Practice Test Flashcards by Ryan Blue

True or False. Water wells should be located on the opposite side or uphill side of the house from the drain field.

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

True or False. Deed restrictions are limited to residential properties

False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Name a device used to layout a building

a: GPS
b: Laser Level
c: Total station
d: All of the above

d: All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The contoured elevation lines on a site plan read 135’ and 139’, two points on these lines are 15’ apart. What is the percentage of slope between the two points?

a: 20%
b: 26.6%
c: 28.5%
d: 30%

b: 26.6%

(4 foot rise/ 15 foot run)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

True or False. Setbacks are measured from the lot line to the building structures

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Driveway easements are often encountered:

a: When two adjoining properties share a common driveway
b: Include grants for sewers
c: 15 feet from the property line
d: 7 1/2’ from the property line

a: When two adjoining properties share a common driveway

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At a minimum far back from the building line should the batter boards be?

a: 1 foot
b: 2 feet
c: 4 feet
d: 50 feet

c: 4 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A benchmark is known to be at an elevation of 100 feet and the finish grade is to be set at 97 feet. Your site reading at the benchmark using a builders level and a leveling rod read 4.5 feet. What should your reading be at finished grade?

a: 92.5 feet
b: 7.5 feet
c: 1.5 feet
d: 101.5 feet

b: 7.5 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

True or False. A 100-year floodplain is the land adjacent to a river, lake or stream that will be inundated by water during which has a 1% chance of occurring in any given year.

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

True or False. You may bulldoze, grade and remove tree stumps in a wetland as long as you have a permit

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The exact location of property lines should be determined early in the design phase in order to comply with ____ requirements.

a: Setback
b: Covenant
c: Topography
d: Code

a: Setback

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Land Developers often create restrictive covenants that dictate what can and can’t be done on an owners property, these covenants are referred to as:

a: Set backs
b: Deed restrictions
c: Land trust
d: Land constraints

b: Deed restrictions

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A site line is used to identify:

a: Lot boundaries
b: Existing roads
c: Buildings
d: All of the above

d: All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Survey monuments:

a: Can control the location of property lines
b: Can be either natural or man made
c: Shall be tagged with a certificate number
d: All of the above

d: All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Public __________ provide utilities access to run lines or pipes across or under your property

a: Setbacks
b: Ordinances
c: Easements
d: Land rights

c: Easements

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A building lot is a rectangle measuring 257 feet by 387 feet, how many acres is this lot?
(Remember that are 43,560 square feet in 1 acre.)

a: 1.54
b: 1.87
c: 2
d: 2.28

d: 2.28

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which drawing shows the shape and boundary lines of a lot, as well as locating the building, driveway, sidewalks, well and septic system, elevation contours, etc.

a: Plot plan
b: Site plan
c: Elevation plan
d: Both A and B

d: Both A and B

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A basic starting point from which measurements in building layout can be made using a transit or builders level is called a ___________

a: Benchmark
b: Point of reference
c: Station mark
d: Both A and B

d: Both A and B

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When building in a floodplain, special precautions must be made concerning ___________

a: Flood resistant construction
b: Determining the design flood elevation
c: Placing the lowest floor at the proper elevation
d: All of the above

d: All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When building in a floodplain, enclosed areas below the design flood elevation will be used solely for _______

a: Parking vehicles
b: Building access
c: Storage
d: All of the above

d: All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In Michigan, the local ___________ is responsible for developing and implementing codes regarding wells and septic systems.

a: Building department
b: Agricultural department
c: Health department
d: City commission

c: Health department

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

True or False. Older, but still functioning septic systems, are not required to come up to the most current codes

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The best place to find an explanation of symbols used on a survey is:

a: The legend
b: The glossary
c: The appendix
d: The table of contents

a: The legend

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Advanced framing techniques increase the stud spacing to ________, to use less timber and accommodate more insulation.

a: 17-1/2 inches on center
b: 19-5/8
c: 21 inches on center
d: 24 inches on center

d: 24 inches on center

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Advanced framing techniques use ______ in place of trimmer or jack studs to support headers. a: Hangers b: Strong ties c: Blocks d: Bearing stiffeners

a: Hangers

What is another name for a raised-heel truss? a: Wide soffit b: R-truss c: Energy truss d: High heel

c: Energy truss

True or False. Structural insulated panels may be energy efficient but they are not easy to erect.

False

Structural Insulated Panels are two outer layers of ____ surrounding a rigid foam interior a: Particle boards b: Oriented strand board c: Plywood d: Wafer board

b: Oriented strand board

True or False. Because structural insulated panels are uninterrupted by studs, they provide an energy efficient wall without as many thermal bridges.

True

An average wall constructed with SIPs contains __less wood than a similar wall framed with 2x4s placed 16" on center a: 15% b: 20% c: 25% d: 30%

c: 25%

True or False. Insulating Concrete Forms material cost ranges from $1.75 to $3.50 per square foot in addition to installation, labor, reinforcement, bracing and concrete.

True

True or False. Some major benefits of ICF walls are excellent insulation, sound proofing and durability.

True

R-value with ICFs can vary according to which factors? a: Foam density b: Form configuration c: Connector type d: All of the above

d: All of the above

True or False. ICFs are plastic foam forms for concrete walls. They are removed after the concrete is poured and has cured to the required strength.

False: They are not removed afterwards

True or False. There is still need for some conventional framing when using prefabricated wall systems.

False

The Michigan Uniform Energy Code has an allowance to use ________ instead of the required R49, if you use energy heel trusses that allow for full insulation. a: R-30 b: R-32 c: R-38 d: R-40

c: R-38

Today's air tight homes can be energy savers, but air quality can be diminished significantly. It is recommended that a ____ be used for proper ventilation: a: Sealed Combustion Appliances b: Air Removal Systems c: Air Conditioning d: Heat Recovery Ventilator

d: Heat Recovery Ventilator

Batt insulation is a cost effective way to create an energy-efficient house if _____ a: Installed with care b: Unfaced fiberglass is used c: Faced fiberglass is used d: Foil faced fiberglass is used

a: Installed with care

Cellulose insulation is made of ________ a: Recycled cardboard b: Recycled newspaper c: Recycled plastic d: Fiberglass

b: Recycled newspaper

A major benefit of using insulating sheathing is to provide insulation that covers what are uninsulated areas at studs and headers and all wood corners. These uninsulated areas are called: a: Cold spots b: Hot spots c: Thermal breaks d: All of the above

c: Thermal breaks

One disadvantage of sheathing a home in insulated sheathing is __________. a: Poor sound barrier b: Lower structural strength c: High cost d: Off gassing

b: Lower structural strength

Frost-protected shallow foundations are most effective in _______ climates. a: Mild b: Tropical c: Warmer d: Colder

d: Colder

True or False. The local climate and number of heating-degree days determines the thickness and width of the insulation applied in a Frost Protected Shallow Foundation.

True

True or False. Constructing and operating buildings consumes more material and energy than any other single entity in the U.S.

True

True or False. Minimum energy standards required by the Michigan Uniform Energy Code

True

True or False. Successful energy-efficient construction practices are more complicated than conventional practices.

True

Benefits of green building are ________. a: Less construction waste b: Less impact on the environment c: Economic benefits to the homeowner d: All of the above

d: All of the above

True or False. A comprehensive approach to resource and energy efficiency is the best approach to green building.

True

One advantage of using Advanced Wall Framing techniques is the ability to apply more insulation because the studs are placed _______ on center. a: 12" b: 16" c: 20" d: 24"

d: 24"

Wood is not a good insulator. Advanced Framing techniques reduce the amount of wood in construction thereby reducing insulation voids and increasing energy efficiency by as much as 30%

True

You can build ________ by taking a couple 2X 10's, adding 1/2" OSB, and then throwing some rigid insulation in between. a: A raised heel truss b: An insulated header c: Insulated wall tie d: Prefabricated wall

b: An insulated header

_________ provide high quality, straight walls that reduce a great deal of time and waste. a: Double 2 x 4 walls b: Spray foam insulations c: Insulated concrete forms d: Prefabricated walls

d: Prefabricated walls

Advanced framing costs far more than traditional framing initially, but ultimately reduces energy costs.

False

Unit price contracts are used: a: When quantities of work are not known b: For budget estimates c: By design/build companies d: All of the above

a: When quantities of work are not known

Conceptual estimates are used: a: For T&M work b: Before the design starts c: For square foot estimates d: All of the above

b: Before the design starts

Detailed cost estimates are prepared by: a: The company officer b: The subcontractor c: The chief estimator d: all of the above

c: The chief estimator

Quantity take-off: a: Is necessary when bidding unit price projects b: Is used to measure the amount of building materials for project c: Is used to calculate the contractor "tms" overhead d: All of the above

b: Is used to measure the amount of building materials for project

Why are site visits so important? a: They can tell you what types of soil are present b: They can tell you whether or not utilities are readily available c: They can tell you whether the site will require special equipment d: All of the above

d: All of the above

The ______ is the basis for any bid or proposal a: Specifications b: Estimate c: Site visit d: Addenda

b: Estimate

Who typically prepares the project documents a: The architect b: An engineer c: An attorney d: Any of the above

d: Any of the above

Which of the following is not a type of contractor bond? a: Bid b: Surety c: Security d: Performance

c: Security

Funds that are allocated to specific items in the budget are called: a: Addenda b: Allowances c: Change orders d: General conditions

b: Allowances

________ provide additional information such as soil reports, project studies and land surveys: a: Specifications b: General conditions c: Supplements d: Allowances

c: Supplements

_______ derail materials, work methods, and quality requirements. a: Drawings b: Addenda c: Supplements d: Specifications

d: Specifications

Which of the following factors will not influence the cost of labor? a: The skill level of workers b: The number of workers required c: Weather conditions that may slow workers down d: Material changes requested by the owners

d: Material changes requested by the owners

True or False. Renting equipment for a job is best when there is a short term need for a specific project.

True

Costs that are associated with the project, but are NOT labor and materials are termed: a: Company overhead b: Project overhead c: Direct costs d: Indirect costs

b: Project overhead

What tool would you use to peel back topsoil a: Bulldozer b: Backhoe c: Tractor d: Shovel

a: Bulldozer

True or False. Soil boring is the method used to determine the soil type or types that will be supporting the footings at a proposed building site.

True

The percolation test is used to determine: a: Soil compressibility b: Effectiveness of insulation c: Plumbing for leaks d: Permeability of soil

d: Permeability of soil

Contractors should ne cautious not to harm or possibly even kill trees intended to be saved on a construction site by not: a: Raising the grade around the tree b: Scarring the bark of the tree c: Running heavy equipment over the tree's root system d: All of the above

d: All of the above

At a minimum how far back from the building lines should the batter boards be? a: 2 feet b: 4 feet c: 8 feet d: 15 feet

b: 4 feet

A deposit of earth material placed by artificial means is called _______. a: Load b: Backload c: Fill d: Dry earth

c: Fill

True or False. Grading is changing the earth surface by either excavating or filling or a combination of both.

True

The stage at which the grade approximately conforms to approved plans is called. a: Backfill b: Rough grade c: Clearing d: Finish grade

b: Rough grade

A building lot is a rectangle measuring 257 feet by 387 feet, how many acres is this lot? a: 1.54 b: 1.87 c: 2 d: 2.28

d: 2.28

Code requires that the grade around the building must be sloped so rain water drains away from the foundation area. The minimum slope shall be _____ of fall in 10 feet. a: 4 inches b: 6 inches c: 8 inches d: 1 foot

b: 6 inches

What type of material allows for the best drainage? a: Pea pebbles b: Soft clay c: Organic matter d: None of the above

a: Pea pebbles

If a excavating company needs to haul away 125 yards of bank soil that will swell 20% how many yards of loose soil will they haul away? a: 140 yards b: 145 yards c: 150 yards d: 160 yards

c: 150 yards

True or False. You may bulldoze, grade and remove tree stumps in a wetland as long as you have a permit.

True

_______ the root system of a tree during construction can potentially kill it. a: Cutting into b: Piling soil over c: Compacting d: All of the above

d: All of the above

It is important to call your state One Call utility locator (exp..MISS Dig, 811) ________ before excavation starts. a: 1 day b: 2 days c: 3 days d: one week

b: 2 days

You would use a _______ to determine a floor is level, but this tool would not help in determine if a wall is plumb: a: Transit b: Builders level c: Plumb bob d: Benchmark

b: Builders level

The condition of erosion control devices must be checked after a rainfall event of _______ or more within a 24 hour period. a: 1 inch b: 2 inches c: 1/2 inch d: 3/4 inch

c: 1/2 inch

What are the three basic soil types a: Cohesive, granular, organic b: Clay, sand, topsoil c: Silt, clay, sand d: Low plasticity, medium plasticity, high plasticity

a: Cohesive, granular, organic

True or False. Soil that is moldable, and only breaks into a few pieces when dropped, is considered to have ideal moisture content.

True

What type of soil compactor would be the best choice for compacting cohesive soils? a: Vibratory plate b: Soil compressor c: Rammer d: Any of the above

c: Rammer

When back filling around the foundation the soil should be compacted in ________ of 6 inches at a time. a: Layers b: Segment c: Lifts d: Bumps

c: Lifts

True or False. The ability to achieve maximum density when compacting soil requires that the soil has it's optimum moisture content.

True

True or False. The heavier the plates are on a vibratory plate compactor the more compaction force it will generate.

True

True or False. All soil types have the same optimum moisture content for compaction.

True

True or False. Water wells should be located on the opposite side or uphill side of the house from the drainfield.

True

What is a method of determining soil density: a: Proctor test b: Sand cone test c: Nuclear density test d: All of the above

d: All of the above

It is virtually impossible to compact soil ______ a: Without adequate moisture b: Containing too much water c: With optimum moisture content d: Both A and B

d: Both A and B

Which of the following is not typically required prior to beginning demolition? a: Get the right permit b: Make sure all utilities have been cut and capped c: Have topographical survey done d: Provide notice to adjacent property owners.

c: Have topographical survey done

True or False. An engineering survey must be conducted of the building and equipment before demolition may commence.

True

True or False. In an emergency situation, where a building or structure must be demolished, a survey is not required.

True

During demolition, an employee may not work on a floor below a floor opening unless protected by a solid barricade not less than _____ high, and not less than ____ back from the projected opening above: a: 24 inches and 4 feet b: 30 inches and 6 feet c: 36 inches and 4 feet d: 42 inches and 6 feet

d: 42 inches and 6 feet

During demolition, workers may not work where hazards exist until the hazards are corrected by: a: Shoring b: Bracing c: Caging d: All the above

d: All the above

Materials from a brick or masonry chimney or stack being manually demolished must be dropped _____ the chimney or stack. a: Inside b: Outside

a: Inside

When removing ceiling and floor systems openings cut into the floor for disposal of materials may not be more than ________ of the total floor area. a: 20% b: 25% c: 30% d: 35%

b: 25%

During a demolition, walkways for workers must be no less than _____ wide. a: 12 inches b: 15 inches c: 18 inches d: 24 inches

c: 18 inches

The roots of a tree are found mostly in the upper _____ of the soil. a: 2 to 4 inches b: 3 to 5 inches c: 6 to 12 inches d: 10 to 18 inches

c: 6 to 12 inches

True or False. Soils found in nature are almost always a combination of different soil types.

True

Which of the following is NOT a reason to compact soil: a: To provide stability b: To reduce settling c: To reduce load bearing capacity d: To reduce swelling and contraction

c: To reduce load bearing capacity

Which of the following pieces of equipment is best used if you have a wide trench and no shallow cross lines? a: Sheepsfoot roller b: Vibratory plates c: Rammers d: Tamping rollers

a: Sheepsfoot roller

The most common type of test used to determine optimum moisture content in soil is the: a: Hand test b: Proctor test c: Nuclear density test d: Perc test

b: Proctor test

Which of the following soil tests would you use when planning the location of a leach field? a: Modified proctor b: Percolation c: Sand cone d: Nuclear density

b: Percolation

True or False. When excavating near a foundation, the excavator should not remove lateral support without first underpinning the foundation against lateral translation.

True

______ grading changes the elevation of the ground by bringing in additional soil from another spot on the site. a: Lift b: Cut c: Fill d: Rough

c: Fill

Code requires that the ground immediately adjacent to the foundation be sloped away from the building at a ____ % slope for at least 10 feet. a: 2.5% b: 5% c: 6% d: 12%

b: 5%

If you are planning to excavate a site, you must call MISS DIG at least: a: 2 days in advance b: 3 days in advance c: 7 days in advance d: 10 days in advance

b: 3 days in advance

Permits are required for any construction activity that will disturb ____ or more acres of land. a: One b: Two c: Five d: All the above, a permit is always required

a: One

According to the EPA, this phase is the most environmentally dangerous part of a construction project a: When land is cleared of vegetation and excavated to grade levels b: When construction vehicles compact the soil c: When no storm drains are created d: When septic systems are located too close to a well.

a: When land is cleared of vegetation and excavated to grade levels

Who is responsible for the ongoing maintenance of erosion and sediment control devices? a: The property owner b: The site superintendent c: The permit holder d: The general contractor

c: The permit holder

Inspections of erosion control measures must be conducted after any rain event or ____ inch or more in a 24 hour period a: 1/2 inch b: 1 inch c: 2 inches d: 4 inches

1/2 inch

True or False. It is critical that sediment from a construction site not be allowed to invade the storm sewer system.

