Checkpoint Q's Flashcards
Which of the following types of display connectors uses a thunderbolt cable and was designed as a competitor to HDMI?
a) VGA
b) DisplayPort
c) eSATA
d) DVI
b) DisplayPort
DisplayPort uses a thunderbolt cable to connect a monitor to the computer. DisplayPort supports both copper and fiber-optic cabling. DisplayPort was created as a royalty-free standard to compete with HDMI. The digital video interface (DVI) was designed to replace the VGA port used by CRT monitors.
Which version of USB can operate at speeds of up to 5 Gbps?
a) USB 1.0
b) USB 1.1
c) USB 2
d) USB 3
d) USB 3
*USB 3 can support speeds of up to 5 Gbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops.
USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps
USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port.
USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.*
You want to build a new gaming computer but intend to reuse as many of the parts as possible from your old computer. You have determined that the motherboard and the case will be reused, and you will purchase a new graphics card, sound card, network interface card, and a USB 3.0 expansion card to increase your system’s overall speed and performance. You are a bit worried that your old computer’s power supply may not be able to support all of these new expansion cards.
Which of the following cards is MOST likely to consume the most power during operations and require you to purchase a new power supply to support it?
a) USB 3.0
b) Sound card
c) Graphics card
d) NIC
c) Graphics card
The power consumption of today’s graphics cards has increased a lot. The top models demand between 110 and 270 watts from the power supply; in fact, a powerful graphics card under full load requires as much power as the rest of the components of a PC system combined. If your old computer didn’t have a dedicated graphics card, it is unlikely that the power supply will be powerful enough to support one without replacing the power supply. Most business computers have a 300-watt power supply. If you are building a high-end gaming workstation, you may require a power supply with 750 watts or more.
You are trying to install Hyper-V on a new laptop, but you keep receiving an error during installation that the software cannot be installed. Which of the following characteristics of the laptop’s processor should you investigate as the MOST likely issue?
a) Virtualization (VT) support
b) Number of cores available
c) Cache size
d) Hyper-threading (HT) technology
a) Virtualization (VT) support
CPU Virtualization is a hardware feature found in all current AMD & Intel CPUs that allows a single processor to act as if it was multiple individual CPUs. This allows an operating system to more effectively & efficiently utilize the computer’s CPU power to run faster. This is enabled or disabled on supported processors within your system’s BIOS. HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits.
Dion Training’s video editor wants to install a new dedicated GPU using an expansion card. Which of the following should they verify before installing the new card?
a) The power supply’s wattage rating
b) The power supply supports 12 VDC input
c) The power supply’s efficiency rating
d) The number of SATA connectors available
a) The power supply’s wattage rating
Dedicated graphics cards use the most power of any component in a computer. If someone is installing or replacing a graphics card, it is important to compare the current system’s power usage to the wattage rating of the power supply to ensure it can support the new graphics card.
SATA connectors are not used with graphics cards but are instead used for storage devices and optical drives.
The power supply should support 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input and provide 12 VDC, 5 VDC, and 3.3 VDC as its output.
A technician is building a new computer for Dion Training. The technician installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. When the technician powers on the system, the fans spin, the motherboard’s LEDs light up, and the computer completes its POST. Unfortunately, the monitor displays a “bootable device not found” error.
Which of the following cables did the technician likely forget to connect?
a) Case fan 4-pin power cable
b) SATA 15-pin power cable
c) CPU 8-pin power cable
d) Motherboard 24-pin power cable
b) SATA 15-pin power cable
Based on the scenario, it is most likely that the technician forgot to connect the SATA 15-pin power cable causing the hard drive to remain off. The computer will still pass the POST, but it will be unable to load an operating system since there is no boot device found.
If the CPU power cable was unplugged, the CPU would not receive power and the POST would not complete.
If the motherboard power cable was not connected, then the motherboard’s LED would not be lit.
If the case fan’s power cables were not connected, the fans would not be spinning.
