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BLOOD BANK > PRACTICE TEST 1, 2 & 3 > Flashcards

PRACTICE TEST 1, 2 & 3 Flashcards

1
Q

WHAT TYPE OF TESTING DOES THE
BLOOD BANK TECHNOLOGIST PERFORM
WHEN DETERMINING BLOOD GROUP
OF A PATIENT?

A. Genotyping
B. Phenotyping
C. Both genotyping and phenotyping
D. Polymerase Chain Reaction

A

B. Phenotyping

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2
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE?

A. An individual with the AB genotype is homozygous
for A and B
B. An individual with the BO genotype is homozygous
for B
C. An individual with the OO genotype is
heterozygous for O
D. An individual with the BB genotype is homozygous
for B

A

D. An individual with the BB genotype is

homozygous for B

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3
Q

WHICH GENOTYPE IS HETEROZYGOUS
FOR C?

A. DCE/DCE
B. Dce/dce
C. dCE/dCe
D. Dce/dCe

A

D. Dce/dCe

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4
Q 
WHICH GENOTYPE(S) WILL GIVE RISE
TO THE BOMBAY PHENOTYPE?

A. HH only
B. HH and Hh
C. hh only
D. Hh and hh

A

C. hh only

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5
Q 
LEXIE’S BLOOD TYPE IS AB. WHICH OF
THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBES THE
EXPRESSION OF MOST BLOOD GROUP
ANTIGENS?
A. Dominant
B. Codominant
C. Recessive
D. Corecessive
A

B. Codominant

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6
Q 
MEREDITH’S BLOOD TYPE IS AO AND
HER HUSBAND, DEREK IS BO. WHAT
BLOOD TYPE IS NOT POSSIBLE FOR
THEIR OFFSPRING?
A. AB
B. A OR B
C. O
D. ALL ARE POSSIBLE
A

D. ALL ARE POSSIBLE

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7
Q 
THE ALLEGED FATHER OF A CHILD IN A
DISPUTED CASE OF PATERNITY IS
BLOOD GROUP AB. THE MOTHER IS
GROUP O AND THE CHILD IS GROUP O.
WHAT TYPE OF EXCLUSION IS THIS?
A. Direct/primary/ first order
B. Random
C. Probabiity
D. Indirect/ secondary/ second order
A

D. Indirect/ secondary/ second order

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8
Q

IgM ANTIBODIES HAVE THE ABILITY TO
DIRECTLY AGGLUTINATE RBCs AND
CAUSE VISIBLE AGGLUTINATION, WHY
IS THIS SO?
A. IgM antibodies are larger molecules and have the ability to
bind more antigen
B. IgM antibodies tend to clump together more readily to
bind more antigen
C. IgM antibodies are found in greater concentrations than
IgG molecules
D. IgM antibodies are not limited by subclass specificity

A

A. IgM antibodies are larger molecules and have the ability

to bind more antigen

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9
Q

RANJIT’S SERUM IS INCOMPATIBLE WITH O CELLS.
HIS RBCs GIVE A NEGATIVE REACTION TO ANTI-H
LECTIN. WHAT IS THE MOST LIKELY CAUSE OF THESE
RESULTS?
A. The patient may be a subgroup A
B. The patient may have an immunodeficiency
C. The patient may be a Bombay individual
D. The patient may have developed alloantibodies

A

C. The patient may be a Bombay individual

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10
Q 
WHAT ANTIBODIES ARE FORMED BY A BOMBAY
INDIVIDUAL?
A. Anti-A and Anti-B
B. Anti- A,B
C. Anti- A, anti-B and anti-H
D. Anti-H
A

C. Anti- A, anti-B and anti-H

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11
Q 
ACQUIRED B ANTIGENS HAVE BEEN FOUND IN?
A. Group A persons
B. Bombay individuals
C. Group O
D. All blood groups
A