True

Excavations for footings should extend into undisturbed soil a minimum of: a: 4 inches b: 12 inches c: 8 inches d: 24 inches

b: 12 inches

Final grade around buildings must slope away from the foundations walls a minimum of _______ for the first 10 feet a: 2% b: 4% c: 5% d: 10%

c: 5%

Which of the following statements about foundation drainage systems are true? a: 4 inch drain pipe shall be laid on top of a minimum 2 inches of crushed stone or gravel and covered with gravel or crushed stone to a minimum of 6 inches above the top of the tile. b: Footing drain pip shall be placed below the level of the basement floor slab with the holes facing downward c: Gravel or crushed stone drainage systems must extend a minimum of 12 inches past the edge of the footing. d: All of the above

d: All of the above

Reinforcement steel bar placed in footings must be kept ____ from the footing edges of the earth. a: 3 inches b: 4 inches c: 5 inches d: 6 inches

a: 3 inches

Fasteners used below grade in wood foundations shall be: ______ a: Doubledipped galvanized b: Tripledipper galvanized c: Zinc d: Stainless Steel

d: Stainless Steel

Concrete slabs below grade require a ________ base course of sand, gravel or crushed stone if the existing base isn't a group 1 soil. a: 4" b: 5" c: 6" d: 3"

a: 4"

The minimum size of the footings needed to support a building structure is determined by: a: The type of building b: The number of stones c: The type of soil supporting the building d: All of the above

d: All of the above

When steel reinforcement is required, it must be placed at least _________ above the bottom of the footing. a: 2" b: 3" c: 4" d: 5"

b: 3"

If a footing and a foundation wall is constructed by the same form work and created by the same concrete pour, this is called ______ a: Unibond construction b: Monolithic construction c: Time Management d: All of the above

b: Monolithic construction

A groove formed in the surface of a footing to support the foundation wall is called: a: Wall slot b: Keyway c: Strong tie d: Tie slot

b: Keyway

What should be the elevation change limit per step be for step footings? a: 1' b: 2' c: 2 1/2' d: 3'

b: 2'

What is the horizontal brace for wall forms called? a: Long brace b: Wale c: Shark d: Lead brace

b: Wale

Protecting foundation walls against ordinary seepage such that may occur after a rainstorm is called: a: Waterproofing b: Dampproofing c: Parging d: Sealcoating

b: Dampproofing

True or False. Wood posts or columns that are in direct contact with the ground and support permanent structures must be preservative treated.

True

Anchor bolts must be provided within ________ from the end of each piece of the sill plate. a: 6" b: 8" c: 10" d: 12"

d: 12"

Anchor bolts shall be embedded into at least ______ of concrete or grouted masonry. a: 7" b: 8" c: 9" d: 10"

a: 7"

True or False. To keep water moving in a footing drain, the drainpipe should be sloped at least 1/8" per foot.

True

Foundation drain pipe or tile should be ________ than the basement floor slab. a: Lower b: At the same elevation c: Higher d: Any of the above

a: Lower

The required minimum strength of concrete used for footings is: a: 1000 lb./sq. in. b: 2000 lb./sq.in. c: 2500 lb./sq.in. d: 3000 lb./sq.in.

c: 2500 lb./sq.in.

At what distance must rebars used in reinforced concrete footings be kept from the bottom of the footing? a: 4 inches b: 6 inches c: 1 1/2 to 2 1/2 inches d: 3 inches

d: 3 inches

The unsupported height of masonry pier foundations are limited in height to _____ times their width. a: 6 b: 8 c: 10 d: 12

c: 10

True or False. Wood foundations shall not be backfilled until the basement floor and first floor have been constructed or the walls have been braced.

True

A footing and a wall are two parts of a: a: Soffits b: Flashing c: Foundation d: Floor

c: Foundation

What is the required thickness of the moisture barrier that must be used under the basement floor (slab)? a: 2 mils b: 4 mils c: 6 mils d: 8 mils

c: 6 mils

Typically, a footing must be how much wider than the wall bearing on it? a: 4" b: 6" c: 8" d: 12"

c: 8"

Wood foundations not designed in accordance with AWC PWF are limited to a maximum backfill height of: a: 3 feet b: 4 feet c: 5 feet d: 6 feet

b: 4 feet

A wall portion projecting from either or both wall faces serving as a vertical column is a? a: Pier b: Pillar c: Pilaster d: Tremie

c: Pilaster

Foundation walls should be a minimum of how many inches above finished grade when no masonry veneer is being used? a: 6" b: 12" c: 16" d: 8"

a: 6"

What is the minimum diameter anchor bolt used to anchor the sill plate to the top of the foundation wall? a: 3/8" b: 1/2" c: 5/8" d: 3/4"

b: 1/2"

Pier and curtain wall foundations require: a: continuous footings for load bearing walls. b: Load bearing masonry shall be a minimum of 4 inches thick nominal c: Maximum height of 4 inch nominal load bearing walls is 4 feet. d: All of the above

d: All of the above

When a curtain foundation wall is exposed to the weather what is the minimum strength required? a: 1000 lbs/sq.in. b: 2000 lbs/sq.in. c: 2500 lbs/sq.in. d: 3000 lbs/sq.in.

d: 3000 lbs/sq.in.

Footings and foundations shall be constructed of masonry, concrete or treated wood and shall: a: constructed of consistent materials b: Extend below the frost line c: 15" in depth d: None pf the above

b: Extend below the frost line

Foundations for all buildings where the surface of the ground slopes more than 1 unit vertical in 10 units horizontal (10% slope) shall be level or shall be _______ so that both the top and bottom of the foundation is level. a: Stepped b: Bridged c: Jacked d: Sloped

a: Stepped

Anchor bolt washers for the sill plate must be a minimum of ________ and must be used on each bolt, in areas with high levels of seismic activity. a: 1" x 1" x 1/8" b: 1 1/2" x 1 1/2" x 1/8"" c: 1 3/4" x 1 3/4" x 3/16" d: 3" x 3" x 1/4"

d: 3" x 3" x 1/4"

A beam notch in a masonry or concrete foundation wall must provide the beam with an air space clearance a minimum of _____ on each side and end. a: 1/4" b: 3/8" c: 1/2" d: 3/4"

c: 1/2"

The footing for a wood foundation is made up of _______ a: Gravel or crushed stone b: Concrete c: Lime d: Treated wood

a: Gravel or crushed stone

The footing for a crawl space wood foundation must have a minimum depth of _____ of crushed stone or sand. a: 4" b: 5" c: 6" d: 8"

c: 6"

The minimum thickness of a slab on ground is _______. a: 3" b: 3 1/2" c: 4" d: 6"

b: 3 1/2"

Footings that are formed on a level grade with wood or steel are called: a: Trench footings b: Spread footings c: Monolithic footings d: Grade footings

b: Spread footings

What is the maximum unbalanced backfill height of a pier and curtain wall foundation that is 4 inch solid masonry. a: 12 inches b: 18 inches c: 20 inches d: 24 inches

d: 24 inches

The thickened portion of a slab made to support a load bearing wall is: a: Not required b: Called a grade beam c: Required by code d: Both b and c

d: Both b and c

True or False. Footings must always bear on undisturbed soil or engineered fill.

True

Pile foundations are foundations that exceed a width to length ratio of: a: 1 to 8 b: 1 to 10 c: 1 to 12 d: 1 to 14

c: 1 to 12

If approved drain tiles are to be used along the footing of the foundation wall, what are the coverage requirements of the fill? a: 1 inch of porous gravel base, and 4 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile. b: 2 inches of porous gravel base, and 4 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile. c: 4 inches of porous gravel base, and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile. d: 2 inches of porous gravel base, and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile.

d: 2 inches of porous gravel base, and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile.

Maximum anchor bolt spacing is: a: 2' b: 4' c: 6' d: 8'

c: 6'

The maximum distance between the last anchor bolt and the end of the foundation plate is: a: one foot b: two feet c: four feet d: No more than four feet

a: one foot

A horizontal member of a concrete wall form used to help brace the form is a: a: Rail b: Strongback c: Wale d: Wall tie

c: Wale

Under what circumstances would it be recommended to use a step footing: a: Uncompacted soil b: Uneven batter boards c: Sloped grade d: Unevenly distributed load.

c: Sloped grade

Backfill material should be free of: a: Mostly clay soil b: Scrap lumber c: Tree limbs d: All of the above

d: All of the above

What type of building superstructure is allowed when a wood foundation system is utilized? a: Wood frame only b: Wood frame and concrete block c: Concrete block d: Solid brick

a: Wood frame only

If a high water is present, what is required by code to cover the foundation wall up to finish grade? a: A waterproofing must be applied over the exterior face of the foundation wall up to grade level. b: The outside of the entire foundation wall must be cement parged and then waterproof cover added over the parging c: A waterproofing membrane must be applied over the entire exterior face of the foundation wall. d: None of the above

a: A waterproofing must be applied over the exterior face of the foundation wall up to grade level.

In a footing what does a key or keyway refer to? a: The ground that the footing sits on b: The direction that the truck has to come to pour the footing c: The schedule of time to pour d: The groove in the top of the footing

d: The groove in the top of the footing

Waterproofing runs from what to what? a: Top of foundation to grade. b: Bottom of the foundation to the grade. c: Top of the footing to the finished grade. d: Bottom of the footing to the sill plate.

c: Top of the footing to the finished grade.

True or False. Both pier foundations derive their load bearing capacity through skin friction, end bearing or a combination of both.

True

True or False. Wood foundations shall not be backfilled until the basement floor and first floor have been constructed or the walls have been braced.

True

In frost-protected footings, the minimum distance from grade to the bottom of the footing is ______ a: 8" b: 10" c: 12" d: 14"

c: 12"

The minimum projection (P) of the footing is 2" and it should not exceed: a: 4" b: 6" c: 8" d: the thickness of the footing

d: the thickness of the footing

What is the minimum twenty-eight day compression strength of concrete used for foundations not being exposed to weather? a: 1500 psi b: 2000 psi c: 2500 psi d: 3000 psi

c: 2500 psi

What type of fasteners are allowed for below grade exterior walls for wood foundation systems? a: Galvanized b: Zinc coated c: Stainless d: Electro galvanized

c: Stainless

What is the minimum twenty-eight day compression strength of concrete used for a garage floor slab in areas with severe weathering potential? a: 2000 psi b: 2500 psi c: 3000 psi d: 3500 psi

d: 3500 psi

When building a step footing, what is the maximum slope of the grade under the step area? a: 4% b: 6% c: 8% d: 10%

d: 10%

Anchor bolts used to attach the sill plate to the top of the foundation wall must be at least _______ in diameter. a: 3/8" b: 1/2" c: 5/8" d: 3/4"

b: 1/2"

Anchor bolts for the sill plate must be embedded in concrete or grout a minimum of ______ a: 5" b: 6" c: 7" d: 8"

c: 7"

Besides Type M mortar, what other type is acceptable for mortar being used for foundations? a: E b: N c: O d: S

d: S

What is the minimum diameter of a steel column? a: 3" b: 3 1/2" c: 4" d: 4 1/2"

a: 3"

All vented crawl spaces shall be vented within _____ of each corner. a: 2 feet b: 2 1/2 feet c: 3 feet d: 3 1/2 feet

c: 3 feet

At final grade, what is the minimum slope of the grade extending perpendicular to the foundation walls? a: 4" drop in 10 feet - 3.3% b: 5" drop in 10 feet - 4.2% c: 6" drop in 10 feet - 5.0% d: 7" drop in 10 feet - 5.8%

c: 6" drop in 10 feet - 5.0%

What is the minimum required width of a concrete footing in a 3 story single family dwelling conventional light frame construction with a soil bearing capacity of 2000 psf? a: 12" b: 17" c: 20" d: 24"

b: 17"

Excavations for footings should extend into undisturbed soil a minimum of: a: 4 inches b: 12 inches c: 8 inches d: 24 inches

b: 12 inches

Final grade around buildings must slope away from the foundation walls a minimum of _____ for the first 10 feet a: 2% b: 4% c: 5% d: 10%

c: 5%

Which of the following statements about foundation drainage systems are true? a: Drainage tiles or perforated pipe shall be placed on a minimum of 2 inches of crushed stone or gravel and covered with gravel or crushed stone to a minimum of 6 inches above the top of the tile. b: Footing drain pip shall be placed below the level of the basement floor slab. c: Gravel or crushed stone drainage systems must extend a minimum of 12 inches past the edge of the footing. d: All of the above

d: All of the above

Reinforcement steel bar placed in footings must be kept _______ from the footing edges or the earth. a: 3 inches b: 4 inches c: 5 inches d: 6 inches

a: 3 inches

Fasteners used below grade in wood foundations shall be: _____ a: Doubledipped galvanized b: Tripledipped galvanized c: Zinc d: Stainless Steel

d: Stainless Steel

Concrete slabs below grade require a _______ base course of sand, gravel or crushed stone if the existing base isn't a group 1 soil. a: 4" b: 5" c: 6" d: 3"

a: 4"

What type of building can be erected on a pier and curtain wall foundation? a: Steel frame b: Light frame c: Natural stone d: all of the above

b: Light frame

The minimum size of the footings needed to support a building structure is determined by: a: The type of building b: The number of stories c: The type of soil supporting the building d: All of the above

d: All of the above

Rubble stone foundations must be a minimum of _____ inches wide. a: 12 b: 16 c: 24 d: None of the above

b: 16

If a slab and a footing constructed by the same form work and created by the same concrete pour, this is called ______ a: Unibond construction b: Monolithic construction c: Time management d: All of the above

b: Monolithic construction

A groove formed in the surface of a footing to support the foundation wall is called: a: Wall slot b: Keyway c: Strong tie d: Tie slot

b: Keyway

What should be the elevation change limit per step be for step footings? a: 1' b: 2' c: 2 1/2' d: 3'

b: 2'

What is the horizontal brace for wall forms called? a: Long brace b: Wale c: Shark d: Lead brace

b: Wale

Protecting foundation walls against ordinary seepage such that may occur after a rainstorm is called: a: Waterproofing b: Dampproofing c: Parging d: Sealcoating

b: Dampproofing

True or False. Wood posts or columns that are in direct contact with the ground and support permanent structures must be preservative treated.

True

Anchor bolts must be provided within _____ from the end of each piece of the sill plate. a: 6" b: 8" c: 10" d: 12"

d: 12"

Anchor bolts shall be embedded into at least ______ of concrete or grouted masonry a: 7" b: 8" c: 9" d: 10"

a: 7"

True or False. To keep water moving in a footing drain, the drainpipe should be sloped at least 1/8" per foot.

True

Foundation drain pipe or tile should be _____ than the basement floor slab. a: Lower b: At the same elevation c: Higher d: Any of the above

a: Lower

The required minimum strength of concrete used for footings is: a: 1000 lb./sq.in. b: 2000 lb./sq.in. c: 2500 lb./sq.in. d: 3000 lb./sq.in.

c: 2500 lb./sq.in.

Vented crawl spaces require a vent opening within ___ feet of each corner. a: 1 b: 2 c: 3 d: 6

c: 3

Pier foundations are limited in height to ____ times their width. a: 6 b: 8 c: 10 d: 12

d: 12

True or False. Wood foundations shall not be backfilled until the basement floor and first floor have been constructed or the walls have been braced.

True

A footing and a wall are two parts of a: a: Soffits b: Flashing c: Foundation d: Floor

c: Foundation

What is the required thickness of the moisture barrier that must be used under the basement floor (slab)? a: 2 mils b: 4 mils c: 6 mils d: 8 mils

c: 6 mils

Typically, footings must be how much wider than the wall bearing on it? a: 4" b: 6" c: 8" d: 12"

c: 8"

Wood foundations are limited to a maximum unbalanced backfill height of: a: 3 feet b: 4 feet c: 5 feet d: 6 feet

b: 4 feet

A wall portion projecting from either or both wall faces serving as a vertical column is a? a: Pier b: Pillar c: Pilaster d: Tremie

c: Pilaster

Foundation walls should be a minimum of how many inches above grade? a: 6" b: 12" c: 16" d: 8"

a: 6"

Batter boards must be kept _____ feet from the intended excavation. a: 2 b: 4 c: 6 d: None of the above

b: 4

Pier and curtain wall foundations requires: a: Continuous footings for load bearing walls. b: Load bearing masonry walls shall be a minimum of 4 inches thick nominal. c: Maximum height of 4 inch nominal load bearing walls is 4 feet. d: All of the above

d: All of the above

When a concrete foundation wall is exposed to moderate weather conditions, what is the minimum strength required? a: 1000 lbs/sq.in. b: 2000 lbs/sq.in. c: 2500 lbs/sq.in. d: 3000 lbs/sq.in.

d: 3000 lbs/sq.in.

Footings and Foundations shall be constructed of masonry, concrete or treated wood and shall: a: Constructed of consistent materials b: Extend below the frost line c: 15" in depth d: None of the above

b: Extend below the frost line

Foundations for all buildings where the surface of the ground slopes more than 1 unit vertical in 10 units horizontal (10% slope) shall be level or shall be ________ so that both the top and bottom of the foundation is level. a: Stepped b: Bridged c: Jacked d: Sloped

a: Stepped

Anchor bolt washers for the sill plate must bea minimum of ______ and must be used on each bolt, in areas of Tennessee with high levels of seismic activity. a: 1" x 1" x 1/8" b: 1 1/2" x 1 1/2" x 1/8" c: 1 3/4" x 1 3/4" x 3/16" d: 3" x 3" x 1/4"

d: 3" x 3" x 1/4"

A beam notch in a poured concrete foundation wall must have a minimum clearance of ______ on each side and end: a: 1/4" b: 3/8" c: 1/2" d: 3/4:

c: 1/2"

The footing for a wood foundation is made up of _______. a: Gravel or crushed stone b: Concrete c: Lime d: Treated wood

a: Gravel or crushed stone

The footing for a wood foundation must have a minimum depth of _____ of crushed stone or sand. a: 4" b: 5" c: 6" d: 8"

c: 6"

The minimum thickness of a slab on the ground is _______ a: 3" b: 3 1/2" c: 4" d: 6"

b: 3 1/2"

Footings that are formed on grade level with wood or steel are called: a: Trench footings b: Spread footings c: Monolithic footings d: Grade footings

b: Spread footings

What is the maximum unbalanced backfill height of a pier and curtain wall foundation that is 4 inch solid masonry: a: 12 inches b: 18 inches c: 20 inches d: 24 inches

d: 24 inches

The thickened portion of a slab made to support a load bearing wall is: a: Not required b: Called a grade beam c: Required by code d: Both a and c

d: Both a and c

True or False. Footings must always bear on undisturbed soil.