An eSports participant wants to build a custom computer system that is extremely fast but also operates quietly. Which of the following options should they install as their cooling mechanism?
a) Heat sink
b) Liquid cooling
c) Multiple case fans
d) Passive cooling
b) Liquid cooling
Any serious gamer or eSports participant should use liquid cooling. Liquid cooling is very efficient at removing heat while remaining relatively quiet. Unfortunately, liquid cooling can be messy due to potential leakage and spills, though. Therefore, it is always good to test the piping for leakage first, secure the endpoints, and then secure it to the housing unit on the liquid-cooled system.
While multiple cooling fans can dissipate heat sufficiently, they produce a loud humming sound while operating.
You are building a new server and want to ensure that its memory can allow the server to continue working even if there is an issue that corrupts data held within the memory modules. Which of the following types of memory should you select for the server?
a) Non-parity
b) Single-channel
c) ECC
d) Dual-channel
c) ECC
Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops.
You are troubleshooting a workstation with four identical memory sticks installed, one in each of the slots labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4. The motherboard has a marking near the memory slots that says, “quad-channel support.” Based on what you observe, how many channels are being used by the motherboard’s memory?
a) One channel
b) Two channels
c) Three channels
d) Four channels
**Since the motherboard says it supports quad-channel, and four sticks of memory are installed, it would be using four channels. By using a motherboard that supports a quad-channel memory controller, the motherboard is able to transfer up to 256-bits of memory per transactions (4 x 64-bits) to increase the bandwidth available for data transfer.*
Which of the following types of memory relies on temporary storage space on the hard drive that is used when there is insufficient physical memory available to perform a given task?
a) VRAM
b) SODIMM
c) Virtual memory
d) ECC
**Virtual memory is an area on the hard disk allocated to contain pages of memory. When the operating system doesn’t have sufficient physical memory (RAM) to perform a task, pages of memory are swapped to the paging file. This frees physical RAM to enable the task to be completed. When the paged RAM is needed again, it is re-read into memory.
VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display.*
A customer wants to enable TPM to add password protection as the system boots up for an added security layer. Which of the following should you check to determine if TPM is enabled on the system?
a) Device Manager
b) BIOS Settings
c) Computer Management
d) System Management
b) BIOS Settings
You should check the BIOS settings to ensure that TPM (Trusted Platform Module) is enabled. TPM enables a system to encrypt the contents of the HDD/SDD and will require a password to be entered during the boot process for the HDD/SDD to be decrypted. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a specialized chip on an endpoint device that stores RSA encryption keys specific to the host system for hardware authentication.
What is the purpose of utilizing secure boot?
a) Increase boot speed
b) Increase storage speed
c) Provide security for the OS
d) Provide RAM protection
c) Provide security for the OS
The purpose of Secure Boot is to prevent malicious and unauthorized apps from loading into the operating system (OS) during the startup process.
Secure Boot is enabled by default in Windows 10. When the PC starts, the firmware checks the signature of each piece of boot software, including UEFI firmware drivers (also known as Option ROMs), EFI applications, and the operating system. If the signatures are valid, the PC boots and the firmware gives control to the operating system. The OEM can use the firmware manufacturer’s instructions to create Secure boot keys and store them in the firmware.
Which option would you MOST likely use to configure PXE to set up remote imaging on a computer during a deployment?
a) BIOS boot option
b) Windows boot menu
c) Power management configuration
d) Secure boot configuration
a) BIOS boot option
To configure a computer to utilize the PXE boot option, you need to configure it under the BIOS boot option.
The Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an industry-standard client/server interface that allows networked computers that are not yet loaded with an operating system to be configured and booted remotely by an administrator.
Secure boot is a security system offered by UEFI that is designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware.
Power management allows Windows to reduce or turn off the power supplied to hardware components to save energy.