A. Group A persons

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12
Q

A PATIENT’S RBC FORWARD TYPES AS GROUP O BUT
THE SERUM AGGLUTINATES B CELLS (4+). YOUR
NEXT STEP WOULD BE?
A. Extend reverse typing for 15 mins
B. Perform an antibody screen, including a room temperature
incubation
C. Incubate washed red cells with Anti-A1 and anti-A,B for
thirty mins at room temperature
D. Test patient’s cells with Dolichos biflorus

A

C. Incubate washed red cells with Anti-A1 and anti-A,B for

thirty mins at room temperature

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13
Q 
WHICH BLOOD GROUP HAS THE LEAST AMOUNT OF
H ANTIGEN?
A. A1B
B. A2
C. B
D. A1
A

A. A1B

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14
Q 
TED’S GENOTYPE IS Dce/dce. HOW IS HE
CLASSIFIED?
A. Rh positive
B. Rh negative
C. Rh null
D. Rh stallion
A

A. Rh positive

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15
Q 
TESTING FOR Rh ANTIBODIES ARE USUALLY??
A. IgM
B. IgM and IgG
C. IgG
D. IgA
A

C. IgG

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16
Q 
WHAT TECHNIQUES ARE NECESSARY FOR WEAK D
TESTING?
A. Saline + 22°C incubation
B. Albumin or LISS + 37°C incubation
C. Saline + 37°C incubation
D. 37°C incubation + IAT
A

D. 37°C incubation + IAT

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17
Q

PENNY IS SUSPECTED OF HAVING PCH. WHICH
PATTERN OF REACTIVITY IS CHARACTERISTIC OF THE
DONATH-LANDSTEINER ANTIBODY?
A. The antibody attaches to RBCs at 4°C and causes
hemolysis at 37° C
B. The antibody attaches to RBCs at 37° C and causes
agglutination at the IAT phase
C. The antibody attaches to RBCs at 22 ° C and cause
hemolysis at 37° C
D. The antibody attaches to RBCs and causes agglutination at
the IAT phase

A

A. The antibody attaches to RBCs at 4°C and causes

hemolysis at 37° C

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18
Q 
HOW CAN INTERFERING ANTI-P1 ANTIBODY BE
REMOVED FROMA MIXTURE OF ANTIBODIES?
A. Neutralization with saliva
B. Agglutination with human milk
C. Combination with urine
D. Neutralization with hydatid cyst fluid
A

D. Neutralization with hydatid cyst fluid

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19
Q

AN ANTIBODY SHOWS STRONG REACTIONS IN ALL TEST
PHASES. ALL SCREEN AND PANEL CELLS ARE POSITIVE. THE
SERUM IS THEN TESTED WITH A CORD CELL AND THE
REACTION IS NEGATIVE. WHAT ANTIBODY IS SUSPECTED?
A. Anti-i
B. Anti-I
C. Anti-H
D. Anti-p

A

B. Anti-I

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20
Q 
WHICH GROUP OF ANTIBODIES ARE COMMONLY FOUND
AS COLD AGGLUTININS?
A. Anti-K, anti-k and anti-Jsb
B. Anti-D, anti-e, anti-C
C. Anti- fya, anti-Fyb
D. Anti-M and anti-N
A

D. Anti-M and anti-N

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21
Q 
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ANTIBODIES
CHARACTERISTICALLY GIVES A REFRACTILE MIXED-FIELD
APPEARANCE?
A. Anti-Sda
B. Anti-s
C. Anti-K
D. Anti-Dia
A

A. Anti-Sda

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22
Q

An emergency trauma patient requires transfusion. 6 units of blood are ordered stat. because of hypovolemia, blood extraction was difficult and was not able to submit sample. O negative blood is released. When will compatibility testing be performed?
A. Compatibility testing must be performed before blood is
issued.
B. Compatibility testing will be performed when a patient
sample is available
C. Compatibility testing may be performed immediately using
donor serum
D. Compatibility testing is not necessary when blood is
released in emergency situations.

