Practice Test #1 Flashcards
You are working at the service desk when a customer calls up and complains that their laptop’s monitor looks strange. When pressed for further details, they state that there are black bars on the left and right sides of the screen and that the image appears squashed and distorted. What is MOST likely the cause of this issue?
a) Incorrect display resolution
b) Bad video card
c) External RF interference
d) Incorrect color depth
a) Incorrect display resolution
This is likely a screen resolution problem. Each LCD/LED has a native resolution that fits perfectly on the screen. If a resolution other than the native resolution is used, the screen could become squished, distorted, or have black vertical or horizontal lines filling up the excess space. For example, most laptops operate as a 16:9 or 16:10 aspect ratio. Older VGA monitors relied on a 4:3 aspect ratio using 1024x768 pixels whereas newer monitors use a 16:9 ratio at 1920x1080 pixels.
An organization needs to run a Windows-based inventory application on a Linux-based infrastructure. Which of the following solutions would BEST meet this requirement?
a) Install the application on a remote Windows server and access it via RDP
b) Utilize an application virtualization tool
c) Use a Type 1 hypervisor to run Windows VMs
d) Dual-boot Windows and Linux on the infrastructure
b) Utilize an application virtualization tool
OBJ 4.1: Using an application virtualization tool (such as Wine) is the best choice because it allows Windows applications to run directly on Linux without needing a full Windows installation, reducing complexity and costs. Dual-booting does not allow simultaneous use of both operating systems. Type 1 hypervisors require additional system resources and management. A remote server solution adds network dependency and potential latency.
Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct?
a) The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than 2.4 GHz
b) The 5.0 GHz frequency has fewer channels available then 2.4 GHz
c) The 5.0 GHz frequency is more effectice at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHz
d) The 5.0 frequency has a longer wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levels
a) The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than 2.4 GHz
The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference. The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The longer wavelength gives it the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels. The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency.
Jason’s laptop display appears to be extremely dim. He set the brightness to the highest level and attempted to adjust the control, but the image still appears extremely dim. Jason notices that if he points his smartphone’s flashlight at the screen, then he can see the image better. Which of the following components on the laptop should he replace to fix this issue?
a) Inverter
b) LCD panel
c) Graphics card
d) Digitizer
a) Inverter
The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop’s display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.
Which of the following is an advantage of using the 6GHz Wi-Fi frequency band over the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands?
a) Greater range and better wall penetration
b) Less interference and higher data speeds
c) Compatibility with older Wi-Fi devices
d) Lower power consumption for connected devices
b) Less interference and higher data speeds
OBJ 2.2: The 6GHz Wi-Fi frequency band offers less interference because it is a relatively new band with fewer devices operating in it, leading to higher data speeds due to increased bandwidth availability and wider channels. However, it has a shorter range and lower wall penetration, whereas the 2.4GHz band is better suited for longer distances and obstacles. 6GHz is only supported by newer Wi-Fi 6E and Wi-Fi 7 devices, lacking backward compatibility with older standards. The higher frequency requires more power to maintain stable connections, potentially leading to increased power consumption.
Which of the following types of hard drives would be used in a gaming laptop to increase the system’s boot-up performance while providing a large amount of storage at a lower overall cost?
a) Hybrid drive
b) Magnetic drive
c) Optical drive
d) SSD
a) Hybrid drive
A hybrid hard drive (SSHD) is a storage drive that combines the large storage capacity of an HDD with the faster read/write speed of an SSD. The majority of the drive uses a spinning disk and actuator arm, like a traditional magnetic drive, but it also contains a small SSD (solid-state drive) as part of the combined hybrid drive unit. This allows data to be written to either the SSD portion (for data accessed more frequently like the OS and programs) while using the HDD portion to store larger amounts of rarely accessed files (such as photos and video files). Hybrid hard drives constantly monitor the data retrieved from storage, and it automatically determines which data you open the most. It places the files that you use most often on the SSD to read/write that data faster. A magnetic drive is a traditional hard disk drive (HDD). A hard disk drive (HDD) is a device providing persistent mass storage for a workstation or laptop by saving data even when the computer is turned off. Data is stored using platters with a magnetic coating that are spun under disk heads that can read and write to locations on each platter known as sectors. A solid-state drive (SSD) is a personal computer storage device that stores data in non-volatile special memory instead of on disks or tape. An optical drive is a storage device that uses a CD, DVD, or Blu-Ray disc to store and retrieve data.