You just installed an SSD into a laptop to increase the storage speed of the device. Which of the following should you configure to increase the lifespan of the newly installed SSD?
a) Enable the power-saving mode of SSD
b) Disable regularly scheduled defragmentation of the SSD
c) Enable the paging file within the operating system
d) Disable memory caching on the SSD
b) Disable regularly scheduled defragmentation of the SSD
An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is limited in the total number of write functions that can occur over its lifespan. Due to the immediate ability of an SSD to locate data on the drive (since there is no spinning platter that must be moved to reach the right area to retrieve the data like a regular magnetic hard drive), there is no need to defragment an SSD. When you defrag a hard drive, especially an SSD, it will cause tons of small write accesses, reducing the hard drive’s lifespan. And since data is not being read sequentially, it doesn’t matter if the file is stored in a hundred different places.
You have been asked to recommend a RAID for use in a video editing workstation. The workstation must be configured to allow the highest speed operation and use 100% of the available drive free space. The workstation has no requirement for redundancy within this configuration. Which configuration do you recommend?
a) RAID 0
b) RAID 1
c) RAID 5
d) RAID 10
a) RAID 0
RAID 0 (disk striping) is the process of dividing a body of data into blocks and spreading the data blocks across multiple storage devices, such as hard disks or solid-state drives (SSDs), in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) group. Unlike other RAID levels, RAID 0 does not have parity or redundancy. It will provide faster performance and speed, as well as use 100% of the available drive space. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks.
A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has installed four 10 TB hard drives operating at 5400 RPM in a RAID 10 configuration. How much usable storage space is contained in this NAS?
a) 10 TB
b) 20 TB
c) 30 TB
d) 40 TB
b) 20 TB
A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks. Since the NAS uses a RAID 10 configuration, it is a stripped and mirrored array. When all four 10 TB HDDs are installed, half of the capacity is used by the mirroring functionality of the RAID 10. Therefore, only 20 TB is available as the usable storage capacity. This configuration will give the array higher speed/performance (due to the stripping) and increase redundancy (due to the mirroring).
You are installing Windows 2019 on a rack-mounted server and hosting multiple virtual machines within the physical server. You just finished the installation and now want to begin creating and provisioning the virtual machines. Which of the following should you utilize to allow you to create and provision virtual machines?
a) Disk management
b) Hypervisor
c) Device Manager
d) Terminal services
b) Hypervisor
A hypervisor, also known as a virtual machine monitor, is a process that creates and runs virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor allows one host computer to support multiple guest VMs by virtually sharing its resources, like memory and processing. To create and provision virtual machines within the Windows 2019 operating system, you can use a Type II hypervisor like VM Ware or VirtualBox.
When using a Type 1 hypervisor virtualized environment, which of the following items is necessary to connect the VMs to the corporate network?
a) VNC
b) Virtual NIC
c) VDI
d) VPN
b) Virtual NIC
A virtual machine includes a virtual NIC. A virtual NIC is a type of virtual adapter that can be configured on logical partitions to provide a network interface. This virtual NIC can be paired and mapped to a physical NIC to get the VM onto the network.
Your company has decided to move all of its data into the cloud. Your company is concerned about the privacy of its data due to some recent data breaches that have been in the news. Therefore, they have decided to purchase cloud storage resources that will be dedicated solely for their use. Which of the following types of clouds is your company using?
a) Hybrid
b) Private
c) Public
d) Community
b) Private
A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A private cloud is usually managed via internal resources. The terms private cloud and virtual private cloud (VPC) are often used interchangeably.
You want to create a new mobile application and develop it in the cloud. You just signed up for a cloud-based service provider’s offering to allow you to develop it using their programming environment. Which of the following best describes which type of service you have just purchased?
a) DaaS
b) PaaS
c) IaaS
d) SaaS
b) PaaS
Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides the end-user with a development environment without all the hassle of configuring and installing it themselves. If you want to develop a customized or specialized program, PaaS helps reduce the development time and overall costs by providing a ready to use platform.