A

B. Compatibility testing will be performed when a patient sample is available

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23
Q

CAN CROSSMATCHING BE PERFORMED ON OCTOBER 14
USING A PATIENT SAMPLE DRAWN ON OCTOBER 12?
A. Yes, a new sample would not be needed
B. No, a new sample is needed because the 2 day limit has
expired
C. No, a new sample is needed for each testing
D. The discretion is based on the ordering physician

A

A. Yes, a new sample would not be needed

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24
Q

A MAJOR CROSSMATCH AND SCREENING CELLS ARE 2+ AT
IS, 1+ AT 37°C AND NEGATIVE AT THE IAT PHASE. IDENTIFY
THE MOST LIKELY PROBLEM?
A. Combination of antibodies
B. Cold alloantibody
C. Rouleaux
D. Test error

A

B. Cold alloantibody

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25
Q 
WHAT CORRECTIVE ACTION SHOULD BE TAKEN WHEN ROULEAUX CAUSES POSITIVE TEST RESULTS?
A. Perform saline replacement procedure
B. Perform an autoadsorption
C. Run a panel
D. Perform an elution
A

A. Perform saline replacement procedure

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26
Q

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE REASONS FOR PERFORMING
AN ADSORPTION, EXCEPT?
A. Removal of interfering antibodies
B. Separation of mixtures of antibodies
C. Confirmation of weak antigens on red cells
D. Identification of antibodies causing positive DAT

A

D. Identification of antibodies causing positive DAT

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27
Q

HOW LONG MUST A RECIPIENT SAMPLE BE KEPT IN THE
BLOOD BANK FOLLOWING COMPATIBILITY TESTING?
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 10 days

A

C. 7 days

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28
Q 
WHAT ARE THE PRETRANSFUSION REQUIREMENTS FOR
AN AUTOLOGOUS TRANSFUSION?
A. ABO and Rh typing
B. Type and screen
C. Major Crossmatch
D. All of the above
A

A. ABO and Rh typing

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29
Q

Patient Sloan is AB+. 2 units of blood have been ordered
by the physician. Currently the inventory shows, 0 AB
units, 10 A+ units, 1 A- unit, 5 B+ units and 20 O+ units.
Which should be set up for the major crossmatch.?
A. A+
B. O+
C. B+
D. Call blood supplier for type specific blood

A

A. A+

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30
Q

A PATIENT HAD A TRANSFUSION REACTION. THE MT ON DUTY BEGAN THE LABORATORY INVESTIGATION. WHAT SHOULD BE DONE FIRST?
A. Perform DAT on the posttransfusion sample
B. Check for clerical error
C. Repeat ABO and Rh typing of patient and donor unit
D. Perform antibody screen on the post transfusion sample

A

B. Check for clerical error - major cause of transfusion

related deaths

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31
Q

A PATIENT HAS HEMOLYTIC REACTION TO BLOOD
TRANSFUSED 8 DAYS AGO, WHAT IS THE MOST LIKELY
CAUSE?
A. Immediate, non immunological, probably caused by
volume overload
B. Delayed immunological, probably due to an antibody such
anti Jka
C. Delayed immunological, probably a result of an iron overload
D. Immediate, immunological probably due to a clerical error

A

B. Delayed immunological, probably due to an antibody such

anti Jka – Kidd antibodies are common cause for HTR

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32
Q 
WHAT MAY BE FOUND IN THE SERUM OF A PERSON WHO
IS EXHIBITING SIGNS OF TRALI?
A. Red blood cell alloantibody
B. IgA antibody
C. Antileukocyte antibody
D. allergen
A

C. Antileukocyte antibody

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33
Q

THIS TYPE OF TRANSFUSION REACTION OCCURS IN ABOUT
1% OF ALL TRANSFUSIONS AND RESULTS IN A 1°C
TEMPERATURE RISE OR HIGHER. NOT RELATED TO PATIENT
MEDICAL CONDITION?
A. Immediate hemolytic
B. Delayed
C. Febrile nonhemolytic reaction
D. Transfusion related acute lung injury