True

Pile foundations are foundations are foundations that exceed a width to length ratio of: a: 1 to 8 b: 1 to 10 c: 1 to 12 d: 1 to 14

c: 1 to 12

If approved drain tiles are to be used along the footing of the foundation wall, what are the coverage requirements of the fill? a: 1 inch of porous gravel base, and 4 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile. b: 2 inches of porous gravel base and 4 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile c: 4 inches of porous gravel base and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile d: 2 inches of porous gravel base and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile

d: 2 inches of porous gravel base and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile

Crawl space foundations are typically less than ____ feet tall. a: 2 b: 4 c: 5 d: 8

c: 5

The maximum distance between the last anchor bolt and the end of the foundation plate is: a: One foot b: Two feet c: Four feet d: No more than four feet

a: One foot

A horizontal member of a concrete wall form used to help brace the form is a: a: Rail b: Strongback c: Wale d: Wall tie

Wale

Under what circumstances would it be recommended to use a step footing: a: Uncompacted soil b: Uneven batter boards c: Sloped grade d: Unevenly distributed load

c: Sloped grade

Backfill material should be free of: a: Mostly clay soil b: Scrap lumber c: Tree limits d: All of the above

d: All of the above

What type of building superstructure is allowed when a wood foundation is utilized? a: Wood frame only b: Wood frame and concrete block c: Concrete block d: Solid brick

a: Wood frame only

If a high water table is present, what is required by code to cover the foundation wall up to finish grade? a: A waterproofing membrane must be applied over the exterior face of the foundation wall up to grade level. b: The outside of the entire foundation wall must be cement parged and then a waterproof cover added over the parging. c: A waterproofing membrane must be applied over th entire exterior face of the foundation wall d: None of the above

a: A waterproofing membrane must be applied over the exterior face of the foundation wall up to grade level.

In a footing what does a key or keyway refer to? a: The ground that the footing sits on b: the direction that the truck has to come to pour the footing c: The schedule of time to pour d: The groove in the top of the footing

d: The groove in the top of the footing

Waterproofing runs from what to what? a: Top of the foundation to grade b: Bottom of the foundation to the grade c: Top of the footing to the grade d: Bottom of the footing to the sill plate

c: Top of the footing to the grade

True or False. Pile caps are used to evenly distribute the weight of a column to may piles.

True

True or False. Wood foundations shall not be backfilled until the basement floor and first floor have been constructed or the walls have been braced.

True

In frost-protected footings, the minimum distance from grade to the bottom of the footing is _______ a: 8" b: 10" c: 12" d: 14"

c: 12"

What is the minimum twnety-eight day compression strength of concrete used for foundations not being exposed to weather? a: 1500 psi b: 2000 psi c: 2500 psi d: 3000 psi

c: 2500 psi

True or False. Grade beams are used to distribute large wall loads of a building equally along pile caps, caissons and spread footings.

True

When building a step footing, what is the maximum slope of the grade under the step area? a: 4% b: 6% c: 8% d: 10%

d: 10%

Anchor bolts used to attach the sill plate to the top of the foundation wall must be at least ____ in diameter. a: 3/8" b: 1/2" c: 5/8" d: 3/4"

b: 1/2"

Besides type M mortar, what other type is acceptable for mortar being used for foundations? a: E b: N c: O d: S

d: S

The minimum diameter of a steel column? a: 3" b: 3 1/2" c: 4" d: 4 1/2"

a: 3"

All vented crawl spaces shall be vented within _____ of each corner. a: 2 feet b: 2 1/2 feet c: 3 feet d: 3 1/2 feet

c: 3 feet

At final grade, what is the minimum slope of the grade extending perpendicular to the foundation walls? a: 4" drop in 10 feet - 3.3% b: 5" drop in 10 feet - 44.2% c: 6" drop in 10 feet - 5.0% d: 7" drop in 10 feet - 5.8%

c: 6" drop in 10 feet - 5.0%

Concrete is made by mixing: a: Lime, Portland cement, and water b: Cement, sand, water, and gravel c: Lime, mortar, and water d: None of the above

b: Cement, sand, water, and gravel

Ready mix concrete is purchased by the cubic yard, which is how many cubic feet? a: 144 b: 27 c: 12 d: 48

b: 27

The thermal process known as hydration refers to: a: Air entrainment of concrete b: Freeze and thaw conditions of concrete c: The curing process d: None of the above

c: The curing process

A slump cone is a metal cone used for: a: Determining water mix in concrete b: Pouring cement in small places c: Measuring amount of cement used d: None of the above

a: Determining water mix in concrete

The minimum compressive strength of concrete for slabs in moderate weather exposure is _____. a: 2000 lb b: 2500 lb c: 3000 lb d: None of the above

c: 3000 lb

Reinforced concrete is accomplished by adding: a: Reinforcing rod b: Welded wire c: Stronger cement d: Either a or b

d: Either a or b

The term "fine aggregate" refers to well-graded up to: a: 1/4 inch b: 1/8 inch c: 3/8 inch d: 5/8 inch

a: 1/4 inch

In comparison to regular concrete, air entrained concrete: a: Has more workability b: Is more watertight c: is more durable in freeze/thaw conditions d: Both a and c

d: Both a and c

If fill needs to be added for a slab-on-grade, it should be compacted in successive layers of not more than _____ inches thick at a time. a: 24 b: 18 c: 6 d: all of the above

c: 6

A number 3 rebar is what diameter? a: 1/8 inch b: 1/4 inch c: 3/8 inch d: 1/2 inch

c: 3/8 inch

When water is added to Portland cement it causes the mass to set. This reaction is called. a: Admixtures b: Hydration c: Entrainment d: Mixing

b: Hydration

For garage floor slabs where a steel trowel finish is used, the total air content can be reduced to _____ percent provided the strength of the concrete is increased to 4000 psi. a: 3 b: 5 c: 7 d: All of the above

a: 3

What is used to prevent concrete from sticking to wood forms a: Grease b: Form release agent (Oil) c: Concrete will not stick to wood d: None of the above

b: Form release agent (Oil)

The most commonly used additive to help concrete set rapidly and more cohesively is: a: Calcium chloride b: Fly ash c: Hydrochloric acid d: Paint catalyst

a: Calcium chloride

How much does one cubic foot of concrete weigh? a: 0.86 lbs. b: 94 lbs. c: 150 lbs d: 4050 lbs.

c: 150 lbs

Concrete is considered to be fully cured or set after _____ days a: 14 days b: 21 days c: 28 days d: 30 days

c: 28 days

True or False. Air entrainment protects concrete from frost damage, but also makes concrete more workable. For that reason, not as much water is necessary for the mix.

True

True or False. On hot sunny days in the summertime, a contractor may decide to use _______ to slow down the setting time of concrete. a: Water b: Retarders c: Chloride d: A tarp

b: Retarders

True or False. When pouring concrete, the concrete should be placed near its required point. Excessive handling o the concrete weakens it.

True

A ------- is a 12" high cone which determines the amount of water in the mix. a: Waffle cone b: Masonry cone c: Concrete cone d: Slump cone

d: Slump cone

Adding too much water to a concrete mix will _____ it. a: Strengthen b: Drown c: Lighten d: Weaken

d: Weaken

_____ concrete is the process of leveling the freshly poured concrete before it is floated. a: Screeding b: Brushing c: Raking d: Stomping

a: Screeding

True or False. Floating of the freshly screeded is accomplished with a wood or magnesium bullfloat which smooths out, levels, compacts and brings the small particles to the surface for finishing.

True

On large areas, it may be necessary to use a _____ to finish the surface area. a: Large finish trowel b: Bullfloat c: 2 x 12 d: Power trowel

d: Power trowel

On sidewalk surfaces, it is necessary to broom the surface of concrete to provide a: a: Non-slip surface b: Clean sidewalk c: Bubble-free surface d: More durable surface

a: Non-slip surface

It is necessary to maintain the temperature above 50 degrees in order for concrete to properly: a: Dissipate b: Strengthen c: Cure d: Level off

c: Cure

Welded wire mesh should be placed _____ below the top of the surface of the slab. a: 1 inch b: 2 inches c: 4 inches d: None of the above

b: 2 inches

The white salty powder that forms on the finished surface of concrete is called _____. a: Sodium b: Dust c: Lime d: Efflorescence

d: Efflorescence

A concrete floor may also be called a: a: Cement pond b: Slab on the ground c: Lower elevation d: Slag

b: Slab on the ground

Concrete slabs on grade have a tendency to curl because: a: The ground may settle b: The top cures faster c: The middle is heavier d: The sides are lighter

b: The top cures faster

As concrete is placed in a form it needs to be leveled off. This can be done manually or mechanically with a _______. a: Power trowel b: Power screed c: Power stomper d: Power washer

b: Power screed

A control joint allows for what? a: Leveling the foundation b: A place for a girder to rest. c: Movement d: None of the above

c: Movement

Pouring concrete on frozen earth is: a: Acceptable if fast drying concrete is used. b: Acceptable if air-entrainment concrete is used. c: Acceptable if the surrounding earth is treated with chloride d: Never acceptable

d: Never acceptable

The diameter of a No. 4 deformed bar is: a: 1/4" b: 3/8" c: 1/2" d: 3/4"

c: 1/2"

Which of the following are true in regard to cold-weather construction? a: Water for mixing can be heated b: Insulated blankets can be placed over concrete footings c: Aggregate can be heated d: All of the above

d: All of the above

When sawing a control joint in a concrete slab, the joint must be a minimum f how deep? a: 1/5 the thickness b: 1/4 the thickness c: 1/2 the thickness d: 2/3 the thickness

b: 1/4 the thickness

What is the purpose of adding retarders to a concrete mixture? a: To cause the concrete to set faster b: To increase the amount of water needed to mix concrete c: To slow down the setting time of concrete d: To increase shrinkage as the concrete dries.

c: To slow down the setting time of concrete

What is added to make concrete more workable with less water? a: Fly ash b: Accelerators c: Retarders d: Water reducers

d: Water reducers

A one car driveway should have a minimum width of? a: 8' b: 10' c: 12' d: 16'

b: 10'

A two car wide driveway is usually how wide? a: 14' b: 16' c: 18' d: None of the above

c: 18'

In cases of severe cold weather exposure, the air content in a concrete mix should be about: a: 3% to 5% b: 5% to 7% c: 8% to 10% d: 10% to 12%

b: 5% to 7%

If concrete is exposed to de-icers and it is not air entrained, it could: a: Bleach the surface b: Darken c: Scale or spall d: Buckle

c: Scale or spall

When concrete becomes flaky and fragmented on the surface, this is called: a: Scaling or spalling b: Spider cracking c: Buckling d: Lifting

a: Scaling or spalling

The maximum size aggregate is limited to the lesser of: a: One quarter the thickness of nonreinforced slabs b: Three-fourths the clear spacing between the bar and the side of the form c: One-fifth the narrowest distance between sides of the form. d: b and c

d: b and c

Where concrete is cast against and permanently exposed tooo the earth, reinforcement steel should be ______ from the earth. a: 1" b: 2" c: 3" d: 4"

c: 3"

In most specifications, adding water to a batch of concrete is permitted only one time at the job site as long as the WC ratio is not exceeded. This would be done in order to: a: Increase the slump to the level specified in the mix design b: Make cleanup easier c: Speed up the job d: The workman's preference

a: Increase the slump to the level specified in the mix design

A method to prevent cast concrete from excessive shrinking is to: a: Increase the cement factor and reduce the size of the aggregate b: Lower the cement factor and increase the size of the aggregate c: Use more steel d: Add calcium chloride

b: Lower the cement factor and increase the size of the aggregate

Contraction joints, also known as control joints, in a slab are used to: a: Control random cracking b: Create dimensional character c: Water drainage d: Segregate the slab

a: Control random cracking

Isolation joints isolate differing parts of a structure to permit independent: a: Structures b: Design c: Movement d: Placement

c: Movement

______ are a convenient way to limit the size of the placement of concrete to a manageable volume and are a stopping place for a day's work. a: Construction joints b: Contraction joints c: Isolation joints d: Control joints

a: Construction joints

For a slab placed below grade, it is necessary to provide at least 4" of crushed gravel or stone. This should be compacted. It will prevent moisture from collecting under the slab. this 4" area is known as _______ a: Aggregate fill b: Extra aggregate c: Dry-base d: Base

d: Base

The timing for the removal of forms is important. The concrete has to achieve a strength great enough to support its own weight and the weight of any construction loads places upon it. General guidelines for wall and column form removal is _______ after placement. a: At least 12 hours b: At least 24 hours c: At least 36 hours d: At least 48 hours

a: At least 12 hours

Concrete that has a lot of Portland cement in the mix may be referred to as: a: High mix b: Max mix c: Rich concrete d: Fat mix

c: Rich concrete

What is the reason for using fiber reinforcement in concrete? a: Improves ductility and reduces surface cracks b: It's a cheap filler c: It increases temperate strength d: Increases compression strength

a: Improves ductility and reduces surface cracks

The most precise way of positioning rebar for a slab is to use: a: Stirrups b: Tables c: Stools d: Spacers

a: Stirrups

True or False. Chairs are classified according to their degree of rust protection. Class #1 is the maximum protection, class #2 is moderate protection, and class #3 is no protection.

True

Proper _______ prevents most problems in the finished concrete. Methods used to ensure a high quality, finished product,, include a sprayed on membrane curing compound, polyethylene sheets, waterproof paper or wet burlap. a: Curing b: Seasoning c: Basting d: Besting

a: Curing

With the exception of special conditions, maximum delivery time between the water being mixed with the Portland cement in batching and the time of completion of discharge from a transit-mix truck is ______ a: 30 minutes b: 60 minutes c: 90 minutes d: 120 minutes

c: 90 minutes

What is the sole purpose for welded wire fabric in a floor slab? a: Increase the load carrying capacity b: Prevent slab from cracking c: Prevent cracks from opening d: All of the above

c: Prevent cracks from opening

True or False. The reason for tying reinforcing bars with tie wire is to keep the rebar in place while pouring. It does not add any additional strength to the concrete:

True

True or False. Rebar is placed in concrete mainly to improve its compression strength.

False

What is the usual size of tie wire for rebar placement: a: #8 gauge soft annealed b: #12 gauge soft annealed c: #14 gauge soft annealed d: #16 gauge soft annealed

d: #16 gauge soft annealed

Reinforcing steel placed in concrete to increase is ______ strength. a: Compression b: Tensile c: Soil compaction d: None of the above

b: Tensile

There are two ways to insure proper curing of concrete: apply water to make up for water lost due to evaporation, and _____. a: Use plasticizers b: Use retarders c: Prevent evaporation d: All of the above

c: Prevent evaporation

True or False. Concrete cures best in cool, damp environments

True

Besides ensuring the proper strength of concrete, proper curing of concrete also aids in: a: Durability b: Surface soundness c: Reducing cracking d: All of the above

d: All of the above

Concrete slabs poured above grade are oftne supported by ribber or corrugated steel decking. These forms are called _____. a: Slip forms b: Jump forms c: Stay-in-place forms d: Gang forms

c: Stay-in-place forms

What is the minimum thickness of concrete footings for fireplaces? a: 10" b: 11" c: 12" d: 14"

c: 12"

What is the minimum thickness of concrete used for floors? a: 3" b: 3 1/2" c: 4" d: 4 1/2"

b: 3 1/2"

To stiffen floor construction, a builder should: a: Use proper bridging b: Use building paper over subflooring c: Use a steel beam instead of a wood beam d: Use a lot of nails

a: Use proper bridging

A ledger is: a: Part of a window b: A strip for headers to rest on c: A board for joists to fasten to d: An accounting book

c: A board for joists to fasten to

Joists resting on beams or girders must overlap a minimum of how many inches, if they don't run continuous? a: 5 b: 4 c: 3 d: 2

c: 3

If the joists are to be framed flush with the top of a wood girder, it is best to use: a: Edging strip b: Hangers c: Flushers d: 8D nails

b: Hangers

Bearing walls running above and parallel to the floor joists require that the floor joists be: a: Doubled b: Either a or c c: Laddered d: Replaced

b: Either a or c

In lumber classification, Firsts and seconds (FAS) is best described as: a: Discarded boards suitable for concrete forms and other uses b: Boards of approximately 8' and 101' lengths c: Boards with few knots or irregularities d: Exceptionally green lumber prone to heavy shrinkage

c: Boards with few knots or irregularities

What is used over doors/openings to transfer superimposed loads to vertical members a: Ceiling joists b: Rafters c: Headers d: Wall top plates

c: Headers

When floors require bridging, use solid blocking, diagonal wood or metal bracing or a continuous 1 x 3 strip nailed across the bottom of joists for spans over ______. a: 6 feet b: 8 feet c: 10 feet d: 12 feet

b: 8 feet

Rafters and floor joists should be installed with the: a: Crown up b: Bow up c: Crown down d: None of the above

a: Crown up

The maximum size hole that may be bored into a 12" floor joists is: a: 2" b: 3" c: 3 3/4" d: 6"

c: 3 3/4"

For a fire stop, you should not use: a: 3/4" plywood b: 19/32 particle board c: A thickness of two 1" pieces of lumber d: 2" nominal thickness lumber

b: 19/32 particle board

The mark C-D stamped on a sheet of plywood refers to the: a: Strength of the plywood b: Stereophonic capability when used in speakers c: Veneer grade d: Construction durability

c: Veneer grade

The lowest horizontal member of a truss is called a: a: Bottom chord b: Brace c: Ceiling joist d: Stay

a: Bottom chord

What is the minimum amount of bearing for the ends of each joist placed over a girder or sill plate a: 1" b: 1 1/4" c: 1 1/2" d: 1 3/4"

c: 1 1/2"

The name for the metal or wood plate used to strengthen the joints of a truss is: a: Gusset b: Chord c: Metal tie d: None of the above

a: Gusset

In exterior walls and bearing partitions, any wood stud is permitted to be cut or notched to a depth not exceeding _____ of its width. a: 50% b: 40% c: 25% d: None of the above

c: 25%

Holes drilled into floor joists for piping shall not exceed 1/3 of the depth of the joist and: a: Must be closer than 2' to the top or bottom b: Must be in the middle third of the span c: Not in the left or right third of the span d: Not be closer than 2" to the bottom of the joist

d: Not be closer than 2" to the bottom of the joist

Plywood testing and rating is performed by: a: APA b: TIOSHA c: IRC/MRC 2000 d: EPA

a: APA

When framing for large openings in the floor, the joist and header should be: a: Notched b: Tripled c: Reinforced d: Doubled

d: Doubled

A sheet of plywood stamped 32/16 has a maximum span of: a: 32" subflooring and 16" roof sheathing b: 32" wall sheathing and 16" roof sheathing c: 32" roof sheathing and 16" wall sheathing d: 32" roof sheathing and 16" subflooring

d: 32" roof sheathing and 16" subflooring

What is meant by the term dead load? a: Weight from immovable objects b: Weight from building materials and permanent mechanical systems c: Weight distributed to the earth d: None of the above

b: Weight from building materials and permanent mechanical systems

A ridge board for rafters shall not be less than ___ inch nominal thickness and not less than the depth of the cut end of the rafter. a: 1 b: 2 c: 3 d: 4

a: 1

What is the maximum notch depth in the middle third of a rafter a: 1/6 the depth of the rafter b: 1/4 the depth of the rafter c: 1/3 the depth of the rafter d: Never notch the middle third!

d: Never notch the middle third!