S –> P –> I
What type of services can allow you to get more storage and more resources added to the cloud as fast as possible?
a) Metered services
b) Rapid elasticity
c) Measured services
d) Resource pooling
b) Rapid elasticity
Rapid elasticity allows users to automatically request additional space in the cloud or other types of services. Because of the setup of cloud computing services, provisioning can be seamless for the client or user. Providers still need to allocate and de-allocate resources that are often irrelevant on the client or user’s side. This feature allows a service to be scaled up without purchasing, installing, and configuring new hardware, unlike if you had to install more physical storage into a server or datacenter.
Which of the following devices would you configure an access control list (ACL) to implement a security policy within your network?
a) Switch
b) Firewall
c) Repeater
d) Hub
b) Firewall
A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules called an access control list (ACL). A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the internet.
You connect a VOIP device on a user’s desk and need to connect it to a PoE-enabled switch located in a communications closet about 150 feet (approximately 50 meters) away. Which of the following cables should you select to connect the VOIP device to the switch?
a) CAT 3
b) Coax
c) CAT 6
d) Fiber
c) CAT 6
VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE (Power over Ethernet) should use a CAT 5e, CAT 6, or higher cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device’s power. Fiber, coaxial, and CAT 3 cables cannot carry power to the VOIP device and cannot be used to meet this requirement. Using a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable, you can connect two devices of approximately 300 feet (100 meters) without any need to repeat the signal.
CAT 6 (Category 6) cables are designed for high-speed networking and can support PoE (Power over Ethernet), which is essential for delivering power to the VOIP device over the same cable. They can handle gigabit speeds and distances up to 100 meters (about 328 feet), making them suitable for the 150-foot distance between the device and the switch.
CAT 3: This cable type is outdated and typically used for older telephone systems. It doesn’t support the high data speeds required for modern networking and also does not support PoE effectively.
Coax: This type of cable is used for cable TV or broadband internet connections, not for Ethernet networking, and does not support PoE.
Fiber: While fiber can handle long distances and high-speed data, it’s not typically used for small installations like this unless specifically required for very high throughput or long-distance connections. Fiber also requires specialized equipment (like media converters) to connect to a VoIP device and PoE switch.
Dion Training is upgrading its wired network from an older CAT5e network to a CAT 7 network. The network technician has run out of patch cables and asks you to create a straight-through patch cable. Which of the following tools is used to connect an RJ-45 connector to a patch cable?
a) Cable tester
b) Cable stripper
c) Crimper
d) Punchdown tool
c) Crimper
A crimper is a tool used to attach an RJ-45 plastic connector to an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. It pushes a portion of the plastic into the jacket of the cable to hold it in place. The RJ-45 connection is the standard one used for wired ethernet networks.
Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack.
A cable stripper removes the plastic jacket from an ethernet cable to access its twisted pairs.
A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is working properly.
Explanation:
A crimper is a tool used to attach RJ-45 connectors (used for Ethernet cables) to the ends of a patch cable. The crimper helps securely fasten the connector to the cable by pushing metal pins into the cable’s wires, ensuring a proper connection.
Why the others are not correct:
a) Cable tester: This is used to check the integrity of a cable and make sure the connections are correct, but it is not used to attach connectors to cables.
b) Cable stripper: This tool is used to strip the outer insulation from a cable to expose the internal wires, but it is not used to attach connectors.
d) Punchdown tool: This tool is typically used for terminating wires into a patch panel or keystone jack, not for attaching RJ-45 connectors to patch cables.
Crimper: Used to attach RJ-45 connectors to the ends of Ethernet cables.
Punchdown Tool: Used to insert wires into patch panels or keystone jacks, not for attaching RJ-45 connectors.
In summary:
Crimper = To create cables by attaching connectors (e.g., RJ-45).