A

C. Febrile nonhemolytic reaction

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34
Q

WHAT WOULD BE THE RESULT OF GROUP A BLOOD GIVEN
TO A GROUP O PATIENT?
A. Non immune transfusion reaction
B. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
D. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

A

B. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction

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35
Q

A SHIPMENT OF PACKED RBCs, PLATELETS AND
LEUKOCYTE REDUCED RBCs ARRIVED IN THE SAME
CONTAINER AT 1-6°C. WHAT SHOULD BE DONE?
A. Refrigerator
B. Reject the shipment
C. Prepare the RBCs for freezing
D. Accept red cell products, return or discard the platelets

A

D. Accept red cell products, return or discard the platelets

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36
Q

A UNIT OF WHOLE BLOOD IS COLLECTED AT 10:00 AM
AND STORED AT 20-24°C. WHAT IS THE LAST HOUR
PLATELET CONCENTRATE MAY BE MADE FROM THIS UNIT?
A. 4:00 PM
B. 6:00 PM
C. 7:00 PM
D. 8:00 PM

A

B. 6:00 PM - platelets prepared from whole blood must be processed within 8 hours of collections

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37
Q 
SHELDON COOPER HAS CHRONIC GRANULOMATOUS
DISEASE. WHAT IS THE COMPONENT OF CHOICE FOR THIS
PATIENT?
A. FFP
B. Granulocytes
C. Cryoprecipitate
D. RBCs
A

B. Granulocytes

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38
Q

WHAT SHOULD BE DONE IF A NOTICEABLE CLOT IS FOUNF
IN AN RBC UNIT?
A. Issue the unit, the blood will be filtered
B. Issue the unit, note the presence of clot on the release
form
C. Filter the unit in the blood bank before issue
D. Do not issue the unit

A

D. Do not issue the unit

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39
Q 
WHAT COMPONENT IS INDICATED FOR PATIENTS WHO
HAVE ANTI IgA antibodies?
A. Whole blood
B. Packed RBC
C. Washed or deglycerolized RBCs
D. Granulocyte concentrate
A

C. Washed or deglycerolized RBCs

40
Q 
WHAT COMPONENT MAY NOT BE PREPARED IF WHOLE
BLOOD IS SPUN AT 1-6°C?
A. Packed RBCs
B. Platelets
C. Leukocyte-reduced RBC
D. FFP
A

B. Platelets

41
Q

HOW SHOULD UNITS OF PLATELETS CONCENTRATE?
A. At room temperature, lying horizontally
B. At 35-36°C, with constant agitation
C. Stored upright, at 20-24°C away from direct sunlight
D. 20-24°C with constant agitation

A

D. 20-24°C with constant agitation

42
Q 
WHAT PERCENTAGE OF RED CELLS MUST BE RETAINED IN
LEUKOCYTE-REDUCED RED CELLS?
A. 80%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 50%
A

C. 85%

43
Q 
WHAT COMPONENTS MAY BE SHIPPED TOGETHER WITH
FFP?
A. Frozen RBCs and cryoprecipitate
B. Platelets
C. Packed RBCs and granulocytes
D. Double red cell
A

A. Frozen RBCs and cryoprecipitate

44
Q 
WHICH COMPONENT HAS THE LONGEST EXPIRATION
DATE?
A. Cryoprecipitate
B. FFP
C. Frozen RBCs
D. Platelet concentrate
A

C. Frozen RBCs

45
Q 
WHAT IS THE EXPIRATION TIME OF CRYOPRECIPITATE
ONCE POOLED USING AN OPEN SYSTEM?
A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 24 hours
A

A. 4 hours

46
Q 
WHAT IS THE EXPIRATION TIME OF CRYOPRECIPITATE
ONCE POOLED USING AN CLOSED SYSTEM?
A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 24 hours
A