A user reports that their mobile device has become significantly slower over time. Upon inspection, you discover that the device still uses a traditional HDD. What is the MOST effective upgrade to improve the performance of the device?
a) Replace the HDD with an SSD
b) Increase the RAM
c) Upgrade the device to a faster CPU
d) Defragment the HDD
a) Replace the HDD with an SSD
OBJ 1.1 - Replacing the hard disk drive with a solid-state drive is the best solution to improve performance. Solid-state drives offer much faster data read and write speeds compared to traditional hard disk drives, which can significantly boost overall responsiveness. While adding more RAM or upgrading the processor may also enhance performance, they are not as impactful in this specific scenario. Defragmentation is a maintenance task that will not provide the same level of improvement as upgrading to a solid-state drive.
A user is complaining that the touchscreen on their smartphone is not responding to their touch. What is the FIRST step you recommend to solve this issue?
a) Replace the defective touchscreen
b) Reinstall the OS
c) Enable and disable airplane mode
d) Have the user restart the device
d) Have the user restart the device
If a smartphone’s touchscreen is unresponsive, the first step is to restart (or reboot) the device. This will cause the operating system and its device drivers to be reloaded and normally restore the touchscreen’s functionality if it is a software issue. If this doesn’t work, the technician may need to reinstall the OS if it is a software issue. If it is a hardware issue, then the touchscreen would need to be replaced. Airplane mode should not affect the touchscreen’s operation.
Dion Training wants to install a network cable to run a television signal between two buildings. Which of the following cable types should it utilize?
a) Fiber
b) Shielded
c) Plenum
d) Coaxial
d) Coaxial
A coaxial cable is a cable used to transmit video, communications, and audio. A coaxial or coax cable is most commonly used as a cable to connect a TV to a cable TV service. Coaxial cables are a specialized type of copper cabling that uses a copper core to carry the electrical signal while being enclosed by plastic insulation and shielding to protect the data transmission from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). An optical fiber consists of an ultra-fine core of glass to carry the light signals surrounded by glass or plastic cladding, which guides the light pulses along the core, and a protective coating. The fiber optic cable is contained in a protective jacket and terminated by a connector. Fiber optic cables use light signals to carry data across a cable at extremely high bandwidths.
Samantha works in the human resource department in an open floorplan office. She is concerned about the possibility of someone conducting shoulder surfing to read sensitive information from employee files while accessing them on her computer. Which of the following physical security measures should she implement to protect against this threat?
a) Badge reader
b) Biometric lock
c) Privacy screen
d) Hardware token
c) Privacy screen
A privacy screen is a filter placed on a monitor to decrease the viewing angle of a monitor. This prevents the monitor from being viewed from the side and can help prevent shoulder surfing. The standard type of anti-glare filter consists of a coating that reduces the reflection from a glass or plastic surface. A biometric lock is any lock that can be activated by biometric features, such as a fingerprint, voiceprint, or retina scan. Biometric locks make it more difficult for someone to counterfeit the key used to open the lock or a user’s account. A smart card is a form of hardware token. A smart card, chip card, or integrated circuit card is a physical, electronic authorization device used to control access to a resource. It is typically a plastic credit card-sized card with an embedded integrated circuit chip. In high-security environments, employee badges may contain a smart card embedded chip that must be inserted into a smart card reader to log in or access information on the system. A badge reader is used to read an employee’s identification badge using a magnetic stripe, barcode, or embedded RFID chip.