Punchdown Tool = To terminate wires in patch panels or jacks.*
Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?
a) 802.11a
b) 802.11b
c) 802.11g
d) 802.11n
e) 802.11ac
a) 802.11a
*The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. Unfortunately, when this was first released, the radios to operate with this standard were fairly expensive, so it did not sell well or become widespread.
The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps.
The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps.*
802.11a: This Wi-Fi standard operates on the 5 GHz frequency band and can reach speeds of up to 54 Mbps. It was one of the first standards to use the 5 GHz band, which is less congested compared to the 2.4 GHz band.
Why the other options are incorrect:
802.11b: Operates on the 2.4 GHz band and offers speeds up to 11 Mbps.
802.11g: Also operates on the 2.4 GHz band and offers speeds up to 54 Mbps, but does not utilize the 5 GHz frequency.
802.11n: Supports both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, offering speeds up to 600 Mbps (with multiple antennas), much higher than 54 Mbps.
802.11ac: Operates on the 5 GHz band and supports speeds up to 1 Gbps (1000 Mbps), much faster than 54 Mbps.
You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 11 and Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize?
a) Channel 1
b) Channel 2
c) Channel 3
d) Channel 4
a) Channel 1
With wireless access points that run 2.4 GHz frequencies, you can only select channels between 1 and 11 in the United States. This includes 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ax networks. To prevent overlapping of the channels, you should select channels 1, 6, and 11. By doing so, you can increase the reliability and throughput of your wireless network.
Which of the following wireless networking technologies is commonly used to conduct contactless payment using a smartphone or smartwatch?
a) Wi-Fi
b) Bluetooth
c) Microwave
d) NFC
d) NFC
Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another.
Which of the following technologies could be used in an unlicensed long-range fixed wireless system?
a) Bluetooth
b) NFC
c) Microwave
d) Cellular
c) Microwave
Long-range fixed wireless can be licensed or unlicensed depending on the frequencies and power levels being utilized. For example, an 802.11 wireless network could be established using a directional antenna to connect two buildings over several miles using unlicensed frequencies and minimal power levels (under 200 mW) which are under the FCC limits. Alternatively, a microwave link can be established in the 4.91 GHz to 5.97 GHz unlicensed frequency range using a point-to-multipoint microwave antenna and transceiver system.
Microwave technology can be used for long-range fixed wireless communication and can operate in both licensed and unlicensed frequency bands. Fixed wireless microwave links are often used for point-to-point (PtP) or point-to-multipoint (PtMP) connections over long distances. Unlicensed microwave frequencies (such as those in the 5 GHz and 24 GHz bands) can be used for wireless broadband, backhaul connections, and rural internet solutions.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Bluetooth – Short-range wireless technology (typically 10 meters or less), not suitable for long-range fixed wireless.
b) NFC (Near Field Communication) – Extremely short-range (a few centimeters), used for contactless payments and device pairing.
d) Cellular – Uses licensed frequency bands regulated by governments and is not considered an unlicensed long-range technology.
Which type of internet connection allows for high-speed bi-directional data communication over a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) connection?
a) Fiber
b) Satellite
c) DSL
d) Cable
d) Cable
A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth.
When you see HFC, think of Cable Modem
Explanation:
Cable internet operates over a Hybrid Fiber-Coaxial (HFC) network, which combines fiber-optic and coaxial cable infrastructure.
It provides high-speed bi-directional data communication, meaning users can both download and upload data at fast speeds.
Cable internet is widely used for broadband access and is provided by ISPs using DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) technology.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Fiber – While fiber-optic connections provide high-speed internet, they use pure fiber instead of an HFC network, making this incorrect.
b) Satellite – Uses satellite signals for internet connectivity, which has higher latency and does not use HFC infrastructure.
c) DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) – Uses telephone lines (copper wires) for internet access, not an HFC network.
Jason would like the fastest internet available at his house, and he called his local fiber-optic provider. Which of the following offers would provide the fastest service to Jason’s home network?
a) FTTH
b) FTTN
c) FTTC
d) HFC
a) FTTH
“Fiber to the X” (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user’s network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user’s home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH.