B. 6 hours – if closed system

47
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INDIVIDUALS IS ACCEPTABLE AS A BLOOD DONOR?
A. 29 years old man who received the hepatitis B vaccine last
week
B. 21 year old woman who has had nose pierced last week
C. 30 year old man who lived in Palawan for years and
returned to Tacloban last month
D. 54 year old man who tested positive for HCV

A

A. 29 years old man who received the hepatitis B vaccine last week

48
Q

WHAT SHOULD BE DONE WHEN A WOMAN WHO IS 24
WEEKS PREGNANT HAS A POSITIVE ANTIBODY SCREEN?
A. Perform an antibody identification panel, titer if
necessary
B. No need to do anything until 30 week AOG
C. Administer RhIg prophylactically
D. Adsorb the antibody onto antigen-positive cells

A

A. Perform an antibody identification panel, titer if

necessary

49
Q 
KERNICTERUS IS CAUSED BY THE EFFECT OF?
A. Anemia
B. Unconjugated bilirubin
C. Antibody specificity
D. Antibody titer
A

B. Unconjugated bilirubin

50
Q 
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING TESTS ARE ROUTINELY
PERFORMED ON A CORD BLOOD SAMPLE, EXCEPT?
A. Forward typing ABO
B. Antibody screen
C. Rh typing
D. DAT
A

B. Antibody screen

51
Q 
WHAT MARKER IS THE FIRST TO APPEAR IN HEPATITIS B
INFECTION?
A. Anti-HBc (IgM)
B. HbsAg
C. Anti-HBs
D. Anti-HBc (IgG)
A

B. HbsAg

52
Q 
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE REQUIRED TESTS ON DONOR
BLOOD,EXCEPT?
A. HBsAg
B. Anti CMV
C. Anti HIV
D. Anti HTLV I/II
A

B. Anti CMV

53
Q 
THIS TYPE OF ANTIBODY RESPONSE IS ANALOGOUS TO AN
ANAMNESTIC ANTIBODY REACTION?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. anaphylactic
A

B. Secondary

54
Q 
Which of the following would be a
cause for deferral?
A. Temperature of 37 ° C
B. Pulse rate of 97 bpm
C. BP of 110/70
D. Hematocrit level of 37%
A

D. Hematocrit level of 37%

55
Q 
Which of the following would not be
a cause for permanent deferral?
A. Individual living in Palawan
B. Positive hepatitis C test result
C. Positive HTLV-I antibody
D. Positive anti-HBc result
A

A. Individual living in Palawan

56
Q 
Immunization for rubella would
result in a temporary deferral for?
A. 4 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
A

A. 4 weeks

57
Q 
Once thawed FFP must be transfused
within?
A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 24 hours
A

D. 24 hours

58
Q 
1 unit of whole blood raises the
hemoglobin \_\_ and hematocrit \_\_?
A. 2 g/dL – 2%
B. 1 g/dL – 3 %
C. 5 g/dL – 3%
D. 2 g/dL – 1 %
A

B. 1 g/dL – 3 %

59
Q 
Which of the following lists the
correct shelf-life for the component
A. Deglycerolized RBCs – 24 hours
B. RBC (CPD) – 35 days
C. Platelet concentrate – 7 days
D. FFP – 5 years
A

A. Deglycerolized RBCs – 24 hours

60
Q 
Mary recently received a live
attenuated vaccine for typhoid, her
deferral should be
A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 2 weeks
D. 4 weeks
A

C. 2 weeks

61
Q

You are the intern assigned to interview
a potential donor. He disclosed that he
currently takes Ciprofloxacin. What
should you do
A. Donor is permitted to donate
B. Neglect this information and proceed with donation
C. Defer Temporarily and advise donor to complete his
prescription
D. Defer temporarily, instruct donor to stop meds and come
back the following day for donation