True or false. Live load is load produced by the use and occupancy of the building or other structure that does not include construction or environment loads.

True

For most wood, drying its moisture content to _____ percent does not result in shrinkage a: 12 b: 20 c: 28 d: None of the above

c: 28

True or False. The most stable lumber is quarter sawn.

True

Preservative-treated wood shall be marked with a stamp or label showing: a: Identification of treating manufacturer b: Type of preservative used c: Minimum preservative retention (pcf) d: All of the above

d: All of the above

An engineered, stress-rated product created by bonding together individual pieces of lumber together to form a beam is called: a: Sheathing b: Rim board c: Glulam d: None of the above

c: Glulam

True or False. Floor joists in balloon framing rest on a 1 x 4 ribbon that is let in to the inside edge of the studs.

True

A wood floor system is made-up of: a: Floor joist or I joist b: Subflooring c: Posts and beams d: All of the above

d: All of the above

A girder is a structural, horizontal member used to support: a: Masonry b: Posts c: Trusses d: None of the above

c: Trusses

The minimum airspace on the sides of a wood beam in a masonry pocket is ___ inch a: 1/4 b: 3/8 c: 1/2 d: All of the above

c: 1/2

Name a type of floor joist bridging: a: Cross bridging b: Metal strap c: Solid d: All of the above

d: All of the above

Sill seal would be used ____. a: At the bottom of the footing b: At the top of a framed wall. c: Between the top of the foundation wall and the underside of the sill plate. d: None of the above

c: Between the top of the foundation wall and the underside of the sill plate.

Floor joist shall have a minimum bearing on wood or metal of ____ inches or _____ inches on masonry a: 3 and 4 b: 2 and 3 c: 1-1/2 and 3 d: None of the above

c: 1-1/2 and 3

Joist framing from opposite sides of a beam shall be nailed together with a minimum of ____ face nails. a: 3-10d b: 3-8d c: 2-16d d: None of the above

a: 3-10d

True or False. A wall plate is the horizontal member at the top or bottom of a wall.

True

The ___ stud is immediately beside and fastened to the jack or trimmer stud. a: Cripple b: King-stud c: Sill d: None of the above

b: King-stud

A bored hole in a stud can be no less than___ of an inch from the edge of the stud. a: 5/8 b: 1/2 c: 3/8 d: All of the above

a: 5/8

Using Table R602.3(1), rafters can be fastened to the top plate of a wall with ____ nails. a: 3-10d box b: 3-8d common c: 3-16d box d: None of the above

c: 3-16d box

End joints in double top-plates shall be offset at least ____ inches. a: 24 b: 36 c: 48 d: None of the above

a: 24

True or False. Wall bracing can be 1 x4's let into the top and bottom plates and intervening studs ,placed at an angle of not more than 60 degrees and less than 45 degrees from horizontal.

True

Using Table R802.4(2) for a #1 Hem-Fir, 2 x 6 ceiling joists, spaced 16 inches O.C., what is the maximum ceiling joist span? a: 16'-10 in. b: 13'-7 in. c: 8'-9 in. d: None of the above

b: 13'-7 in.

Collar ties are used to prevent unwanted spread in a ____. a: Roof assembly b: Floor system c: Window opening d: None of the above

a: Roof assembly

For a 2 x 8, #1 Hem-Fir spaced 16 inches O.C., with a dead load of 20 pounds per SF, what is the maximum rafter span? a: 18'-10 in. b: 12'-11 in. c: 16'-7 in. d: None of the above

c: 16'-7 in.

The ____ truss is the most common due to its versatility. a: Scissor b: Piggy-back c: Fink or W d: None of the above

c: Fink or W

Using Table R602.3(1), to fasten a top plate to a stud, what is the fastening requirement? a: 2-16d common b: 3-10d common c: 2-8d common d: None of the above

a: 2-16d common

Using Table R602.3(1), to install 1 inch diagonal brace to stud and plate, what is the fastening requirement? a: 2-16d common b: 3-10d common c: 2-8d common d: None of the above

c: 2-8d common

Fire blocking in concealed wall spaces shall be provided vertically at the ceiling and floor levels and horizontally at intervals not exceeding ____ feet. a: 6 b: 8 c: 10 d: All of the above

c: 10

True or False. Fireblocking for stairways shall be provided in concealed spaces between stair stringers at the top and bottom of the run.

True

What is the allowed joist-spacing for live load of 30 psf, #1 Hem-fir 2 x 10, spanning 16'-3" or less? a: 12 inches b: 16 inches c: 19.2 inches d: 24 inches

b: 16 inches

What is the maximum cantilever for an exterior balcony with a load of 30 psf if the floor is framed with 2 x12 wood joists 16 inches on center? (IRC Table R502.3.3(2)) a: 58 inches b: 72 inches c: 53 inches d: None of the above

b: 72 inches

Typically there is a double plate on the wall frame over: a: Mechanical openings b: Doors c: Window d: All of the above

d: All of the above

When should cross bridging be installed? a: Before the joists are nailed b: At the same time as sheeting is installed c: Any time after the subfloor is installed d: The top of the bridging is nailed before, and the bottom is nailed after the subfloor is installed

d: The top of the bridging is nailed before, and the bottom is nailed after the subfloor is installed

When framing walls, corner bracing may be: a: Approved metal wind bracing b: 1 x 4 wood let-in to the studs c: Wood structural panels d: All of the above

d: All of the above

The double top plate on a wall is needed to: a: Connect interior partitions with the outside wall b: Stabilize the walls c: Carry roof assemblies d: All of the above

d: All of the above

To secure studs to either the top or bottom plates, how many face nails are used? a: Two 8 D b: Two 16 D c: Two 10 D d: Four 8 D

b: Two 16 D

Diagonal bracing (corner or wind) is normally installed at a _____ degree angle. a: 35 to 45 b: 40 to 50 c: 45 to 60 d: All of the above

c: 45 to 60

The main reason contractors use pre-built trusses: a: Material cost savings b: Labor cost savings c: Trusses can span greater distances without needing a bearing wall d: All of the above

d: All of the above

Shear walls are designed to resist lateral forces such as: a: Wind b: Seismic movement c: a and b d: None of the above

c: a and b

Balloon, post and beam, and platform refer to the three basic kinds of: a: Insulation b: Trusses c: Framing d: Joists

c: Framing

Deflection could be defined as: a: Sway b: Bending c: Shear d: Twist

b: Bending

True or False. Floor joists should be strong enough to carry the load that rests on them, but also be stiff enough to prevent undue deflection.

True

For nailing ceiling joists to the top plate you should use at least: (IRC Table R602.3(1)) a: Two 8d common b: Two 16 d common c: Three 16 d box d: Three 8 d common

d: Three 8 d common

True or False. Following BCSI recommendations for temporary truss bracing will minimize truss damage and worker safety during construction.

True

When preparing to set roof trusses, substantial ____ of the first truss is critical for the proper installation and safety concerns of the project. a: Ground bracing b: Inspection c: Spacing d: None of the above

a: Ground bracing

In balloon framing, the second floor joists rest on: (Figure R602.3(1)) a: Collar ties b: The ribbon c: Top plate d: Rafters

b: The ribbon

The bottom horizontal member of a wall frame in platform construction is called a: a: Stud b: Cripple c: Bottomplate d: Header

c: Bottomplate

The bottom horizontal member of a wall frame in platform construction is called a: a: Stud b: Cripple c: Bottomplate d: Header

c: Bottomplate

The horizontal member located at the top of a wall frame is called: a: Soleplate b: Top plate c: Header d: Ceiling joist

b: Top plate

When installing wood joist blocking or bridging must be installed when: (R502.7) a: When the joist exceed 2" x 8" b: When the joist exceed 2" x 10" c: When the joist exceed 2" x 12" d: When the joist are 8 feet long

c: When the joist exceed 2" x 12"

Joists shall not be notched: (R502.8) a: Within the middle 1/3rd of the span b: Within the middle 1/2 of the span c: They should not be notched d: Within 12 inches of either end

a: Within the middle 1/3rd of the span

A cricket is used: (R1003.20) a: To join a dormer to a roof b: Between the roof and a chimney c: To join a roof valley d: To strengthen a header

b: Between the roof and a chimney

The ridge board must be a at least: (R802.3) a: 1 inch nominal thickness b: As wide as the cut end of the rafter c: 2 inch in nominal thickness d: Both a & b are correct

d: Both a & b are correct

Studs (2x4) carrying roof loads only, may be spaced a maximum of: (R602.3.1) a: 24 inches on center b: 16 inches on center c: 18 inches on center d: 36 inches on center

a: 24 inches on center

Studs (2x4) carrying roof loads only, may be spaced a maximum of: (R602.3.1) a: 24 inches on center b: 16 inches on center c: 18 inches on center d: 36 inches on center

a: 24 inches on center

Let-in bracing (corner or wind) must be installed at ____ degree angles. a: 35 to 55 b: 40 to 60 c: 45 to 60 d: 45 to 65

c: 45 to 60

A bird's mouth is: a: The elbow at the bottom of a downspout b: The notch cut on the underside of a rafter to fit the top plate. c: Usually lacking teeth d: All of the above

b: The notch cut on the underside of a rafter to fit the top plate.

The required fastening for securing a sole plate to a joist or blocking at braced wall panels is: (R602.3(1) a: 8d nails, 8" o.c. b: 2-8d nails, 16" o.c. c: 3-10d nails, 10" o.c. d: 3-16d nails, 16" o.c.

d: 3-16d nails, 16" o.c.

What is the minimum size rough framed attic access hole? a: 22" x22" b: 22" x 24" c: 22" x 30" d: 22" x 32"

d: 3-16d nails, 16" o.c.

The minimum hall width n a single family dwelling: (R311.6) a: 30" b: 32" c: 36" d: 38"

c: 36"

The first step in wall framing is to: a: Mark stud locations on sole and top plates b: Lay out wall locations on the subfloor c: Cut all studs to length d: Drink a beer and contemplate the first step

b: Lay out wall locations on the subfloor

A horizontal framing member that prevents opposing rafter pairs from spreading apart and rafters from bowing in under a load are: a: Rafter bracing b: Chords c: Collar ties d: Strong backs

c: Collar ties

When using engineered wood products, what action is prohibited without the permission of the manufacturer or registered design professional? (R502.8.2) a: Notching b: Boring holes c: Making cuts d: All of the above

d: All of the above

At the top of span tables for floor joists, what does L/triangle (symbol) = 360 mean? (Table R502.3.1(2) Table R301.7 a: Deflection = 1/360th of the span b: Kiln dried lumber c: Flat-sawn lumber d: Quarter-sawn lumber

a: Deflection = 1/360th of the span

Floors in residential construction are engineered to have a minimum of 40 pounds per square foot with the exception of sleeping areas, which can be at: (Table 301.5) a: 25 lbs. b: 35 lbs. c: 20 lbs. d: 30 lbs.

d: 30 lbs.

When framing an opening in a floor, an opening exceeding ____ requires the header and trimmer joist to be doubled. (R502.10) a: 1 foot b: 2 feet c: 3 feet d: 4 feet

d: 4 feet

All of the following are true regarding the bearing of wood joists on walls or beams in a single family dwelling except: (R502.6 and R502.6.1) a: Minimum bearing of concrete or masonry shall be 5% b: 1 1/2" bearing required on wood or steel c: Joist framing from opposite ends shall lap at least 3" d: Ribbon strips or joist hangers may be used

a: Minimum bearing of concrete or masonry shall be 5%

What is the maximum full allowed span of a 2x8 floor joist in a bedroom of a single family dwelling consisting of spruce-pine-fur, #3 grade, spaced 16"o.c., with a 20 psf Dcad load? (Table R502.3.1(1)) a: 8' b: 9' c: 9'6" d: 12'

c: 9'6"

True or False. Balloon and platform framing have fire-blocking already built in.

False

There are two basic types of decks ground-level and ____ a: Platform b: Elevated c: Stepped d: None of the above

b: Elevated

A 2x6 southern pine joists spaced 16-inch O.C. can span ___ feet. (Table R507.5) a: 6 b: 7'-6" c: 9 d: None of the above

c: 9

True or false. When one side of a deck is fastened to a wall, a ledger must be attached to the wall.

True

Deck ledgers must be a minimum of ____. (R507) a: 2x4 b: 2x6 c: 2x8 d: All of the above

c: 2x8

Guardrails where required, shall not les than ___ inches in height. (R312) a: 42 b: 36 c: 34 d: None of the above

a: 42

The required quality mark on pressure treated lumber shall indicate: (R317) a: Identification of the treating plant. b: Type of preservative. c: Standard to which the product was treated. d: All of the above

d: All of the above

Fasteners for pressure treated wood shall be: (R317) a: Hot-dipped, zinc coated galvanized steel. b: Stainless steel. c: 6 inches d: All of the above

d: All of the above

True or False. Approved self-adhered membrane flashings shall be installed where exterior porches or decks attach to a wall of wood-frame construction

True

Deck joists shall be permitted to cantilever not greater than ____ of the actual, adjacent joist span. (R507) a: One-eight b: One-fourth c: One-third d: None of the above

b: One-fourth

Using a 1/2 inch diameter lag screw to fastener a ledger to a band joist, with a joist span of 12 feet, the on-center spacing of the fasteners shall be ___ inches. (R507) a: 15 b: 24 c: 29 d: None of the above

a: 15

The standard depth for a base kitchen cabinet is: a: 18 inches b: 22 inches c: 24 inches d: 36 inches

c: 24 inches

The standard depth for an upper kitchen cabinet is: a: 12 inches b: 15 inches c: 18 inches d: 24 inches

a: 12 inches

Kitchen cabinets are secured to the wall using: a: Two nails through the rail b: Two screws through the rails c: Four nails through the rail d: Three screws through the rails

b: Two screws through the rails

Ceiling tiles are used for: a: Making the room lighter b: Adding color to the room c: A sound deadener d: None of the above

c: A sound deadener

How deep are kitchen cabinets below the counter top? a: 16" b: 20" c: 24" d: 36"

c: 24"

How far above the kitchen floor should the kitchen sink be: a: 26" b: 30" c: 36" d: 42"

c: 36"

Guard openings below the stair-railing should be no longer than ____ in a residential structure: a: 6" b: 4 3/8" c: 12" d: Large enough to egress

b: 4 3/8"

The required guards on raised floor areas, balconies and porches shall not have openings larger than _____ in residential structures: a: 1" b: 2" c: 3" d: 4"

d: 4"

The sum of one rise and one tread of a stair should be about: a: 16" b: 18" c: 20" d: 22"

b: 18"

The complete railing system of a residential stair is called a : a: Newel post b: Filet c: Baluster d: Balustrade

d: Balustrade

The front edge of a stair tread that overhangs the riser is called the: a: Nosing b: Lip c: Overhang d: Newel

a: Nosing

How should base cabinets be installed properly? a: Any wall unit first b: The corner piece where the cabinets will start the bar area c: Start in one of the corners d: It doesn't matter

c: Start in one of the corners

living unit is built directly above a garage. The ceiling in the garage must have: a: 1/2" gypsum board b: 5/8" type X gypsum board or equivalent c: 1/2" type X gypsum board d: None of the above

b: 5/8" type X gypsum board or equivalent

What is the frame that surrounds an interior door called: a: Casing b: Trim c: Door stop d: Jamb

d: Jamb

Most interior doors are manufactured in a thickness of _____. a: 1" b: 1 1/2" c: 1 3/8" d: 1 3/4"

c: 1 3/8"

An accurate and fast way to plumb side jambs of a doorframe is buy use of a ______. a: 4 foot level b: 6 foot level c: Carpenter's square d: Framing hammer

b: 6 foot level

The setback of door casing from the face of the jamb is often referred to as the _____. a: Reveal b: Facing c: Offset d: Chamfer

a: Reveal

Wood used for interior finish should be dried to a moisture content of _____. a: 6 percent b: 8 percent c: 10 percent d: 15 percent

b: 8 percent

The intermediate area between two parts of a flight of stairs is called a _____. a: Platform b: Well c: Landing d: Stoop

a: Platform

What is the maximum height variation between all risers on a stairway? a: 3/8" b: 1/2" c: 3/4" d: 1"

a: 3/8"

True or False. Handrails should be provided on at least one side of stairways with four or more risers.