Explanation:
FTTH (Fiber to the Home) delivers fiber-optic internet directly to Jason’s house, providing the fastest speeds and lowest latency possible.
This technology offers gigabit-speed connections (up to 10 Gbps in some areas) without relying on slower copper cables.
Why the other options are slower:
b) FTTN (Fiber to the Node) – Fiber extends only to a central node in the neighborhood, and the final connection to homes is through copper telephone lines (DSL), which significantly reduces speed.
c) FTTC (Fiber to the Curb) – Fiber extends closer to homes (to a curbside cabinet), but the last part of the connection is still over coaxial or copper wiring, making it slower than FTTH.
d) HFC (Hybrid Fiber-Coaxial) – Uses fiber to the ISP’s node but relies on coaxial cable for the last mile, which is slower than FTTH and shared among users, leading to congestion.
Your firewall is blocking outbound email traffic that is attempting to be sent. Which port should you verify is set to ALLOW in the firewall to ensure your emails are being sent?
a) 22
b) 25
c) 80
d) 143
b) 25
The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. Port 25 must be set to OPEN or ALLOW in the firewall for SMTP (Send Mail transfer protocol) to function properly.
Explanation:
Port 25 is used for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), which is responsible for sending outbound emails from mail clients to mail servers. If the firewall is blocking outbound email traffic, it might be blocking port 25, preventing emails from being sent.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) 22 (SSH) – Secure Shell (SSH) is used for remote command-line access and secure file transfers, not for email.
c) 80 (HTTP) – Used for standard web traffic (web browsing), not for email communication.
d) 143 (IMAP) – Used for retrieving emails from a mail server (IMAP), not for sending emails.
Which of the following types of data should you transmit over TCP?
a) An order for a $50,000 stock purchase
b) Streaming video from YouTube
c) A Skype phone call with your friend
d) Streaming music while you work
a) An order for a $50,000 stock purchase
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a slower but more reliable data delivery protocol. TCP is responsible for ensuring that packets arrive error-free and without loss. If you are doing something that must get to the destination without errors or data loss, such as a banking transaction or stock trade, it should be sent over TCP. The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets.
Which of the following is categorized as an APIPA address?
a) 192.168.1.123
b) 172.30.15.12
c) 169.254.12.64
d) 8.8.8.8
c) 169.254.12.64
IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no DHCP server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. APIPA addresses are from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255.
Explanation:
APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) is a feature used when a device fails to get an IP address from a DHCP server.
APIPA assigns an IP address in the range of 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254, allowing local network communication but no internet access.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) 192.168.1.123 – This is a private IP address (Class C), commonly used in home and office networks.
b) 172.30.15.12 – This falls within the private IP range (172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255) and is used for internal networking.
d) 8.8.8.8 – This is a public IP address and belongs to Google’s public DNS server, used for internet DNS resolution.
You are trying to send an email to your boss, but it refuses to leave your outbox. You see an error message displayed on the screen that tells you to verify your outbound server settings. Which of the following servers should you configure your email client to use to ensure your emails are being sent?
a) SHH server
b) SMTP server
c) POP3 server
d) DNS server
b) SMTP server
SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. An SMTP server uses the SMTP protocol to send emails from one server to another. If your mail client cannot send an email properly, it is likely an issue with your SMTP server. A mail server is a server that sends or received emails on behalf of its users. POP3 and IMAP servers are used to receive email and SMTP is used to send an email.
Explanation:
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the protocol used for sending emails from an email client (like Outlook or Gmail) to an email server. If your email is stuck in the outbox, it usually means there’s an issue with the SMTP server settings (e.g., incorrect address, port, or authentication settings).
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) SSH server – Secure Shell (SSH) is used for remote administration of servers, not for sending emails.
c) POP3 server – Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) is used for retrieving emails from a mail server, not for sending emails.
d) DNS server – Domain Name System (DNS) is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses, but it does not handle email delivery.