A

C. Defer Temporarily and advise donor to complete his

prescription

62
Q

Ross had a severe burn injury 10
months ago and needed skin grafting,
will he be able to donate blood?
A. Yes, because being a recipient of skin graft is not a
contraindication to blood donation
B. Temporary deferral for 3 months
C. Temporary deferral for 12 months after the skin graft
procedure
D. Permanent deferral because there is already a break in skin
barrier that may foster bacterial growth and sepsis

A

C. Temporary deferral for 12 months after the skin graft

procedure

63
Q 
What is the minimum hemoglobin
requirement for an autologous donor?
A. 12 g/dL
B. 11 g/dL
C. 10 g/dL
D. 11.5 g/dL
A

B. 11 g/dL

64
Q 
The most common anticoagulant used
in apheresis ?
A. Acid citrate dextrose
B. EDTA
C. Heparin
D. Any of the above
A

A. Acid citrate dextrose

65
Q 
Which of the following can be given to
an apheresis donor to increase the
number of circulating granulocytes?
A. DDAVP
B. Hydroxyethyl starch
C. Immune globulin
D. G-CSF
A

D. G-CSF

66
Q 
Whole blood using ACD has a shelf-life
of?
A. 35 days
B. 21 days
C. 42 days
D. 30 days
A

B. 21 days

67
Q 
Blood component of choice for patients
who are immunocompromised, such as
chemo patients?
A. RBCs irradiated
B. Whole blood
C. Packed RBCs
D. Sedimented RBCs
A

A. RBCs irradiated

68
Q

A potential donor takes aspirin as his
maintenance medication, is he a
suitable donor for platelet pheresis?
A. Yes, this medication does not affect platelet activity
B. No, this medication inhibits platelet function

A

B. No, this medication inhibits platelet function

69
Q 
Of the following, which blood type is
selected when a patient cannot wait for
ABO-matched RBCs?
A. A
B. B
C. O
D. AB
A

C. O

70
Q 
Irradiated granulocytes are stored at _
with a shelf life ?
A. 1-6 °C , 2 weeks
B. -18 °C, 1 year
C. 20-24 °C, 24 hours
D. 20-24 °C, 5 days
A

C. 20-24 °C, 24 hours

71
Q 
Which fluid should be used to dilute
RBCs?
A. 0.9% saline
B. 5% dextrose
C. Immune globulin
D. Lactated Ringer’s solution
A

A. 0.9% saline

72
Q 
Considered as the leading cause of
transfusion related fatalities?
A. TRALI
B. Bacterial infection
C. ABO incompatibility
D. STD through blood transfusion
A

A. TRALI

73
Q 
Transfusion reactions are classified
according to?
A. Signs or symptoms presenting during or after 24 hours
B. Immune or non immune
C. Infectious or non infectious
D. All of the above
A

A. Signs or symptoms presenting during or after 24 hours

74
Q 
TRALI present with the following?
A. Respiratory distress
B. Severe hypoxemia and hypotension
C. Fever
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

75
Q

A patient had the following lab results after work
up for a transfusion reaction, DAT +, decreased
hemoglobin, increased LDH, increased bilirubin,
decreased haptoglobin?
A. Acute immune mediated hemolytic transfusion reaction
B. Acute nonimmune mediated hemolytic transfusion
reaction
C. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
D. TRALI

A

A. Acute immune mediated hemolytic transfusion reaction

76
Q 
What component is most frequently involved
with transfusion associated sepsis?
A. Plasma
B. PRBC
C. Platelets
D. Wholeblood
A

C. Platelets

77
Q 
Fatal transfusion reactions are mostly caused by?
A. Serologic errors
B. Improper storage of blood
C. Clerical errors
D. Improper handling of the product
A

C. Clerical errors

78
Q 
Which of the following is characteristic of iron
over load?
A. Delayed, nonimmune complication
B. Chelating agents are used
C. Multi organ damage may occur
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

79
Q 
RhIg is indicated in which of the following
circumstances?
A. Mother D positive, infant D-positive
B. Mother D-negative, infant D-positive
C. Mother D- positive, infant D-negative
D. Mother D-negative, infant D-negative
A