True

In kitchens that have a soffit above the cabinets, the soffit is usually _____ below the rest of an 8' ceiling. a: 8" b: 10" c: 12" d: 14"

c: 12"

To stiffen floor construction, a builder should: a: Use proper bridging b: Use building paper over subflooring c: Use a steel beam instead of a wood beam d: Use a lot of nails

a: Use proper bridging

A ledger is: a: Part of a window b: A strip for headers to rest on c: A board for joists to fasten to d: An accounting book

c: A board for joists to fasten to

Joists resting on beams or girders must overlap a minimum of how many inches, if they don't run continuous a: 5 b: 4 c: 3 d: 2

c: 3

If joists are to be framed flush with the top of a wood girder, it is best to use: a: Edging strip b: Hangers c: Flushers d: 8D nails

b: Hangers

Bearing walls running above and parallel to the floor joists require that the floor joists be: a: Doubled b: Either a or c c : Laddered d: Replaced

b: Either a or c

In lumber classification, Firsts and seconds (FAS) is best described as: a: Discarded boards suitable for concrete forms and other uses. b: Boards of approximately 8' and 10' lengths. c: Boards with few knots or irregularities d: Exceptionally green lumber prone to heavy shrinkage

c: Boards with few knots or irregularities

What is used over doors/windows openings to transfer superimposed loads to vertical members. a: Ceiling joists b: Rafters c: Headers d: Wall top plates

c: Headers

When floors require bridging, use solid blocking, diagonal wood or metal bracing or a continuous 1 x 3 strip nailed across the bottom of joists for spans over _____. a: 6 feet b: 8 feet c: 10 feet d: 12 feet

b: 8 feet

Rafters and floor joists should be installed with the: a: Crown up b: Bow up c: Crown down d: None of the above

a: Crown up

The maximum size hole that may be bored into a 12" floor joist is: a: 2" b: 3" c: 3 3/4" d: 6"

c: 3 3/4"

For a fire stop, you should not use: a: 3/4" plywood b: 19/32" particle board c: A thickness of two 1" pieces of lumber d: 2" nominal thickness limber

b: 19/32" particle board

The mark C-D stamped on a sheet of plywood refers to the: a: Strength of the plywood b: Stereophonic capability when used in speakers c: Veneer grade d: Construction durability

c: Veneer grade

The lowest horizontal member of a truss is called a: a: Bottom chord b: Brace c: Ceiling joist d: Stay

a: Bottom chord

What is the minimum amount of bearing for the ends of each joist placed over a girder or sill plate? a: 1" b: 1 1/4" c: 1 1/2" d: 1 3/4"

c: 1 1/2"

The name for the metal or wood plate used to strengthen the joints of a truss is: a: Gusset b: Chord c: Metal tie d: None of the above

a: Gusset

In exterior walls and bearing partitions, any wood stud is permitted to be cut or notched toa depth not exceeding ____ of its width. a: 50% b: 40% c: 25% d: None of the above

c: 25%

Holes drilled into floor joists for piping shall not exceed 1/3 of the depth of the joist and: a: Must be closer than 2" to the top or bottom b: Must be in the middle third of the span c: Not in the left or right third of the span d: Not be closer than 2" to the or bottom of the joist

d: Not be closer than 2" to the or bottom of the joist

Plywood testing and rating is performed by: a: APA b: TIOSHA c: IRC/MRC 2000 d: EPA

a: APA

When framing for large openings in the floor, the joist and header should be: a: Notched b: Tripled c: Reinforced d: Doubled

d: Doubled

d: 32" roof sheathing and 16" subflooring

What is meant by the term dead load? a: Weight from immovable objects b: Weight from building materials and permanent mechanical systems c: Weight distributed to the earth d: None of the above

b: Weight from building materials and permanent mechanical systems

A ridge board for rafters shall not be less than ___ inch nominal thickness and not less than the depth of the cut end of the rafter. a: 1 b: 2 c: 3 d: 4

a: 1

What is the maximum notch depth in the middle third of a rafter? a: 1/6 the depth of the rafter b: 1/4 the depth of the rafter c: 1/3 the depth of the rafter d: Never notch the middle third!

d: Never notch the middle third!

True or False. Live load is load produced by the use and occupancy of the building or other structure that does not include constructive or environment loads.

True

For most wood, drying its moisture content to ____ percent does not result in shrinkage. a: 12 b: 20 c: 28 d: None of the above

c: 28

True or False. The most stable lumber is quarter sawn.

True

d: All of the above

An engineered, stress-rated product created by bonding together individual pieces of lumber together to form a beam is called: a: Sheathing b: Rim board c: Glulam d: None of the above

c: Glulam

True or False. Floor joists in baloon framing n a 1 x 4 ribbon that is let in to the inside edge of the studs.

True

A wood floor system is made-up of: a: Floor joist or I joist b: Subflooring c: Posts and beams d: All of the above

d: All of the above

A girder is a structural, horizontal member used to support: a: Masonry b: Posts c: Trusses d: None of the above

c: Trusses

The minimum airspace on the sides of a wood beam in a masonry pocket is ___ inch. a: 1/4 b: 3/8 c: 1/2 d: All of the above

c: 1/2

Name a type of floor joist bridging. a: Cross bridging b: Metal strap c: Solid D: All of the above

D: All of the above

ill seal would be used ___. a: At the bottom of the footing b: At the top of a framed wall. c: Between the top of the foundation wall and the underside of the sill plate. d: None of the above

c: Between the top of the foundation wall and the underside of the sill plate.

Floor joist shall have a minimum bearing on wood or metal of ____ inches or ____ inches on masonry a: 3 and 4 b: 2 and 3 c: 1-1/2 and 3 d: None of the above

c: 1-1/2 and 3

Joist framing from opposite sides of a beam shall be nailed together with a minimum of ____ face nails. a: 3-10d b: 3-8d c: 2-16d d: None o the above

a: 3-10d

A wall plate is the horizontal member at the top or bottom of a wall.

True

The ___ stud is immediately beside and fastened to the jack or trimmer stud. a: Cripple b: King-stud c: Sill d: None of the above

b: King-stud

A bored hole in a stud can be no less than ____ of an inch from the edge from the edge of the stud. a: 5/8 b: 1/2 c: 3/8 d: All of the above

a: 5/8

Using Table R602.3(1), rafters can be fastened to the top plate of a wall with ____ nails. a: 3-10d box b: 3-8d common c: 3-16d box d: none of the above

c: 3-16d box

End joints in double top-plates shall be offset at least ___ inches. a: 24 b: 36 c: 48 d None of the above

a: 24

True or False. Wall bracing can be 1 x 4's let into the top and bottom plates and intervening studs, placed at an angle of not more than 60 degrees and less than 45 degrees from horizontal.

True

Using Table R802.4(2) for a #1 Hem-Fir, 2 x 6 ceiling joists, spaced 16 inches O.C., what is the maximum ceiling joist span? a: 16'-10 in. b: 13'-7 in. c: 8'-9 in. d: None of the above

b: 13'-7 in.

Collar ties are used to prevent unwanted spread in a ____. a: Roof assembly b: Floor system c: Window opening d: None of the above

a: Roof assembly

For a 2 x 8, #1 Hem-fir spaced 16 inches O.C., with a dead load of 20 pounds per SF, what is the maximum rafter span? a: 18'-10 in. b: 12'-11 in. c: 16'-7 in. d: None of the above

c: 16'-7 in.

The ______________ truss is the most common due to tits versatility. a: Scissor b: Piggy-back c: Fink or W d: None of the above

c: Fink or W

Using Table R602.3(1) to fasten a top plate to a stud, what is the fastening requirement? a: 2-16d common b: 3-10d common c: 2-8d common d: None of the above

a: 2-16d common

Using Table R602.3(1), to install 1 inch diagonal brace to stud and plate, what is the fastening requirement? a: 2-16d common b: 3-10d common c: 2-8 d common d: None of the above

c: 2-8 d common

Fire blocking in concealed wall spaces shall be provided vertically at the ceiling and floor levels and horizontally at intervals not exceeding ___ feet. a: 6 b: 8 c: 10 d: All of the above

c: 10

True or False. Fireblocking for stairways shall be provided in concealed spaces between stair stringers at the top and bottom of the run.

True

What is the allowed joist-spacing for live load of 30 psf, #1 Hem-Fir 2 x 10, spanning 16'-3" or less? a: 12 inches b: 16 inches c: 19.2 inches d: 24 inches

b: 16 inches

What is the maximum cantilever for an exterior balcony with a load of 30 psf if the floor is framed with 2 x 12 wood joists 16 inches on center? a: 58 inches b: 72 inches c: 53 inches d: None of the above

b: 72 inches

Typically there is a double plate on the wall frame over: a: Mechanical openings b: Doors c: Window d: All of the above

d: All of the above

d: The top of the bridging is nailed before, and the bottom is nailed after the subfloor is installed.

When framing walls, corner bracing may be: a: Approved metal wind bracing b: 1 x4 wood let-in to the studs c: Wood structural panels d: All of the above

d: All of the above

)The double top plate on a wall is needed to: a: Connect interior partitions with the outside wall b: Stabilize the walls c: Carry roof assemblies d: All of the above

d: All of the above

To secure studs to either the top or bottom plates, how many face nails are used? a: Two 8 D b: Two 16 D c: Two 10 D d: Four 8 D

b: Two 16 D

Diagonal bracing (corner or wind) is normally installed at a ______ degree angle. a: 35 to 45 b: 40 to 50 c: 45 to 60 d: All of the above

c: 45 to 60

The main reason contractors use pre-built trusses: a: Material cost savings b: Labor cost savings c: Trusses can span greater distances without needing a bearing wall d: All of the above

d: All of the above

Shear walls are designed to resist lateral forces such as: a: Wind b: Seismic movement c: A and b d: None of the above

c: A and b

Balloon, post and beam, and platform refer to the three basic kinds of: a: Insulation b: Trusses c: Framing d: Joists

c: Framing

Deflection could be defined as: a: Sway b: Bending c: Shear d: Twist

b: Bending

True or False. Floor joists should be strong enough to carry the load that rests on them, but also be stiff enough to prevent undue deflection.

True

For nailing ceiling joists to the top plate you should use at least: a: Two 8d common b: Two 16 d common c: Three 16 d box d: Three 8 d common

d: Three 8 d common

True or False. Following BCSI recommendations for temporary truss bracing will minimize truss damage and worker safety during construction

True

When preparing to set roof trusses, substantial ___________ of the first truss is critical for the proper installation and safety concerns of the project. a: Ground bracing b: Inspection c: Spacing d: None of the above

a: Ground bracing

In balloon framing, the second floor joists rest on: a: Collar ties b: The ribbon c: Top plate d: Rafters

b: The ribbon

he bottom horizontal member of a wall frame in platform construction is called a: a: Stud b: Cripple c: Bottomplate d: Header

c: Bottomplate

The bottom horizontal member of a wall frame in platform construction is called a: a: Stud b: Cripple c: Bottomplate d: Header

c: Bottomplate

The horizontal member located at the top of a wall frame is called: a: Soleplate b: Top plate c: Header d: Ceiling joist

b: Top plate

When installing wood joist blocking or bridging must be installed when: (R502.7.1) a: When the joist exceed 2" x 8" b: When the joist exceed 2" X 10" c: When the joist exceed 2" X 12" d: When the joist are 8 feet long.

c: When the joist exceed 2" X 12"

Joists shall not be notched: (Figure R502.8) a: Within the middle 1/3rd of the span b: Within the middle 1/2 of the span c: They should not be notched d: Within 12 inches of either end

a: Within the middle 1/3rd of the span

A cricket is used: (Figure R1003.20) a: To join a dormer to a roof b: Between the roof and a chimney c: To join a roof valley d: To strengthen a header

b: Between the roof and a chimney

The ridge board must be at least: (R802.3) a: 1 inch nominal thickness b: As wide as the cut end of the rafter c: 2 inch in nominal thickness d: Both a & b are correct

d: Both a & b are correct

Studs (2x4) carrying roof loads only, may be spaced a maximum of: (R602.3.1) a: 24 inches on center b: 16 inches on center c: 18 inches on center d: 36 inches on center

a: 24 inches on center

Studs (2x4) carrying roof loads only, may be spaced a maximum of: a: 24 inches on center b: 16 inches on center c: 18 inches on center d: 36 inches on center

a: 24 inches on center

Let-in bracing (corner or wind) must be installed at ______ degree angles. a: 35 to 55 b: 40 to 60 c: 45 to 60 d: 45 to 65

c: 45 to 60

A bird's mouth is: a: the elbow at the bottom of a downspout b: the notch cut on the underside of a rafter to fit the top plate c: usually lacking teeth d: all of the above

b: the notch cut on the underside of a rafter to fit the top plate

The required fastening for securing a sole plate to a joist or blocking at braced wall panels is: a: 8d nails, 8" o.c. b: 2-8d nails, 16" o.c. c: 3-10d nails, 10" o.c. d: 3-16d nails, 16" o.c.

d: 3-16d nails, 16" o.c.

What is the minimum size rough framed attic access hole? a: 22" x 22" b: 22" x 24" c: 22" x 30" d: 22" x 32"

c: 22" x 30"

The minimum hall width in a single family dwelling is: a: 30" b: 32" c: 36" d: 38"

c: 36"

The first step in wall framing is to: a: mark stud locations on sole and top plates b: lay out wall locations on the subfloor c: cut all studs to length d: drink a beer and contemplate the first step

b: lay out wall locations on the subfloor

A horizontal framing member that prevents opposing rafter pairs from spreading apart and rafters from bowing in under a load are: a: rafter bracing b: chords c: collar ties d: strong backs

c: collar ties

When using engineered wood products, what action is prohibited without the permission of the manufacturer or registered design professional? (R502.8.2) 1 notching 2 boring holes 3 making cuts 4 all of the above

4 all of the above

At the top of span tables for floor joists, what does L/triangle (symbol) = 360 mean? a: deflection = 1/360th of the span b: kiln dried lumber c: flat-sawn lumber d: quarter-sawn lumber

a: deflection = 1/360th of the span

d: 30 lbs.

When framing an opening in a floor, an opening exceeding ________ requires the header and trimmer joist to be doubled. Associated Answers a: 1 foot b: 2 feet c: 3 feet d: 4 feet

d: 4 feet

All of the following are true regarding the bearing of wood joists on walls or beams in a single family dwelling except: a: minimum bearing of concrete or masonry shall be 5" b: 1 1/2" bearing required on wood or steel c: joist framing from opposite ends shall lap at least 3" d: ribbon strips or joist hangers may be used

a: minimum bearing of concrete or masonry shall be 5"

What is the maximum full allowed span of a 2x8 floor joist in a bedroom of a single family dwelling consisting of spruce-pine-fur, #3 grade, spaced 16"o.c., with a 20 psf Dcad load? a: 8' b: 9' c: 9' 6" d: 12'

c: 9' 6"

Balloon and platform framing have fire-blocking already built in. a: True b: False

b: False

There are two basic types of decks ground-level and_____. a: platform b: elevated c: stepped d: None of the above

b: elevated

A 2x6 southern pine joists spaced 16-inch O.C. can span____feet. a: 6 b: 7'-6" c: 9 d: None of the above

c: 9

When one side of a deck is fastened to a wall, a ledger must be attached to the wall. a: True b: False

a: True

Deck ledgers must be a minimum of ____. (R507) a: 2x4 b: 2x6 c: 2x8 d: All of the above

c: 2x8

Guardrails where required, shall not less than____inches in height. (R312) a: 42 b: 36 c: 34 d: None of the above

a: 42

d: All of the above

Fasteners for pressure treated wood shall be: a: hot-dipped, zinc coated galvanized steel. b: Stainless steel. c: 6 inches d: All of the above

d: All of the above

Approved self-adhered membrane flashings shall be installed where exterior porches or decks attach to a wall of wood-frame construction. a: True b: False

a: True

Deck joists shall be permitted to cantilever not greater than____of the actual, adjacent joist span. (R507) a: one-eight b: one-fourth c: one-third d: None of the above

b: one-fourth

Using a 1/2-inch diameter lag screw to fastener a ledger to a band joist, with a joist span of 12 feet, the on-center spacing of the fasteners shall be____inches. (Table R507) a: 15 b: 24 c: 29 d: None of the above

a: 15

The standard depth for a base kitchen cabinet is: a: 18 inches b: 22 inches c: 24 inches d: 36 inches

c: 24 inches

The standard depth for an upper kitchen cabinet is: 1 12 inches 2 15 inches 3 18 inches 4 24 inches

1 12 inches

Kitchen cabinets are secured to the wall by using: Associated Answers 1 two nails through the rail 2 two screws through the rails 3 four nails through the rail 4 three screws through the rails

2 two screws through the rails

Ceiling tiles are used for: Associated Answers 1 making the room lighter 2 adding color to the room 3 a sound deadener 4 none of the above

3 a sound deadener

How deep are kitchen cabinets below the counter top? Associated Answers 1 16" 2 20" 3 24" 4 36"

3 24"

How far above the kitchen floor should the kitchen sink be? Associated Answers 1 26" 2 30" 3 36" 4 42"

3 36"

Guard openings below the stair-railing should be no larger than _________ in a residential structure: Associated Answers 1 6" 2 4 3/8" 3 12" 4 large enough to egress

2 4 3/8"

The required guards on raised floor areas, balconies and porches shall not have openings larger than _________________ in residential structures: Associated Answers 1 1" 2 2" 3 3" 4 4"

4 4"

The sum of one riser and one tread of a stair should be about: Associated Answers 1 16" 2 18" 3 20" 4 22"

2 18"

The complete railing system of a residential stair is called a: Associated Answers 1 newel post 2 fillet 3 baluster 4 balustrade

4 balustrade

The front edge of a stair tread that overhangs the riser is called the: Associated Answers 1 nosing 2 lip 3 overhang 4 newel

1 nosing

How should base cabinets be installed properly? Associated Answers 1 any wall unit first 2 the corner piece where the cabinets will start the bar area 3 start in one of the corners 4 it doesn't matter

3 start in one of the corners

A living unit is built directly above a garage. The ceiling in the garage must have: Associated Answers 1 1/2" gypsum board 2 5/8" type X gypsum board or equivalent 3 1/2" type X gypsum board 4 none of the above

2 5/8" type X gypsum board or equivalent

What is the frame that surrounds an interior door called? Associated Answers 1 Casing 2 Trim 3 Door stop 4 Jamb

4 Jamb

Most interior doors are manufactured in a thickness of _______________. Associated Answers 1 1" 2 1 1/2" 3 1 3/8" 4 1 3/4"

3 1 3/8"

An accurate and fast way to plumb side jambs of a doorframe is by use of a _____________________. Associated Answers 1 4 foot level 2 6 foot level 3 carpenter's square 4 framing hammer

2 6 foot level

The setback of door casing from the face of the jamb is often referred to as the __________. Associated Answers 1 reveal 2 facing 3 offset 4 chamfer

1 reveal

Wood used for interior finish should be dried to a moisture content of ______________. Associated Answers 1 6 percent 2 8 percent 3 10 percent 4 15 percent