You connected your laptop to a new wireless network and received an IP address automatically. Which of the following servers allowed this to occur?
a) DHCP server
b) DNS server
c) Proxy server
d) TACACS+ server
a) DHCP server
A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) serve is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host’s MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers.
What is the name of a computer system that is designed to perform a specific and dedicated function?
a) UTM system
b) Legacy system
c) Patch system
d) Embedded system
d) Embedded system
An embedded system is a computer system designed to perform a specific, dedicated function. These systems can be as small and simple as a microcontroller in an intravenous drip-rate meter or as large and complex as an industrial control system managing a water treatment plant. Embedded systems might typically have been designed to operate within a closed network. The network elements are all known to the system vendor, and there is no connectivity to wider computer data networks.
Explanation:
An embedded system is a specialized computer system designed to perform a specific, dedicated function within a larger device or system. These systems are not general-purpose computers like PCs but are optimized for specific tasks, such as controlling a smart thermostat, operating a microwave, or managing a car’s ABS braking system.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) UTM system (Unified Threat Management system) – A security device that combines multiple network security functions (firewall, antivirus, intrusion detection, etc.), not a dedicated-function computing system.
b) Legacy system – An outdated or old computer system still in use, often replaced over time but not designed for a single dedicated function.
c) Patch system – This is not a recognized term in computing; however, “patching” refers to software updates, not a standalone system type.
Samantha recently purchased a touchscreen laptop to use for her child to do their schoolwork. Her child just came home from school and said that they accidentally dropped their laptop earlier today. Samantha has asked you to troubleshoot the issue. You open up the laptop and turn on the screen. You look over the laptop, and the screen appears to have some spider web cracks in the panel, but you can still fully see the images on the display. You attempt to operate the laptop using the touchscreen and it appears to be fully responsive to your touch. Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced?
a) LCD panel
b) GPU
c) Inverter
d) Digitizer
a) LCD panel
A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well.
Explanation:
The LCD panel is responsible for displaying images on the screen.
Since the screen has spider web cracks but still shows images, it’s likely that only the outer glass is cracked, but the display itself is still functioning.
Why the other options are incorrect:
b) GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) – The GPU processes graphics, but since the screen still displays images, the GPU is not faulty.
c) Inverter – Modern touchscreen laptops use LED backlighting, which does not require an inverter. Inverters were used in older CCFL-backlit LCDs.
d) Digitizer – The digitizer is the touch-sensitive layer, but since touch is fully responsive, it does not need replacement.
You work as a PC Technician for a real estate company. The company has decided to use laptops instead of desktops in the office so that the real estate agents can easily take their laptops with them when they leave to show properties for sale. You want to create an easy solution for the agents to quickly connect an external monitor, keyboard, mouse, a wired network connection, and an additional hard drive for storage to the laptop whenever they come back into the office. Unfortunately, the laptops used by the agents don’t have a built-in wired network connection. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above?
a) Port replicator
b) Thunderbolt
c) Docking station
d) USB 4-port hub
c) Docking station
A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop.
Explanation:
A docking station is designed to provide a comprehensive connection solution for laptops, offering multiple ports for peripherals like external monitors, keyboard, mouse, wired network, and storage devices. It allows a laptop to be easily connected to these devices with a single connection when the user returns to the office. In this scenario, a docking station would allow the real estate agents to quickly connect to all required peripherals, including a wired network connection, which is especially important since the laptops don’t have a built-in wired network port.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Port replicator – While a port replicator offers additional ports, it may not provide as many features as a docking station, such as power delivery or support for multiple monitors. It’s generally a simpler version that replicates only some of the laptop’s ports.
b) Thunderbolt – Thunderbolt is a high-speed data and power interface that can be used with compatible devices (such as a Thunderbolt docking station). However, by itself, it does not provide all the ports you need. A Thunderbolt dock could be an option, but a basic docking station is the correct choice.
d) USB 4-port hub – A USB hub would expand USB ports but wouldn’t provide a wired network connection or other features like support for external monitors or additional storage. It’s not a complete solution in this case.