B. Mother D-negative, infant D-positive

80
Q 
Which of the following blood groups reacts best
with an anti-H?
A. O
B. A1
C. B
D. A2
A

A. O

81
Q 
What is the confirmatory test for syphilis?
A. RPR
B. VDRL
C. FTA-ABS
D. Any of the above
A

C. FTA-ABS

82
Q 
The hemoglobin/hematocrit level of an allogenic
blood donor should be atleast?
A. 12.5 g/dL, 38%
B. 12 g/dL, 37%
C. 13 g/dL, 42%
D. 10.5 g/dL, 36%
A

A. 12.5 g/dL, 38%

83
Q 
Considered as a marker for high infectivity?
A. HBeAg
B. HBsAg
C. Anti HBs
D. Anti HBe
A

A. HBeAg

84
Q

An ABO type on a patient gives the ff rxns:
Forward
Anti-A = 4+
Anti-B = 4+

Reverse
A1 cells= (-)
B cells = (-)

A. O
B. A
C. B
D. AB

A

D. AB

85
Q 
The major immunoglobulin class(es) of anti B in a group A
individual is are?
A. Ig M
B. Ig G
C. Ig M and Ig G
D. IgM and Ig A
A

A. Ig M

86
Q

The immunodominant sugar responsible for blood group A
specificity
A. L-fucose
B. N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
C. D-galactose
D. Uridine diphosphate N-acetyl-D-galactose

A

B. N-acetyl-D-galactosamine

87
Q

An ABO type on a patient gives the ff. rxns:

ptx cells w/
Anti-A= 4+
Anti-B= 4+

ptx serum w/
A1 cells = 2+
B cells = (-)

A. A1 with acquired B
B. A2B with anti-A1
C. AB with increased concentrations of protein in serum
D. AB with an autoantibody

A

B. A2B with anti-A1

88
Q 
Category of ABO discrepancy wherein there is unexpected
reactions in the reverse grouping
A. Group I discrepancy
B. Group II discrepancy
C. Group III discrepancy
D. Group IV discrepancy
A

A. Group I discrepancy

89
Q 
Rh antibodies react best at what temperature
A. 22°C
B. 18°C
C. 15°C
D. 37°C
A

D. 37°C

90
Q 
Convert (rr) Weiner nomenclature to Fisher-race
nomenclature
A. DCe/dce
B. dce/dce
C. DcE/DcE
D. dCe/dce
A

B. dce/dce

91
Q

Which of the following characteristics best describes
Lewis antibody
A. IgM, naturally occuring, caused HDFN
B. IgM, naturally occuring, do not cause HDFN
C. Ig G, in vitro hemolysis, cause hemolytic transfusion reaction
D. Ig, G, in vitro hemolysis, do not cause hemolytic transfusion reaction.

A

B. IgM, naturally occuring, do not cause HDFN

92
Q 
Which blood group system is associated with resistance to
P.vivax malaria
A. P
B. Kell
C. Duffy
D. Kidd
A

C. Duffy

93
Q 
Which of the following blood groups are known for showing
dosage
A. I
B. P
C. Kidd
D. Lutheran
A

C. Kidd

94
Q 
Which antibody is a commonly associated with delayed
hemolytic transfusion reaction
A. Anti-s 
B. Anti- k. 
C. Anti-Lua 
D. Anti-Jka
A

D. Anti-Jka

95
Q 
McLeod syndrome includes the following clinical
manifestations, except
A. Abnormal RBC morphology
B. Neurological abnormalities
C. Muscular abnormalities
D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

96
Q

A weakly reactive antibody with a titer of 128 is neutralized
by plasma. Which of the following could be the specificity
A. Anti-JMH = John Milton Hagen system
B. Anti-Ch = Chido/Rodgers system
C. Anti-Kna = Knops System
D. Anti-Kpa= Kell system

A

B. Anti-Ch = Chido/Rodgers system

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