Your boss has asked you to select the technology for a new wireless network for the office. She stated that the new network must allow users to connect their laptops, smartphones, and tablets wirelessly. The technology selected should utilize the longest range possible without signal loss, using a 5GHz frequency. Which of the following wireless technologies should be selected to meet these requirements?
a) 802.11b
b) 802.11n
c) 802.11g
d) 802.11ac
d) 802.11ac
To meet these requirements, you should recommend 802.11ac because it allows for faster speeds than wireless b, g, and n, and it provides the longest ranges of the options provided. The 802.11ac can reach 115 feet (35 meters) using 8 MIMO streams for higher bandwidth, or up to 230 feet (70 meters) using only 4 MIMO streams to provide greater coverage at a lower bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds.
The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth.
The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps.
The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps.
John connected his MacBook to the corporate network and is trying to print to the office’s large network printer. John notices that the print job is failing to print. The other employees in the office are having no issues printing from their Windows workstations. Which of the following should be done to resolve John’s issue?
a) Restart the print spooler on the print server
b) Install and enable the macOS printing option on the network printer
c) Enable Bonjour on John’s MacBook
d) Install the print driver for macOS on the print server
d) Install the print driver for macOS on the print server
You should install the print drivers for OS X (macOS) on the print server to ensure compatibility with MacBooks and iMac devices. Since the Windows users can print to the network printer without any issues, the printer and the network are working properly. Instead, the most likely explanation is that the print server does not have the print drivers for OS X (macOS) installed on it.
Most network printers require specific drivers for different operating systems. Since the other employees (using Windows) can print without issues, the printer likely has only the Windows drivers installed on the print server. John’s MacBook needs a macOS-compatible driver to communicate with the printer properly.
Why Not the Other Options?
(a) Restart the print spooler on the print server – This is useful if the print queue is stuck, but since Windows users can still print, the issue is likely driver-related.
(b) Install and enable the macOS printing option on the network printer – Most modern network printers support macOS printing out of the box, but without the proper driver, John’s MacBook may still struggle to print.
(c) Enable Bonjour on John’s MacBook – Bonjour helps with network discovery, but if the printer is already visible and the job is failing, the issue is likely with drivers, not discovery.
A client reports that their workstation is continually crashing when using certain applications on their macOS system. The system will stop working and display a spinning rainbow pinwheel on the screen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this error?
a) Failure of the processor
b) Failure of the graphics card
c) Failure or corruption of the memory
d) Failure of the power supply
c) Failure or corruption of the memory
On a Mac (OS X) system, the “Pinwheel of Death” is used to indicate an error. The pinwheel appears as an endlessly spinning rainbow mouse pointer displayed on the screen. This usually occurs due to a memory failure or memory corruption in the system. The pinwheel is like the BSOD used in Windows. The Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is a “stop screen” that appears when the Windows operating system detects a critical error and literally stops the system so that the error doesn’t cause any loss of data. All operating systems have some form of “stop screen,” but the Windows version got the name BSOD since it was a screen with a full blue background and white text containing troubleshooting information and error codes.
You have been asked to fix a laptop with a screen image that is being displayed upside down. What is the BEST method to fix this issue?
a) Change the orientation of the screen
b) Replace the LCD panel
c) Update the display drivers
d) Replace the integrated GPU
a) Change the orientation of the screen
Windows offers a beneficial function for viewing documents or playing pranks on your friends. With a simple key combination, you can rotate your screen in any direction - flip it upside-down, or lay it on the side. To change your laptop screen orientation, hold down the Ctrl and Alt keys on your keyboard, then press the up/down/left/right arrow key. You can also change your screen orientation in the Windows display settings. An integrated GPU is part of the laptop’s CPU and cannot be easily replaced. The display drivers and the LCD panel are not the cause of the issue since you can see the screen image properly (although it is being displayed upside down).