2 8 percent

The intermediate area between two parts of a flight of stairs is called a ______________. Associated Answers 1 platform 2 well 3 landing 4 stoop

1 platform

What is the maximum height variation between all risers on a stairway? Associated Answers 1 3/8" 2 1/2" 3 3/4" 4 1"

1 3/8"

Handrails should be provided on at least one side of stairways with four or more risers. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

In kitchens that have a soffit above the cabinets, the soffit is usually ________ below the rest of an 8' ceiling. Associated Answers 1 8" 2 10" 3 12" 4 14"

3 12"

The air space between brick siding and the plywood sheathing should be: Associated Answers 1 1/2" 2 3/4" 3 1" minimum to 4 1/2" maximum 4 an air space is not required

3 1" minimum to 4 1/2" maximum

To insure that water moisture is not trapped behind brick veneer, small holes are made in the joints of the lowest course of bricks. These holes are called: Associated Answers 1 crying holes 2 weep holes 3 drying holes 4 air holes

2 weep holes

Which brick pattern is the weakest? Associated Answers 1 English 2 Common 3 Stacked 4 Running

3 Stacked

Brick ties should be placed not more than every 32 inches horizontally, and 24 inches vertically so that no more than _____ square feet are supported by one tie. Associated Answers 1 2.67 2 3 3 3.5 4 4.5

1 2.67

)Tooling a masonry joint means applying a______shaped finish. Associated Answers 1 smooth concave 2 raking 3 V shape 4 both A and C

4 both A and C

In an 8" cement block, this measurement refers to: Associated Answers 1 length 2 diagonal size 3 width 4 height

3 width

What type of mortar would best be recommended for exterior, above-grade use? Associated Answers 1 Type M 2 Type S 3 Type N 4 None of the above

3 Type N

A lintel block is what shape? Associated Answers 1 U 2 solid 3 L 4 I

1 U

What ingredient, when increased in mortar, decreases strength but increases workability? Associated Answers 1 sand 2 mortar 3 lime 4 chloride

3 lime

A masonry column that is used to support other structural members is called: Associated Answers 1 pile 2 pilaster 3 sill 4 stud

2 pilaster

A limited access zone shall be established whenever a masonry wall is constructed. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

The passageway in a chimney which allows the smoke and fumes to escape is the: Associated Answers 1 updraft 2 flue 3 damper 4 smoker

2 flue

A 12" masonry block is referring to what? Associated Answers 1 height 2 length 3 width 4 none of the above

3 width

How many concrete blocks are needed to lay one course of 8x8x16 blocks in a wall that is 24 feet long? Associated Answers 1 16 + 2-1/2 corners 2 16 plus 2 full corners 3 32 full blocks 4 36 full blocks

2 16 plus 2 full corners

The center stone in the middle of an arch is called? Associated Answers 1 center stone 2 middle stone 3 key stone 4 arch stone

3 key stone

When constructing a masonry building using block, the ____________ are laid first. Associated Answers 1 lintels 2 starter brick 3 center block 4 corner leads

4 corner leads

Chimneys shall extend at least_____feet higher than any portion of the building within 10 feet, but not less than 3 feet above the highest point where the chimney passes through the roof. (R1001) Associated Answers 1 2 feet 2 16 inches 3 3 feet 4 18 inches

1 2 feet

What is the mortar base used when laying ceramic flooring? Associated Answers 1 construction adhesive 2 thin set 3 carpenters glue 4 liquid nail

2 thin set

How would you thicken mortar that has too much water in it? Associated Answers 1 let it set until it thickens on its own 2 throw it out and start over 3 add proper amount of sand and mortar 4 None of the above

3 add proper amount of sand and mortar

What are the dimensions of a standard modular brick? Associated Answers 1 3-5/8 in. x 8 in. x 2-1/4 in. 2 4 in. x 8 in. x 2-1/2 in. 3 4 in. x 2-2/3 in. x 8 in. 4 None of the above

3 4 in. x 2-2/3 in. x 8 in.

Where would a mason use angle iron? Associated Answers 1 arch 2 sill 3 lintel 4 attic

3 lintel

Why does a brick chimney have a cement cap on it? Associated Answers 1 to keep wind from blowing down it 2 to keep birds from building nests in it 3 to keep moisture from getting between the bricks and the flue 4 to keep water out of the fireplace

3 to keep moisture from getting between the bricks and the flue

When laying bricks, what are the brick ties made of? Associated Answers 1 22 gauge, corrugated, steel strips 2 corrosion resistant sheet metal 3 #8 wire 4 both a. and b.

4 both a. and b.

What is the minimum hearth extension in front of a fireplace with less than 6 sq.ft. of opening? R1001 Associated Answers 1 12" 2 16" 3 18" 4 24"

2 16"

A cavity wall is two wythes of masonry, each of which is at least____inches thick. Associated Answers 1 12 2 8 3 4 4 None the above

3 4

When the fireplace opening is less than 6 sq.ft. the hearth extension must be how much wider on each side than the opening? Associated Answers 1 4" 2 6" 3 8" 4 12"

3 8"

In a reinforced masonry wall, grout should be placed within 1-1/2 hours after water has been added to the mix. Associated Answers 1 2-1/2 2 2 3 1-1/2 4 All of the above

3 1-1/2

Footings for masonry fireplaces and their chimneys shall be at least ____inches thick. R1001 Associated Answers 1 36 2 24 3 12 4 None of the above

3 12

What type of mortar would best be used for non-load bearing partitions? Associated Answers 1 O Type 2 N Type 3 S Type 4 None of the above

1 O Type

When constructing a masonry wall, a limited access zone shall be equal to the height of the wall plus____feet. Associated Answers 1 4 2 6 3 8 4 None of the above

1 4

Backfill shall not be placed against the wall until the wall has sufficient strength and has been anchored to the floor above or has been ___________ _____________ to prevent damage. Associated Answers 1 sufficiently braced 2 waterproofed 3 strength tested 4 seal coated

1 sufficiently braced

Mortar is a mixture of lime, Portland cement, sand and ___________________ . Associated Answers 1 gravel 2 water 3 chloride 4 mud

2 water

When the air temperature is above 80F, mortar should be used within _______ hours after originally mixed. Associated Answers 1 4 2 2 3 2-1/2 4 3

3 2-1/2

Maximum height for a low-lift grout application is ____feet. Associated Answers 1 5 2 8 3 12 4 None of the above

1 5

Masonry units shall be dry before placing. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Concrete blocks are ________ shorter in all dimensions (length, width and height) than the nominal dimensions. Associated Answers 1 1/8" 2 1/4" 3 3/8" 4 1/2"

3 3/8"

)Bracing is required when a masonry wall exceeds ________ while under construction. Associated Answers 1 5' 2 6' 3 7' 4 8'

4 8'

To retemper mortar that has stiffened: Associated Answers 1 add water and thoroughly remix one time 2 add chloride 3 heat to 72 degrees 4 None of the above

1 add water and thoroughly remix one time

In cold weather, to prevent mortar from freezing Associated Answers 1 place sunlamp in front of it 2 add chloride 3 prior to mixing, heat sand and water to produce mortar above 40 degrees 4 None of the above

3 prior to mixing, heat sand and water to produce mortar above 40 degrees

The block which fills the final gap in a course between corners is called the: Associated Answers 1 corner block 2 closure block 3 arch block 4 center stone

2 closure block

A cricket/saddle shall be installed on the up-slope side of a chimney when the chimney width is _____inches or more. Associated Answers 1 24 2 36 3 30 4 None of the above

3 30

Bed joints are horizontal joints. The first course of bed joints can't be less than 1/4" or more than 3/4". Ideally, all joints should be: Associated Answers 1 5/8" 2 1/2" 3 3/4" 4 3/8"

4 3/8"

Wall ties are either #22 gauge galvanized sheet metal or: Associated Answers 1 7 gauge wire 2 8 gauge wire 3 9 gauge wire 4 10 gauge wire

3 9 gauge wire

Cold weather construction provisions shall be implemented when the ambient temperature falls below___. Associated Answers 1 80 degrees 2 60 degrees 3 40 degrees 4 None of the above

3 40 degrees

The firebox shall not be less than ___________ in depth. (R1001) Associated Answers 1 17" 2 18" 3 19" 4 20"

4 20"

Joints in fire brick shall not exceed: Associated Answers 1 1/4" 2 3/8" 3 1/2" 4 9/16"

1 1/4"

The fireplace ____________________ shall be constructed of concrete or masonry and shall be 4 inches minimum in thickness. (R1001) Associated Answers 1 chimney 2 hearth 3 mantel 4 mounting

2 hearth

The throat in the fireplace shall not be less than ___________ above the fireplace opening and shall not be less than 4" in depth. (R1001) Associated Answers 1 6" 2 7" 3 8" 4 9"

3 8"

The minimum allowable bed joint for a starting course on a footing is 1/4" and the maximum allowable is ____________. Associated Answers 1 1/4" 2 1/2" 3 3/4" 4 None of the above

3 3/4"

For masonry veneer weep holes shall be located in the _____course, above finished ground. (R703) Associated Answers 1 3 rd 2 2 nd 3 1 st 4 None of the above

3 1 st

Masonry fireplaces shall be constructed of: (R10010) Associated Answers 1 solid masonry units 2 metal inserts 3 brick and mortar 4 imitation blocks

1 solid masonry units

)When a fireplace lining of firebrick at least 2" in thickness is installed, the total minimum thickness of the back and side wall is _________________, including the firebrick. (R1001) Associated Answers 1 10" 2 6" 3 7" 4 8"

4 8"

Mix 10 parts water to one part ________________________ to remove efflorescence and excess mortar from the face of brick that has recently been laid. Associated Answers 1 muriatic acid 2 turpentine 3 sulfuric acid 4 boric acid

1 muriatic acid

Mortar bearing surfaces of glass block have rough edges to form a good bond with mortar. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Constructing a panel using 8" nominal glass block, with the block being four blocks wide and five blocks high, what should the size of the opening be, in order to maintain the bond of the surrounding blocks in the wall? Associated Answers 1 32-3/8" x 40-3/8" 2 32-3/4" x 40-3/4" 3 32-1/4" x 40-1/4" 4 32-7/8" x 40-7/8"

1 32-3/8" x 40-3/8"

What is the actual size of a nominal 8" square glass block? Associated Answers 1 7-5/8" x 7-5/8" x 3-5/8" 2 7-3/4" x 7-3/4" x 3-7/8" 3 8" x 8" x 4" 4 7-1/2" x 7-1/2" x 3-1/2"

2 7-3/4" x 7-3/4" x 3-7/8"

)What product is a non-corrosive, non-rusting and non-shrinking material that is best used to seal cracks in masonry and concrete? Associated Answers 1 High quality silicon caulk 2 Plaster 3 Hydraulic cement 4 Cement paste

3 Hydraulic cement

What blade would you use to cut brick with? Associated Answers 1 cross cut saw 2 combination blade 3 chisel 4 diamond tip blade

4 diamond tip blade

__________ allows water vapor molecules to pass through, while keeping out liquid rain water. Associated Answers 1 6 mil vapor barrier 2 House wrap 3 Caulking 4 Parging

2 House wrap

Normal density fiberglass is____per inch. Associated Answers 1 2.5 2 3.14 3 3.7 4 all of the above

2 3.14

The most common methods used for measuring heat flow is U-value and R-value. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

The rate of heat flow through a building product is known as____. Associated Answers 1 air leakage 2 R-value 3 U-factor 4 Solar Heat Gain Coefficency

3 U-factor

The lower the U-factor, the more energy efficient the window is. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

For attic ventilation, an airspace of not less than_____inch shall be provided between the insulation and the roof sheathing. Associated Answers 1 2 2 1 3 3 4 4

2 1

The greatest concern for using fiberglass insulation is for the safety of the home occupants. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

2 False

Examples of loose-fill insulation could include: Associated Answers 1 mineral wool 2 perlite 3 vermiculite 4 All of the above

4 All of the above

The advantages of using rigid foam could include: Associated Answers 1 does not cause skin irritation 2 is less expensive than other types of insulation 3 can act as an air barrier 4 a and c

4 a and c

The advantages of using spray foam insulation could include: Associated Answers 1 is less expensive than other insulations 2 fills small gaps 3 seals cavities 4 b and c

4 b and c

Polyicynene is a type of spray foam insulation product that does not shrink or sag. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

List two types of Spray-in-Place insulation. Associated Answers 1 cellulose and slag wool 2 perlite and vermiculite 3 wet-spray cellulose and wet-spray rock wool 4 None of the above

3 wet-spray cellulose and wet-spray rock wool

When handling and installing most insulation products, certain precautions should be followed, such as: Associated Answers 1 Minimize dust generation. 2 Provide proper ventilation. 3 Wear protective clothing. 4 All of the above

4 All of the above

Heat-transfer mechanisms could include: Associated Answers 1 convection 2 conduction 3 radiation 4 All of the above

4 All of the above

Homes with ventilated crawl spaces require a ventilation opening within _________ feet of each corner of a building. Associated Answers 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5

2 3

Ventilated crawl spaces require a minimum of 1 square foot of ventilation opening to every __________ square feet of crawl space floor area. Associated Answers 1 100 2 120 3 150 4 300

3 150

The simplest type of whole-house ventilation system is: Associated Answers 1 ducted central exhaust systems 2 heat recovery systems 3 supply only ventilation fan 4 return air systems

3 supply only ventilation fan

Most bath fan systems will use a ___________ fan. Associated Answers 1 25-CFM to 50-CFM 2 50-CFM to 75-CFM 3 50-CFM to 100-CFM 4 100-CFM to 200-CFM

3 50-CFM to 100-CFM

Central ventilation systems: Associated Answers 1 require more ductwork than other systems 2 are more expensive to install 3 are difficult to retrofit in an existing home 4 all the above

4 all the above

This system pulls exhaust air from bathrooms and kitchens and run it through a heat exchanger to heat or cool incoming air: Associated Answers 1 central ventilation systems 2 return air systems 3 central exhaust systems 4 heat recovery systems

4 heat recovery systems

The minimum net free ventilating area shall be _______ of the vented space. Associated Answers 1 1/75 2 1/100 3 1/150 4 1/300

3 1/150

The most common mistake homeowners make when installing insulation is to: Associated Answers 1 block the flow of air at the eaves 2 to place the installation too close to the rafters 3 to cram the insulation between the studs 4 leave too much space around the rafter vents

1 block the flow of air at the eaves

In Michigan, any air-impermeable insulation must be a _________ vapor retarder. Associated Answers 1 Class I 2 Class II 3 Class III 4 Class IV

2 Class II

Code allows that the ventilation ratio be reduced to 1 square foot of ventilation to ______ square feet when the ground surface is covered with 6 mil polyethylene. Associated Answers 1 500 2 1000 3 1500 4 2000

3 1500

From grade, untreated siding must be a minimum of ___ from the ground. Associated Answers 1 6" 2 8" 3 10" 4 12"

1 6"

On wood siding, what kind of nail would you use? Associated Answers 1 any corrosion resistant nail 2 copper 3 zinc coated 4 tap screw

1 any corrosion resistant nail

What are the names of the three layer of traditional stucco? Associated Answers 1 scratch, brown and finish 2 1st, 2nd and 3rd 3 scratch, green and top 4 none of the above

1 scratch, brown and finish

Housewrap is used as an alternative to felt paper over wall sheathing. It has the ability to allow water vapor to pass through, but not liquid water. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Horizontal joints between courses of beveled siding should ______________ be caulked. Associated Answers 1 Always 2 Never

2 Never

)If stucco is being applied to buildings that are more than one story, ______________________ should be used for exterior walls. Associated Answers 1 balloon framing 2 steel framing 3 treated plywood 4 both A and B

4 both A and B

Stucco should not be applied in temperatures below __________. Associated Answers 1 35 degrees F 2 40 degrees F 3 50 degrees F 4 60 degrees F

2 40 degrees F

Stucco siding requires a _______________ be placed a minimum of 4" above the earth or 2" above paved areas. Associated Answers 1 starter strip 2 furring strip 3 weep screed 4 drainage port

3 weep screed

Exterior insulation finishing systems (EIFS) that are non-drainable are not permitted. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Fiber cement siding shall have a minimum horizontal lap of_______. Associated Answers 1 2 1/2 inches 2 2 inches 3 1 1/4 inch 4 None of the above

3 1 1/4 inch

Stone, slab-type and terra cotta veneers shall be anchored directly to_____. Associated Answers 1 masonry 2 concrete 3 stud construction 4 All of the above

4 All of the above

EIFS not only adds a durable finish to the exterior of a building but also adds insulation to the exterior. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Requirements for swimming pool barriers and enclosures are found in the 2015 International Residential Code Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

2 False

If an above ground pool meets all other requirements, it does no need to have a fence if the walls are over: Associated Answers 1 36 inces 2 40 inches 3 45 inches 4 48 inches

4 48 inches

Lattice and chain link fencing must have ______ maximum opening size. Associated Answers 1 1 inch 2 2 inches 3 1.5 inches 4 1.75 inches

4 1.75 inches

Pools with a powered safety cover are exempt from barrier requirements. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Pool access gates must have the latching device on the pool side and at least _____ inches below the top of the gate. Associated Answers 1 1 inch 2 2 inches 3 3 inches 4 4 inches

3 3 inches

Smoke alarms must be installed: Associated Answers 1 in each bedroom 2 in the immediate vicinity of bedrooms 3 in the basement 4 all the above

4 all the above

If there is more than one smoke alarm in a house, they must all be interconnected. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Most fatalities from carbon monoxide poisoning result from: Associated Answers 1 exhaust systems 2 heaters 3 stoves 4 all the above

4 all the above

Carbon monoxide poisoning is the leading cause of accidental poisoning deaths in the U.S. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Carbon monoxide alarms must be installed: Associated Answers 1 in every room of the dwelling 2 next to the furnace 3 outside each bedroom 4 in any room with a fuel burning appliance

3 outside each bedroom

The main reason for properly sized windows in a bedroom area is: Associated Answers 1 ventilation 2 egress 3 minimizes moisture buildup 4 aesthetics

