainer
D. Battle Ropes
A. Sandbags
What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form?
A. Energy imagery
B. Technique imagery
C. Cognitive fusion
D. Appearance imagery
B. Technique imagery
In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?
A. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
B. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
C. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist
D. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
D. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?
A. 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run test
B. YMCA 3-minute step test
C. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test
D. Rockport 1-mile walk test
B. YMCA 3-minute step test
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis?
A. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
B. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms
C. Plyometirc training alleviates arthritic symptoms
D. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint ingegrity
A. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
Which of the following would be an example of non exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)?
A. doing 20 minutes of resistance training
B. Sleeping
C. Running for 5 miles
D. Cleaning the house
D. Cleaning the house
What area of the chest contains the heart?
A. Ventricle
B. Atrium
C. Mediastinum
D. Myofibril
C. Mediastinum
According to the text what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?
A. 0.92
B. 0.62
C. 0.22
D. 0.72
D. 0.72
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
a. Metabolic specificity
B. Neuromuscular specificity
C. Posture specificity
D. Mechanical Specificity
D. Mechanical Specificity
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?
A. Venous pooling
B. Valsalva maneuver
C. Peripheral resistance
D. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
D. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset?
A. Stability ball push-up
B. Dumbbell shoulder press
C. Lat Pulldown
D. Front Medicine ball oblique throw
D. Front medicine ball oblique throw
Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?
A. Ball-and-socket
B. Pivot
C. Nonsynovial
D. condyloic
C. Nonsynovial
Receptors involved with the sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface?
A. Sensorimotor function
B. Somatosensation
C. Vision
D. Vestibular
B. Somatosensation
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
a. Depletion of phosphocreatine
b Lack of fatty acids
c. lack of pyruvate
d. Free hydrogen ions
D. Free hydrogen ions
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?
A. Short
B. Irregular
C. Flat
D. Long
d. Long
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 to 72 hours
D. 1 week
C. 48 to 72 hours
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?
A. Cervical and lumbar
B. Cervical and sacral
C. Cervical and thoracic
D. Thoracic and lumbar
A. Cervical and lumbar
Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell?
A. Myosis
B. endomysium
C. A Sacromere
D. Actin
C. A Sacromere
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
A. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual
B. the inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual
C. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual
D. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
D. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual.
What two factors define any form or type of exercise?
A. Intensity and duration
B. Duration and time
C. Speed and complexity
D. Intensity and Speed
A. Intensity and duration
Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing?
A. Diaphragm
B. Scalenes
C. Internal intercostals
D. Abdominals
A Diaphragm
Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise?
A. Incline plank
B. Supine floor crunches
C. Stability ball Russian Twist
D. Supine reverse crunches
A Incline plank
What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?
A. 60 to 120 seconds
B. 0 seconds
C. 30 seconds
d. 5 minutes
A. 60 to 120 seconds
What is the term for postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?
A. Neuromuscular control
B. Somatosensation
C. Perturbation
D. Sensorimotor function
C. Perturbation
Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?
A. Ankles
B. Shoulders
C. Knees
D. Spine
D. spine
Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
A. Standing on two limbs catching a ball
B. Naming the months of the year while standing on one limb
C. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
D. Standing on two limbs with eyes open
C. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?
A. An annual physical
B. PAR-Q+
C. Overhead squat assessment
D. Dietary assessment
B. PAR-Q+
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?
A. Coping Responses
B. Implementation intentions
C. Self-Monitoring
D. Resisting social pressures
A. Coping Responses
The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring?
A. Supination and pronation
B. Adduction and abduction
C. Flexion and extension
D. Abduction and extension
C. Flexion and extention
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?
A. If you decided to make a change, what might you do?
B. What might work for you?
C. What makes you think you are not at risk?
D. What might you want to change?
C. What makes you think you are not at risk?