An employee’s smartphone is configured via the company’s MDM solution. The user complains that they are unable to install a personal messaging app from the app store. You review the MDM policies and find that certain apps are restricted due to corporate policy. The employee insists the app is necessary for their personal use. What is the best course of action?
a) Explain that the MDM policy blocks certain apps and suggest using the app on a personal device instead
b) Request IT to whitelist the app in the MDM system to allow installation on all corporate devices
c) Remove the smartphone from the MDM system and allow the employee to install the app freely
d) Temporarily disable the MDM policy on the smartphone so that the app can be installed
a) Explain that the MDM policy blocks certain apps and suggest using the app on a personal device instead
OBJ 1.3 - The best course of action is to explain that the MDM policy blocks certain apps and suggest the employee use the app on a personal device instead. MDM policies are implemented to enforce corporate security and compliance, and circumventing or disabling the policy would violate corporate guidelines. Removing the smartphone from the MDM system or whitelisting the app would require approval from IT and may not align with company policy.
You just rebooted your Windows 10 workstation, and the desktop’s background picture looks strange. Upon closer examination, you notice that only a few hundred unique colors are being shown in the image. Which of the following settings should you reconfigure?
a) Refresh rate
b) App size
c) Resolution
d) Color depth
d) Color depth
Color depth is either the number of bits used to indicate the color of a single pixel in a bitmapped image or video frame buffer or the number of bits used for each color component in a single pixel. In Windows 10, you can display up to 32-bits of color depth if your monitor supports it. A larger color depth number allows more unique colors to be displayed. If you only have 4-bit color, for example, you can only have 16 colors. With an 8-bit color depth, you can see 256 colors. Normally, most Windows systems are set to 16-bit (65,536 colors), 24-bit (16.7 million colors), or 32-bit (4.2 billion colors).
Dion Training wants to order some new laptops for their video editors. The video editors want to ensure the display has the best color accuracy when using a 60 Hz refresh rate. Which of the following types of displays should the company purchase to meet this requirement?
a) VA
b) Plasma
c) IPS
d) TN
c) IPS
An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers.
A twisted nematic (TN) LCD panel uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers.
A vertical alignment (VA) LCD panel uses technology designed to have liquid crystals lay perpendicular to the glass substrate when power is removed and in a vertical position when voltage is applied. This allows light to move through the liquid pixels when voltage is applied and the image is then produced. VA displays are a good middle-ground between IPS and TN panel displays.
A plasma display is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.
*IPS panels are known for:
✅ Superior color accuracy – Ideal for video editing and content creation.
✅ Wide viewing angles – Colors remain consistent from different angles.
✅ Good response times – Works well for professional workloads at 60 Hz.
✅ Better contrast than TN panels – Provides more accurate color representation.
Why Not the Other Options?
(a) VA (Vertical Alignment) – VA panels have better contrast than IPS but suffer from color shifting and slower response times, making them less ideal for precise color work.
(b) Plasma – Plasma displays are obsolete and not used in modern laptops.
(d) TN (Twisted Nematic) – TN panels have poor color accuracy and viewing angles, making them unsuitable for video editing.*
You connected your laptop to a new wireless network and received an IP address automatically. Which of the following servers allowed this to occur?
a) DNS server
b) TACACS+ server
c) Proxy server
d) DHCP server
d) DHCP server
A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) serve is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host’s MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns. An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is a server use to identify (authenticate), approve (authorize), and keep track of (account for) users and their actions. AAA servers can also be classified based on the protocol they use, such as a RADIUS server or TACACS+ server. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching an end user.
Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 25W of power to a connected device?
a) 802.3af
b) 802.3at
c) 802.11s
d) 802.11ac
b) 802.3at
Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets. The 802.11ac standard defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard. The 802.11s standard defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.
802.3af (PoE) provides up to 15.4W of power per port.
802.3at (PoE+) provides up to 25.5W of power per port.
802.11s is a standard for wireless mesh networking, not PoE-related.
802.11ac is a Wi-Fi standard for high-speed wireless communication, not PoE-related.
You have just finished building a Windows server, installing its operating system, updating its security patches, formatting a dedicated data partition, and creating accounts for all of the company’s employees. What is the next thing that must be configured to provide users with the ability to access large multifunction devices across the network?
a) Audit logging
b) RAID storage
c) Print server
d) File sharing
c) Print server
Most of the options provided are reasonable next steps, but the question specifically states that you want to allow the users to access multifunction devices on the networks. This indicates that the users will need access to a print server since printers are multifunction devices. A print server is a type of server that connects printers to client computers over a computer network. Print servers act as an intermediary between the computers and printers by accepting print jobs and then sending them to the correct printer when it is ready to accept new jobs. A file server is used to host and control access to shared files and folders for the organization.