2 egress

All egress windows above the first floor must have: Associated Answers 1 a net clear opening of 5.7 sq. ft. 2 a minimum net clear opening of 20" width or 24" height 3 a sill height not more than 44 inches above the floor or ground 4 all of the above

4 all of the above

The large egress door must provide a minimum of a 32" wide opening when measured from the face of the door when the door is open 90 degrees to the door stop. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Can there be a door at the top of a stair run if the door does not swing over the stairs? Associated Answers 1 Yes 2 No

1 Yes

Glazing (window area) must be not less than what percent of the floor area? Associated Answers 1 6 2 8 3 10 4 all of the above

2 8

An egress window has an opening 20 inches wide by 24 inches high with the bottom of the opening 44 inches above the floor. Does this window meet code for the first floor? Associated Answers 1 yes 2 no 3 depends on the locale 4 yes, if it is used in a child's bedroom

2 no

)A sleeping room window on the ground level floor shall have a minimum opening of: Associated Answers 1 5.7 square feet 2 4.0 square feet 3 5.0 square feet 4 no minimum on the ground floor

3 5.0 square feet

Where should exterior storm windows be caulked? Associated Answers 1 top only 2 top, both sides and bottom 3 top and both sides 4 should never be caulked

3 top and both sides

A door that slides into the wall is called a __________________. Associated Answers 1 pocket door 2 swinging door 3 French door 4 bifold door

1 pocket door

A bedroom window on the first floor must have: Associated Answers 1 a net clear opening of 5 square feet 2 a minimum net clear opening of 20" width and 24" height 3 a sill no more than 44" above the floor 4 all of the above

4 all of the above

A bedroom on the third floor must have an egress window with a net clear opening of: Associated Answers 1 2 1/2 feet 2 5.0 square feet 3 5.7 square feet 4 no requirement

3 5.7 square feet

The most energy efficient type of glazing is: Associated Answers 1 5/16" crystal glass 2 frosted glass 3 two standard panes with 1/4" dead air space 4 double thick glass

3 two standard panes with 1/4" dead air space

What is the recommended distance from the bottom of the door to the bottom of the bottom hinge? Associated Answers 1 7" 2 8" 3 10" 4 11"

4 11"

What is the recommended distance from the top of the door to the top of the top hinge? Associated Answers 1 7" 2 8" 3 10" 4 11"

1 7"

What is the recommended distance from the top of the door to the top of the top hinge? Associated Answers 1 7" 2 8" 3 10" 4 11"

1 7"

What is the recommended height of the door knob off the floor? Associated Answers 1 34" to 36" 2 36" to 38" 3 38" to 40" 4 40" to 42"

2 36" to 38"

The height of a standard residential door is ______________? Associated Answers 1 6'6" 2 6' 7" 3 6'8" 4 6'9"

3 6'8"

A hopper window is a ___________________. Associated Answers 1 top hinged window 2 window in the laundry room 3 bottom hinged window 4 window that is easy to install and remove

3 bottom hinged window

The trim that is installed around windows and doors is called __________________. Associated Answers 1 casing 2 1/4 round 3 crown molding 4 base molding

1 casing

Solid core doors should: Associated Answers 1 have 2 hinges 2 have 3 hinges 3 be left hand opening only 4 be right hand opening only

2 have 3 hinges

This type of door should have the track installed before the drywall is hung. Associated Answers 1 pocket 2 bifold 3 café 4 bypass

1 pocket

All stairway means of egress doors shall swing _____________________. Associated Answers 1 inward 2 either direction 3 in the direction of egress 4 not specified by the codes

3 in the direction of egress

What is the frame that surrounds the door on three sides called? Associated Answers 1 casing 2 trim 3 door stop 4 jamb

4 jamb

When the finish carpenter hangs a door, how does he know if it is a left or right hand door? Associated Answers 1 when facing the door and the knob is on the left hand side, it is left hand 2 when facing the door and the knob is on the right hand side, it is a right hand 3 door swing is determined by the lumber company 4 The carpenter stands with his back to the hinge side of the door jamb and if the door swings left it is a left hand door

4 The carpenter stands with his back to the hinge side of the door jamb and if the door swings left it is a left hand door

What kind of windows consist of two side-by-side sashes, one is a fixed sash and one is an operating sash (options also include a three sash window with a fixed sash in the middle and an operating sash on either side). Associated Answers 1 double hung 2 glide by or hroizontal sliding 3 Jalousies 4 fixed

2 glide by or hroizontal sliding

)The part of the window that holds the glass is called the __________________. Associated Answers 1 pane 2 casing 3 frame 4 sash

4 sash

All doors ingress and egress including storm doors must have _____________________. Associated Answers 1 plate glass 2 safety glazing 3 single strength glass 4 double strength glass

2 safety glazing

What are the two basic types of skylights? Associated Answers 1 fixed and ventilating 2 double glazed and triple glazed 3 domed and flat 4 glass and plastic

1 fixed and ventilating

On a roof slope facing south or west, the skylight may permit a maximum of "solar heat and radiation gain", which can increase room temperatures and fade rugs and furniture. Placing the unit on an east or north slope will give you adequate light but less direct sunshine. Associated Answers 1 true 2 false

1 true

The large egress door must have a landing on the exterior side. This landing shall not be more than ________________ below the top of the threshold. Associated Answers 1 1 1/2" 2 2" 3 2 1/2" 4 3"

1 1 1/2"

Where there is a stairway with _____ or fewer risers located on an exterior side of a door, a landing is not required (with the exception of the large egress door). Associated Answers 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4

2 2

)Other than the large egress door, landings or risers cannot exceed _______ rise to the threshold. Associated Answers 1 6 1/2" 2 7" 3 7 3/4" 4 8 1/4"

3 7 3/4"

Other than the large exit door, landings or risers cannot exceed ____________________ rise to the threshold. Associated Answers 1 6 1/2" 2 7" 3 7 3/4" 4 8 1/4"

3 7 3/4"

When the fenestration openings are more than 15% of the gross wall area, the U-Value of the windows: (For, U-Value, the lower the number, the more effective it is.) Associated Answers 1 must increase 2 must decrease 3 doesn't matter 4 must double

2 must decrease

What would be the R-Value of a window rated U 0.23? Associated Answers 1 R 3.47 2 R 3.95 3 R 4.0 4 4.34

4 4.34

YOU ARE REPLACING AN EXISTING DOOR: With the door open, stand with your back against the hinge jamb. If your left hand is nearer the doorknob, then the door is __________ . Associated Answers 1 right handed 2 left handed 3 right hand inverted 4 left hand inverted

2 left handed

A ___________ is a metal plate affixed to a doorjamb with a hole or holes for the bolt of the door. Associated Answers 1 lock set 2 jamb 3 stud 4 strike plate

4 strike plate

On ______________ windows both sash in the window frame are operable, meaning they move up and down. The sashes also tilt in for easy cleaning. Associated Answers 1 double hung 2 gliding 3 casement 4 hopper

1 double hung

______________ windows are hinged on the side and open outward to the left or right. Associated Answers 1 double hung 2 hopper 3 casement 4 gliding

3 casement

Three-in-one tab shingles are most commonly found: Associated Answers 1 on flat roofs 2 on roofs over 3 in 12 pitch 3 over old cedar shake shingles 4 none of the above

2 on roofs over 3 in 12 pitch

A square of roofing material is equal to: Associated Answers 1 10 square feet 2 100 square feet 3 25 square feet 4 250 square feet

2 100 square feet

The selection of roofing materials is influenced by such factors as cost, durability, appearance, application methods, and: Associated Answers 1 number of eaves 2 slope of roof 3 eave flashing 4 climate

2 slope of roof

)Wood shingles, when applied to a roof, must be spaced ___________ apart. Associated Answers 1 1/8" 2 1/4" to 3/8" 3 9/16" 4 1/2"

2 1/4" to 3/8"

What must be done where the roof intersects with a wall? Associated Answers 1 shingle up to the wall 2 use metal step flashing between the shingles 3 use felt paper 4 nothing, this isn't a problem

2 use metal step flashing between the shingles

The trim board applied to the lower edge of a sloping roof before applying the roof surface material is called the _____. Associated Answers 1 gutter 2 drip edge 3 fascia 4 starter strip

3 fascia

The purpose of a ____ is to divert the flow of water and prevent ice and snow build-up behind the chimney. Associated Answers 1 saddle 2 fascia 3 drip edge 4 starter strip

1 saddle

A soffit is: Associated Answers 1 used to keep water from dripping onto windows 2 used to carry the load over doors and windows 3 used to adjust the fit of doors in jambs 4 the underside of a roof or porch overhang

4 the underside of a roof or porch overhang

Underlayment: Associated Answers 1 protects the sheeting from moisture until shingles are laid. 2 provides additional weather protection by preventing wind-driven rain. 3 prevents contact between shingles and resinous areas in the sheathing. 4 all of the above.

4 all of the above.

)Three tab shingles require a minimum of how many nails per strip? Associated Answers 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 6

3 4

What is often used for base flashing around chimneys? Associated Answers 1 asphalt-impregnated sheeting 2 sheet metal 3 cap flashing 4 none of the above

2 sheet metal

The lower edge of a shingle is called: Associated Answers 1 exposure 2 head lap 3 side lap 4 shingle butt

4 shingle butt

The distance (in inches) between the edge of one course and the next higher course. Associated Answers 1 exposure 2 head lap 3 coverage 4 shingle butt

1 exposure

Indicates the amount of protection provided by the third layer of overlapping shingles. Associated Answers 1 head lap 2 side lap 3 coverage 4 exposure

1 head lap

The shortest distance from the lower edge of an overlapping shingle to the upper edge of a shingle in the second course below. The triple coverage portion of the toplap of strip shingles is called: Associated Answers 1 coverage 2 exposure 3 head lap 4 shingle butt

3 head lap

Cornices are classified according to which types? Associated Answers 1 gable, hip, and flat 2 boxed, close, and open 3 crown, lap and drip 4 rake, box and eave

2 boxed, close, and open

The fascia is: Associated Answers 1 a boxed cornice at the junction of the soffit and wall 2 a wood member used for the outer surface of a boxed cornice 3 decorative trim on an interior wall 4 a small joist supporting a light ceiling load

2 a wood member used for the outer surface of a boxed cornice

The principle member of valley roof construction is called a: Associated Answers 1 valley rafter 2 hip rafter 3 valley beam 4 valley jack

1 valley rafter

The usual size of an asphalt shingle is: Associated Answers 1 16" deep x 36" wide 2 12" deep x 36" wide 3 100 square feet 4 6" deep by 12" wide

2 12" deep x 36" wide

The most common type of wood shingles are usually graded: Associated Answers 1 No 1, 2 or 3. 2 A, B, and C. 3 standard, utility and premium 4 short, medium and long

1 No 1, 2 or 3.

The minimum roof pitch with one layer underlayment, which will accept asphalt shingles is: Associated Answers 1 1 in 12 2 2 in 12 3 4 in 12 4 only on a flat roof

3 4 in 12

The part of a roof most likely to leak due to water or snow pressure is the: Associated Answers 1 flashing 2 gutter 3 valley 4 ridge

3 valley

The roof rake is: Associated Answers 1 the sloped end of the roof that overhangs the gable end 2 the part of the roof that overhangs the drip edge walls 3 used only to rake leaves 4 is not part of the roof system

1 the sloped end of the roof that overhangs the gable end

Minimum pitch for asphalt shingled roofs with double underlayment is: Associated Answers 1 1:12 2 2:12 3 3:12 4 4:12

2 2:12

When the roof pitch is less than 4 in 12: Associated Answers 1 aluminum nails should be used. 2 ice dams will not usually form. 3 roll roofing is prohibited. 4 roll roofing is recommended.

4 roll roofing is recommended.

How many bundles of shingles equal a square of roofing? Associated Answers 1 two 2 three 3 six 4 eight

2 three

Which of these should not be used as solid sheathing for wood shingles? Associated Answers 1 asphalt rolls 2 matched 1" boards 3 unmatched boards 4 plywood

1 asphalt rolls

Nails for fastening asphalt shingles usually are: Associated Answers 1 cement coated 2 copper 3 iron 4 galvanized

4 galvanized

At the eave ice and water shield must be installed to a point that is: Associated Answers 1 one row high 2 12" above the interior wall line when projected through the roof sheathing 3 24" inside the interior wall line when projected through the roof sheathing 4 two rows high

3 24" inside the interior wall line when projected through the roof sheathing

When nailing roof shingles to 5/8" roof sheathing: Associated Answers 1 the nails should penetrate through the sheathing 2 the nails should be 5/8" in length 3 should not penetrate through the roof sheathing 4 the nails should be ring shank to keep them from pulling out

1 the nails should penetrate through the sheathing

Wood shingles and shakes shall not be installed on roof slopes below: Associated Answers 1 2:12 2 3:12 3 4:12 4 5:12

2 3:12

How far is the drip edge overhang for cedar shakes? Associated Answers 1 1/2" 2 3/4" 3 1 1/2" 4 2 1/4"

3 1 1/2"

What is the maximum number of layers of asphalt shingles on a roof? Associated Answers 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 whatever is needed to keep the roof from leaking

2 2

On an open valley, it is O.K. to use which of the following materials? Associated Answers 1 metal 2 3 in 1 tab shingles 3 ice and water shield 4 double felt

1 metal

What is the minimum amount of overlap for felt paper? Associated Answers 1 3" 2 8" 3 4" 4 2"

4 2"

On a built up roof covering a wood deck, how do you attach the first layer? Associated Answers 1 heat 2 nail down felt paper 3 hot tar 4 use ice and water shield

2 nail down felt paper

The difference between wood shingles and cedar shakes is? Associated Answers 1 shakes are rough sawed and hand split 2 wood shingles are man made 3 shakes are made on a machine 4 wood shingles are all the same size

1 shakes are rough sawed and hand split

The term "steep roof" as defined by OSHA is referring to a roof slope above: Associated Answers 1 4 in 12 2 6 in 12 3 8 in 12 4 10 in 12

1 4 in 12

What is the minimum width of sheet metal used in an open valley for a 1- to 2-family dwelling? Associated Answers 1 18" 2 20" 3 22" 4 24"

4 24"

What is the minimum roof pitch for metal roof panels that have nonsoldered seams w/o lap sealant? Associated Answers 1 2/12 2 3/12 3 4/12 4 5/12

2 3/12

What is the minimum roof slope of a built-up roof with the use of coal-tar? Associated Answers 1 1" to 12" 2 1/2" to 12" 3 1/4" to 12" 4 1/8" to 12"

4 1/8" to 12"

What is the minimum air space requirement between insulation and the roof sheathing at or near the eave in the attic space? Associated Answers 1 1/2" 2 1" 3 1 1/2" 4 2"

2 1"

What is the minimum rough opening requirement for access to an attic space? Associated Answers 1 20" x 32" 2 24" x 34" 3 20" x 30" 4 22" x 30"

4 22" x 30"

Can asphalt shingles be installed on a 2-in-12 or 3-in-12 roof pitch? Associated Answers 1 Yes 2 No 3 Yes, if 2 layers of 15 lb. felt is used as underlayment 4 None of the above

3 Yes, if 2 layers of 15 lb. felt is used as underlayment

Avoid using the open valley method where two roofs forming a valley have considerably different slopes. Associated Answers 1 true 2 false

1 true

When nailing shingles near a valley keep fasteners ______ away from the centerline of the valley. Associated Answers 1 3 inches 2 4 inches 3 5 inches 4 6 inches

4 6 inches

The closed-cut valley can be used with all types of strip shingles but the woven closed valley is only recommended with ______ shingles. Associated Answers 1 no-cutout 2 3-tab 3 multi thickness 4 laminated

2 3-tab

Where two roofs forming a valley have considerably different slopes and the open valley method cannot be avoided, be sure to use metal valley flashing with a splash diverter and water guards. Associated Answers 1 true 2 false

1 true

The ________ is the part of the roof where leaks are most likely to happen. Associated Answers 1 eave 2 hip 3 valley 4 rake

3 valley

When flashing a valley without metal where a lap joint is needed, lap the upper section over the lower section by at least ______ inches. Associated Answers 1 6 2 8 3 10 4 12

4 12

When flashing a valley with metal where a lap joint is needed, lap the upper section over the lower section by at least ______ inches. Associated Answers 1 6 2 8 3 10 4 12

1 6

Step flashing is also a base flashing. Associated Answers 1 true 2 false

1 true

Chimneys require both base flashing and counter flashing (also called cap flashing). Associated Answers 1 true 2 false

1 true

Code requires that if a chimney's width down slope from a ridge is more than 30 inches in width, a cricket or saddle must be installed, but it is recommended they be installed at a width greater than ________ inches. Associated Answers 1 18 2 20 3 24 4 26

3 24

Roof shingles are rated for fire resistance. They are classified as either A, B, or C. Which classification has the highest fire resistance? Associated Answers 1 A 2 B 3 C

1 A

The most common amount of exposure for asphalt shingles is: Associated Answers 1 4 inches 2 5 inches 3 6 inches 4 7 inches

2 5 inches

To get a neat, professional look, taper the lap portion of hip and ridge with shingles that have been salvaged from scraps and full shingles as needed. Associated Answers 1 true 2 false

1 true

Where a roof intersects with a wall, the roof underlayment should be carried up the wall 3 to 4 inches and ________ must be used as the shingles are installed. Associated Answers 1 cap flashing 2 step flashing 3 counter flashing 4 none of the above

2 step flashing

Asphalt shingles have a base mat of tough asphalt-saturated roofing felt or fiberglass. Associated Answers 1 true 2 false

1 true

The drip edge for wood shingles and shakes should extend past the eave fascia. Associated Answers 1 1/2 inch 2 3/4 inch 3 1 inch 4 1 1/2 inches

4 1 1/2 inches

Wood shakes should be spaced ________ apart to allow for expansion. Associated Answers 1 1/4 to 3/8 inches 2 3/8 to 1/2 inches 3 3/8 to 5/8 inches 4 1/2 to 3/4 inches

3 3/8 to 5/8 inches

Wood shingles and shakes should be from _______ in width. If the shake or shingle is too wide, split it with a roofer hatchet. Associated Answers 1 2 to 6 inches 2 2 to 7 inches 3 3 to 8 inches 4 5 to 10 inches

3 3 to 8 inches

Wood shingles and shakes require a side lap of _____ or more. Associated Answers 1 1 inch 2 1 1/2 inches 3 2 inches 4 2 1/2 inches

2 1 1/2 inches

Valley flashing for wood shingles shall be minimum 26 gauge corrosion resistant sheet metal and shall extend _______ from the centerline each way for roof slopes 12 and 12 or less. Associated Answers 1 7 inches 2 9 inches 3 10 inches 4 12 inches

3 10 inches

Valley flashing for wood shakes shall be minimum 26 gauge corrosion resistant sheet metal and shall extend _______ from the centerline each way. Associated Answers 1 8 inches 2 10 inches 3 11 inches 4 12 inches

3 11 inches

The building code prohibits the use of wood shingles or shakes on roof slopes below 3 in 12, but it is recommended that _____ be the least slope for shakes. Associated Answers 1 3 1/2 in 12 2 4 in 12 3 5 in 12 4 6 in 12

2 4 in 12

A drip edge should be installed under the underlayment at the eave and over the underlayment at the rake. Associated Answers 1 true 2 false

1 true

Wood shingles and shakes can be installed over solid sheathing or spaced sheathing. It is required that only solid sheathing be used in areas of the country where the mean temperature in January is: Associated Answers 1 40F or less 2 30F or less 3 25F or less 4 20F or less

3 25F or less

With the exception of areas in the country with moderate to severe hail exposure, asphalt shingled roofs are permitted to be covered over with new shingles __________. Associated Answers 1 once 2 twice 3 three times 4 all of the above

1 once

What type of fastener would typically be used to fasten drywall to metal framing? (R702.3.5.1) Associated Answers 1 Pan head screws 2 Bugle head type S screws 3 8d commons 4 10d commons

2 Bugle head type S screws

1/2 inch gypsum material can be used for draft-stopping in construction where required. (R302.12.1) Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

The purpose of fire blocking is to Associated Answers 1 support mounted fixtures 2 provide added support for structural members 3 cut-off concealed draft openings between stories 4 None of the above

3 cut-off concealed draft openings between stories

Maximum spacing of framing members for 1/2 inch and 5/8 inch gypsum panels are designed for use on framing centers up to (Table R702.3.5) Associated Answers 1 16 inch 2 19 inch 3 24 inch 4 None of the above

3 24 inch

Durock cement board could be used for Associated Answers 1 Floor underlayment 2 Countertops 3 Wall tile 4 All of the above

4 All of the above

Abuse resistant panels are engineered to provide increased resistance to Associated Answers 1 Indentations 2 Light reflection 3 Weather 4 None of the above.

1 Indentations

Green faced gypsum panels would be used to reduce resistance to Associated Answers 1 Cold 2 Mold 3 Abuse 4 All of the above

2 Mold

Firecode Type X gypsum board would be used best for Associated Answers 1 installation of wall tile. 2 Exterior use. 3 most fire-rated assemblies. 4 None of the above.

3 most fire-rated assemblies.

Cold-formed steel framing supporting gypsum panels shall not be less than____inches. (R702.3.3) Associated Answers 1 1-3/4 2 1-1/2 3 1-1/4 4 1-1/8

3 1-1/4

For gypsum board ceilings, perimeter edges shall be blocked using wood members not less than _____nominal dimension material. (R702.3.6) Associated Answers 1 3/4 inch OSB 2 2 inch x 4 inch wood 3 2 inch x 6 inch wood 4 All of the above

3 2 inch x 6 inch wood

Water-resistant gypsum board shall not be used where there will be direct exposure to water. (R702.3.7.1) Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Two ingredients for as quality plaster job are quality products and skilled craftspeople. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Durock cement board could be used for Associated Answers 1 Floor underlayment 2 Counterops 3 Wall tile 4 All of the above

4 All of the above

Installation of plaster and lath shall conform to ASTM ____and ASTM ____. (Table 2511.1.1) Associated Answers 1 C842, C843 2 C926, C1063 3 C842, C754 4 None of the above

2 C926, C1063

Gypsum board can be used as a backer for cement plaster. (2510.2.1) Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

2 False

Plastering with cement plaster shall not be less than____coats when applied over metal lath. (2512.1) Associated Answers 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4

3 3

The curing time between the first and second coat of cement plaster shall be a minimum of____hours. (Table 2512.6) Associated Answers 1 48 2 24 3 12 4 None of the above

1 48

Plaster not used within____hours from the start of initial mixing shall be discarded. (ASTM C926) Associated Answers 1 1 2 1 1/2 3 2 4 2 1/2

2 1 1/2

Before any finished flooring is installed the subsurface should be properly prepared. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Concrete floors should have a minimum compressive strength of____psi. (R402) Associated Answers 1 2000 2 2500 3 3500 4 None of the above

3 3500

It is always best to use a curing compound over freshly finished concrete when the floor will require adhesives for finished floor products. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

2 False

An underlayment could be any of the following. Associated Answers 1 Plywood 2 Hardboard 3 Cement board 4 All of the above

4 All of the above

Carpet is sold by the which method. Associated Answers 1 Square foot 2 Total area of the project 3 Square yard 4 None of the above

3 Square yard

When is a good time to grout a new tile surface? Associated Answers 1 As soon as possible 2 Within two hours 3 24 hours 4 All of the above

3 24 hours

)If you are installing a 12-inch by 12-inch tile, a good border width would be___inches. Associated Answers 1 1/2 2 1 3 1 1/2 4 8

4 8

It is not recommended to use latex paint when the temperature may drop below____Fahrenheit. Associated Answers 1 50 2 45 3 40 4 None of the above

1 50

Knots in wood should be sealed with ____________________ to prevent stains from coming through the paint. Associated Answers 1 caulk 2 shellac or stain blocking primer 3 laquer 4 any of the above

2 shellac or stain blocking primer

When painting the exterior of a building, the outdoor temperature must stay above ___________ for at least 24 hours after oil based paints are applied. Associated Answers 1 33 degrees F 2 40 degrees F 3 45 degrees F 4 50 degrees F

2 40 degrees F

________________is a technique that is a desirable finishing method when installing woodwork over concrete floors.. Associated Answers 1 Alligatoring 2 Boxing 3 Back-priming 4 none of the above

3 Back-priming

All paints contain these three elements: Associated Answers 1 water, pigment, vinyl 2 oil, binder, acrylic 3 pigment, binder, carrier 4 acrylic, vinyl, lead

3 pigment, binder, carrier

_______________ paint has a higher proportion of binder than standard paint. This enables it to hold particularly well to unpainted wood. Associated Answers 1 primer 2 latex 3 oil based 4 acrylic

1 primer

All wood finishes fall into two basic categories: Associated Answers 1 Film forming and penetrating 2 Oil based and latex 3 Solid and transparent 4 None of the above

1 Film forming and penetrating

All species of wood accept paint about the same. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

2 False

Wall and ceiling finishes shall have a flame spread index of not greater than____. Associated Answers 1 450 2 250 3 200 4 None of the above

3 200

If cracking and alligatoring are a problem on a painted surface, a likely cause is _________________________________. Associated Answers 1 not enough drying time between coats 2 moisture in the wood 3 alternate swelling and shrinking of wood 4 none of the above

1 not enough drying time between coats

All multiple job site injuries requiring in-patient hospitalization or a fatality must be reported to ____________________ within eight hours of the accident. (OSHA CFR 1904.39) Associated Answers 1 OSHA 2 Health Department 3 county coroner 4 local building inspector

1 OSHA

OSHA requires that all construction companies have an accident prevention program. (1926.20(b)) Associated Answers 1 true 2 false 3 the employees make the program 4 OSHA provides the plan to the construction companies

1 true

All companies with ________________ or more employees must keep OSHA injury and illness records. (1904.1) Associated Answers 1 6 or more 2 10 or more 3 12 or more 4 none of the above

2 10 or more

Scaffolding should not be erected or dismantled except under the supervision of: (1926.451(f)(7) Associated Answers 1 a competent authority 2 OSHA 3 the local building inspector 4 BOPR

1 a competent authority

A OSHA compliance officer would be most likely to check which of the following? Associated Answers 1 whether the building permit is accurate and up to date 2 whether tennis shoes are being worn by the workers 3 if the builder is in compliance with the minimum wage law 4 all of the above

2 whether tennis shoes are being worn by the workers

Failure to report job site injuries to OSHA could result in: Associated Answers 1 fines and imprisonment 2 a 50% M.E.S.C. assessment in the following quarter 3 a 15% increase in F.I.C.A. withholding and employer matching taxes. 4 all of the above

1 fines and imprisonment

OSHA stands for: Associated Answers 1 Occupational Safety and Health Act 2 Occupational Standard and Health Act 3 Occupational Safety and Health Administration 4 Occupational Security and Health Advisory

3 Occupational Safety and Health Administration

OSHA requires that all job site injuries be recorded by the employer within: (1904.29(b)(3)) Associated Answers 1 one calendar day 2 three calendar days 3 seven calendar days 4 thirty calendar days

3 seven calendar days

When a ladder is used to gain access to the roof, it should extend above the roof eave: (1926.1053(b)(1)) Associated Answers 1 1 foot 2 2 feet 3 3 feet 4 4 feet

3 3 feet

Which of the following materials would be best for finishing a wood ladder? (1926.1053(a))12 Associated Answers 1 varnish 2 paint 3 enamel 4 duct tape

1 varnish

A ladder should be placed against the building so that the lower end is approximately: (1926.1053(b)(5)(i)) Associated Answers 1 1/3rd the length of the ladder 2 1/4th the length of the ladder 3 1/5th the length of the ladder 4 OSHA has no rule

2 1/4th the length of the ladder

A ladder is extended 24'and leaned against a wall. How far from the wall must the base of the ladder be? (1926.1053(b)(5)(i)) Associated Answers 1 5' 2 6' 3 8' 4 10'

2 6'

The minimum width of a scaffold platform is __________. (1926.451(b)(2) Associated Answers 1 14 inches 2 16 inches 3 18 inches 4 20 inches

3 18 inches

What is the amount of overlap for the boards you walk on when you are on scaffolding? (1926.451(b)(7) Associated Answers 1 4" 2 8" 3 12" 4 16"

3 12"

What is the minimum distance that a ladder should extend above the roof edge? Associated Answers 1 1' 2 18" 3 2' 4 3'

4 3'

What is the first thing you do when you receive a citation from OSHA? (1903.16(a)) Associated Answers 1 Stop and repair or make corrections 2 post the citation 3 fill it out and return it 4 wait for final papers from OSHA

2 post the citation

The front of the platform of a scaffold shall not be more than ______________ from the work surface unless a guardrail system is erected (1926.451(b)(3)) Associated Answers 1 10 inches 2 12 inches 3 14 inches 4 16 inches

3 14 inches

The scaffold plank platform shall extend over the centerline of its support at least _______ inches. (1926.451(b)(4)) (but not more than 12 inches) Associated Answers 1 two 2 three 3 four 4 six

4 six

Each employee engaged in residential construction activities ________________ or more above the lower levels shall be protected by a guardrail system, safety net system or personal fall arrest system. (1926.501(b)(2)(ii)) Associated Answers 1 three feet 2 six feet 3 eight feet 4 ten feet

2 six feet

Guardrail systems shall be capable of withstanding a force of at least __________ in any outward or downward direction. (1926.502(b)(3)) Associated Answers 1 100 lbs. 2 200 lbs. 3 300 lbs. 4 500 lbs.

2 200 lbs.

All employees working in areas where exposure to lead is possible should be educated in proper safety procedures. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

It is considered safe to remove leaded paint if wearing an approved respirator. (1926.62(g)) Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

2 False

By law, it is a requirement to post signs warning people of both asbestos and lead exposure. (1926.62(m)) Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

What is the minimum illumination intensity in areas where construction work is being performed? (1926.56 NOTE: Shop environments must be at least 10 foot candles) Associated Answers 1 Three foot candles 2 Five foot candles 3 Seven foot candles 4 Thirty foot candles

2 Five foot candles

A supply of potable water shall be available to employees in all places of employment. Containers for drinking water shall be constructed of impervious, non-toxic materials and clearly marked as to its contents, and _____________________________________________. (1926.51(a) Associated Answers 1 shall not be used for any other purpose 2 must be dark blue 3 must be in at least one-gallon containers 4 none of the above

1 shall not be used for any other purpose

Dipping from a container or drinking from a common cup is prohibited. (1926.51(a)) Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

in areas where 911 is not available the numbers of physicians, hospitals and ambulances shall be conspicuously posted. (1926.50(f)) Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

If an excavation is _________________________ or more in depth and occupied by an employee, a ladder must be provided that extends not less than three feet from the top of the hole if no ramp is provided. (1926.651(c)) Associated Answers 1 36" 2 42" 3 48" 4 60"

3 48"

Guardrail toprails for scaffolds shall be how high? (1926.451(g)(4)(ii)) Associated Answers 1 36" 2 38 inches to 45 inches above the platform 3 40" 4 42" +/- 3 inches

2 38 inches to 45 inches above the platform

Employers must make available for employees in a readily accessible manner _____________________ for those hazardous chemicals in their workplace. (1910.1200(g)) Associated Answers 1 Material safety data sheets (MSDS) 2 helmets 3 oxygen masks 4 funnels

1 Material safety data sheets (MSDS)

Employers are required to have material safety data sheets (MSDS) in the workplace for each hazardous chemical that is used in the workplace. (1910.1200(g)) Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Powder actuated tools are tools that provide forced entry of fastening material through the use of _____________________ loads. (1926.302(e)) Associated Answers 1 explosive 2 air pressure 3 electric 4 hand

1 explosive

Powder actuated tools shall be tested each ____________________ before loading to see that safety devices are in proper working order. (1926.302(e)) Associated Answers 1 time 2 day 3 week 4 month

2 day

Impact tools such as drift pins, chisels, wedges or hammers must be kept free of ___________________. (1926.301(c)) Associated Answers 1 rust 2 oil 3 mushroomed heads 4 splinters

3 mushroomed heads

When benching soil, a vertical rise shall not be more than ___________________ and the step back shall reach to at least the angle of repose. (1926 Subpart P Appendix B) Associated Answers 1 4 feet 2 5 feet 3 6 feet 4 7 feet

2 5 feet

Ladder jacks shall not be used on heights more than ___________________ feet. The span between jacks shall not exceed 8 feet. (1926.452(k)) Associated Answers 1 15 2 16 3 20 4 22

3 20

OSHA requires a minimum of one _____ fire extinguisher for each 3,000 square feet of building area. The fire extinguisher must be available within 100 feet of any point. (1926.150(c)(1)(i)) Associated Answers 1 4C 2 2A 3 light duty 4 working

2 2A

This personal protective equipment is not required to be provided by the employer: (1926.95(d)(5)(ii)) Associated Answers 1 general use work gloves 2 general use work shoes and boots 3 general use steel toed footwear 4 all of the above

4 all of the above

OSHA record keeping forms must be used for contractors who employ 11 or more people. The 3 forms are 300-Log, 300A-Annual Summary, and the 301-Incident Report. The annual summary must be posted by the employer for employee viewing between: (1904.32) Associated Answers 1 Jan 1 and June 30 annually 2 Feb 1 and April 30 annually 3 Jan 1 and March 30 annually 4 June 1 and Sept 30 annually

2 Feb 1 and April 30 annually

If a OSHA Compliance Officer is refused entry to a construction worksite to perform an inspection, the division director of OSHA will seek a warrant from the court and return with an officer of the law. (1903.3) Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Lead abatement is defined as any measure or set of measures designed to permanently remove or cover lead-based paint or hazards. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

The person responsible for lead-safe practices on the job must be a ____________ . Associated Answers 1 Certified Renovator 2 trained non-certified renovation worker 3 Certified Trainer 4 Approved Training Provider

1 Certified Renovator

Under the RRP Rule, Certified Firms MUST: Associated Answers 1 give homeowners copies of the Renovate Right pamphlet 2 notify all the neighbors within 100 yards 3 maintain records for at least 1 year 4 all of the above

1 give homeowners copies of the Renovate Right pamphlet

X-Ray Fluorescence Testing requires a specially trained Certified Lead Inspector or Certified Lead Risk Assessor. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

__________ is what is required under the RRP Rule to prevent dust and debris from spreading beyond the work area to non-work areas. Associated Answers 1 Precaution 2 Restriction 3 Control 4 Containment

4 Containment

The RRP Rule prohibits the use of power sanding, grinding, planning and cutting without the use of a __________ device attached. Associated Answers 1 plastic guard 2 HEPA filtered vacuum 3 ventilation 4 any of the above

2 HEPA filtered vacuum

The same level of personal protection is not necessary during the planning, testing or setup phases of the work when lead is not being disturbed. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

Electric power tools are best used with a wet method of dust control. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

2 False

The last step in an effective lead dust clean-up will be to ____________ . Associated Answers 1 pick up all visible paint chips 2 visually inspect the work area 3 remove warning signs 4 bag all waste

3 remove warning signs

Always fold the sheeting material _____________ . Associated Answers 1 dirty side in 2 clean side in 3 in a neat square 4 with a gooseneck tie

1 dirty side in

After a visual inspection, either a Certified Renovator must perform a cleaning verification or other professionals must conduct a ___________. Associated Answers 1 clearance examination 2 visual test 3 X-ray fluorescence test 4 airborne lead test

1 clearance examination

Records must be maintained on all of the following EXCEPT: Associated Answers 1 target housing-individual units 2 target housing-common areas 3 all public facilities 4 child-occupied facilities

3 all public facilities

It is a good idea to make a list of each lead safe practical skill covered for each individual non-certified worker. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

1 True

The rinse water from the clean-up activity may be dumped on the ground as long as it is 50 feet away from the building. Associated Answers 1 True 2 False

2 False

)Which of the following is NOT a prohibited practice according to the RRP Rule? Associated Answers 1 high speed grinding 2 open flame torching 3 using a heat gun over 1,100 degrees 4 using a circular saw with an attached HEPA device

4 using a circular saw with an attached HEPA device

Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Practice Test Flashcards

Brainscape's Knowledge Genome^TM