Since the goal is to provide users with access to large multifunction devices across the network, configuring a print server is the next logical step. A print server manages networked printers, allowing multiple users to send print jobs and access features like scanning and faxing from multifunction devices. Without a configured print server, users would not be able to discover or connect to network printers efficiently.
Why not the other options?
a) Audit logging – Important for security and monitoring but does not enable access to network printers.
b) RAID storage – Helps with redundancy and data integrity but is unrelated to printer access.
d) File sharing – Useful for accessing shared files, but it does not facilitate printer access.
Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. Which of the following devices needs to be installed to allow users in VLAN 102 to access the resources in VLAN 101?
a) Unmanaged switch
b) Hub
c) Router
d) Wireless access point
c) Router
A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate.
A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port.
A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection.
An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. A hub, access point, and unmanaged switch are unable to route traffic and therefore would be unable to connect the two VLANs.
VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) segment network traffic, isolating devices in different VLANs unless a Layer 3 device (like a router) is used to route traffic between them. Since the file server is in VLAN 101 and workstations are in VLAN 102, they cannot communicate directly. A router (or a Layer 3 switch with inter-VLAN routing enabled) is needed to allow traffic between VLANs.
Why not the other options?
a) Unmanaged switch – Only forwards traffic within a VLAN; it does not route between VLANs.
b) Hub – Works only at Layer 1 and cannot differentiate VLANs or route traffic.
d) Wireless access point – Provides wireless connectivity but does not facilitate inter-VLAN routing.
Dion Training has just installed a new web server and created an A record for DionTraining.com. When users try entering www.DionTraining.com, though, they get an error. You tell their network administrator that the problem is because he forgot to add the appropriate DNS record to create an alias for www to the domain’s root. Which type of DNS record should be added to fix this issue?
a) CNAME
b) NS
c) AAAA
d) PTR
a) CNAME
OBJ 2.6: A CNAME record is a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME). An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. A Name Server (NS) is for identifying authoritative name servers. A Pointer (PTR) is for reverse DNS lookups.
A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used to create an alias for a domain name. In this case, www.DionTraining.com should be mapped to DionTraining.com so that both URLs point to the same web server. The administrator needs to create a CNAME record that aliases www.DionTraining.com to DionTraining.com.
*Why not the other options?
b) NS (Name Server) record – Specifies the authoritative name servers for a domain, but does not handle aliases.
c) AAAA record – Maps a domain to an IPv6 address, but the issue here is aliasing, not IP resolution.
d) PTR record – Used for reverse DNS lookup (mapping IPs to domain names), which is unrelated to this issue.
A client claims that their computer keeps rebooting itself without warning. Which of the following is the BEST action you should take to investigate and troubleshoot this issue?
a) Replace the cooling fan
b) Reinstall the operating system
c) Test the power supply
d) Replace the power supply
c) Test the power supply
A computer that keeps rebooting itself is a symptom of a faulty power supply or a computer that is overheating. If the power supply is faulty, the computer will reboot itself. If the issue is caused by an overheating issue (such as a cooling fan failure), the computer will usually reboot itself after running for 15-20 minutes (once enough heat is built-up). Therefore, you should test the power supply first to determine if that is the root cause of the issue, and then replace the power supply, if required.
Which type of cloud service provides users with an end-to-end application solution for a recurring monthly or yearly fee?
a) DaaS
b) PaaS
c) IaaS
d) SaaS
d) SaaS
Software as a service (or SaaS) is a way of delivering applications over the Internet as a service. Instead of installing and maintaining software, you access it via the Internet, freeing yourself from complex software and hardware management. It allows a company to pay a monthly or yearly fee to receive access to the software without managing the software locally within their own network. For example, many small businesses use Shopify to create an online e-commerce store that is classified as a SaaS product. Other examples include G Suite, Office 365, or Adobe Creative Cloud.
Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes.
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.
Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.
A computer technician is building a server that will run multiple virtual machines simultaneously. Which CPU technology should be selected so that the processor can utilize two logical cores?
a) 32-bit CPU
b) Dedicated GPU
c) Multi-core processor
d) Hyperthreading
d) Hyperthreading
HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. This allows the system to run multiple cores for each operating system in a virtualized environment. Since the question asked about logical cores and not physical cores, the answer is hyperthreading and not a multi-core processor. A 32-bit CPU is a hardware item and used by low-end notebooks or thin clients. A dedicated GPU is a graphics card and would not help with running multiple virtual machines.
Hyperthreading is a technology developed by Intel that allows a single physical CPU core to act as if it were two separate logical cores. This allows the processor to better utilize its resources, improving performance when running multiple tasks or virtual machines.
In a system running multiple virtual machines, having hyperthreading enabled ensures that each physical core can handle two separate threads (logical cores), improving the ability to run multiple virtual machines efficiently.
Why not the other options?
a) 32-bit CPU – A 32-bit CPU does not necessarily provide the capability for logical cores. It refers to the CPU’s data width and limitations on memory addressing, not the number of cores or threads.
b) Dedicated GPU – A Graphics Processing Unit is used for handling graphics and parallel computation tasks, not for improving virtual machine performance via logical cores.
c) Multi-core processor – While multi-core processors have multiple physical cores, this alone does not provide logical cores. Hyperthreading is the technology that allows a single core to handle multiple threads (logical cores).
You are configuring a print server on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with?
a) APIPA
b) Static
c) Dynamic
d) Link-local
b) Static
A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly.
A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network.
Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.
Which version of USB can operate at speeds of up to 5 Gbps?
a) USB 1.0
b) USB 1.1
c) USB 2.0
d) USB 3
d) USB 3
- USB 3 can support speeds of up to 5 Gbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices.
- USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while
- USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port.
- USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.
IPv4 addresses are written using Base 10 numbers, while IPv6 addresses are written in Base 16 numbers. What type of notation does Base16 utilize?
a) Hexadecimal
b) Octet
c) Binary
d) Decimal
a) Hexadecimal
Hexadecimal (or Hex for short) is the system of numbering that uses Base16. This includes the numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, A, B, C, D, E, and F. All IPv6 addresses and MAC addresses are written in hexadecimal format.
Jonni’s laptop works perfectly when sitting at his desk. Whenever Jonni moves his laptop from his desk to the conference room, though, the laptop unexpectedly powers off. A technician examines the laptop and does not smell any unusual odors coming from it. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the laptop to lose power when moved?
a) The laptop has inadequate airflow and is overheating
b) The laptop’s CMOS battery has failed
c) The laptop’s motherboard has a swollen capacitor
d) The laptop’s battery connection is loose
d) The laptop’s battery connection is loose
If the laptop loses power when moved, this is most likely a loose battery connection. Since the laptop operates without any issues when on the user’s desk, it indicates that the connection comes loose during movement.
If the laptop had inadequate airflow, it intermittently shuts down at random times and not only when moved.
If the laptop had a swollen capacitor, the technician would smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard.
If the CMOS battery has failed, then it would cause the laptop to lose its date/time settings but the laptop would not shut down intermittently.
What type of connector is most often used to connect to an older smartphone?
a) Mini-USB
b) USB Type B
c) Micro USB
d) USB-C
c) Micro USB
Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, MP3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices.
Recently, though, the industry moved to the USB Type C (USB-C) connector for smartphones and many other devices as it is faster and easier to connect. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. USB Type B is a large form factor USB connector usually reserved for connecting to older printers and scanners.
You have been asked to set up the email on a corporate laptop. The employees of Dion Training are only allowed to receive their email on one device. The email should be removed from the server’s mailbox whenever the client connects to the server to download the messages. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow an employee to receive their mail on their laptop and meet these requirements?
a) POP3
b) SMTP
c) IMAP
d) HTTPS
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