You are at the grocery store. At the checkout, you slide your credit card through the payment terminal and then sign your name to authorize the charge. Which of the following did you MOST likely use to make this purchase?
a) Bluetooth reader
b) Signature pad
c) NFC device
d) Touchpad
b) Signature pad
Many stores use a signature pad to digitally capture your handwritten signature when using a credit card to pay for your purchase. A signature capture pad is a device that electronically captures a person’s handwritten signature on an LCD touchpad using a pen-type stylus. Once captured, digital signatures can be imported into and used with most ID software and security programs. Signatures can also be digitally stored for future use.
An employee at Dion Consulting is configuring their Android smartphone to synchronize their email with their corporate Office 365 account. What type of credentials will the employee need?
a) Domain Name
b) Mail Protocols
c) Email and Password
d) Authentication code
c) Email and Password
To configure the email client on an Android device with an Office 365 account, the employee will need their email and password. Since Office 365 is a mainstream service, it is well supported on both Android and iPhone smartphones. If your company is running its own email servers, though, then you would be required to enter the domain name, appropriate mail protocols, and authentication codes.
Tim, a help desk technician, receives a call from a frantic executive who states that their company-issued smartphone was stolen during their lunch meeting with a rival company’s executive. Tim quickly checks the MDM administration tool and identifies that the user’s smartphone is still communicating with the MDM, and displays its location on a map. What should Tim do next to ensure the stolen device’s data remains confidential and inaccessible to the thief?
a) Reset the device’s password
b) Perform a remote wipe of the device
c) Remotely encrypt the device
d) Identify the IP address of the smartphone
b) Perform a remote wipe of the device
To ensure the data remains confidential and is not accessed by the thief, Tim should perform a remote wipe of the device from the MDM. This will ensure any corporate data is erased before anyone accesses it. Additionally, Tim could reset the device’s password, but if the thief can guess or crack the password, they would have access to the data.
Explanation:
Remote wipe is the most effective way to ensure the stolen device’s data remains confidential and inaccessible. This action will completely erase all the data on the smartphone, including sensitive business information, preventing the thief from accessing it. Most Mobile Device Management (MDM) solutions offer the ability to remotely wipe data from a device, which is especially important if the device is stolen and could potentially be accessed by unauthorized users.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Reset the device’s password – While changing the password may prevent unauthorized access to the device, it does not erase the data, so the thief could still access the information if they bypass the password or perform a factory reset themselves.
c) Remotely encrypt the device – While encryption protects data, if the device is already stolen and in the thief’s possession, encrypting the device won’t immediately protect the data. Wiping the data is more effective in this situation.
d) Identify the IP address of the smartphone – While identifying the IP address might give some indication of the device’s location, it does not prevent unauthorized access to the data. Remote wipe is a more direct and secure action.
Which of the following technologies would allow an organization to secure and manage their customer enterprise applications that are installed on a user’s smartphone or tablet?
a) GSM
b) MAM
c) CDMA
d) MDM
b) MAM
Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users’ corporate and personal smartphones and tablets. MAM software allows IT administrators to apply and enforce corporate policies on mobile apps and limit the sharing of corporate data among apps. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. MAMs focus on the application while MDMs focus on the device.
Your laptop currently has a 128 GB SSD installed and currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Still, you don’t want to sacrifice data access speed for increased storage. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to store more data while maintaining fast data access speeds?
a) 50 TB SAN
b) 1 TB SSD
c) 3 TB HDD
d) 5 TB NAS
b) 1 TB SSD
Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the storage’s speed being installed and not the storage size. Therefore, we should choose the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) over the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) due to its faster speeds.
Tim’s laptop was recently upgraded to Windows 11 but is now running more slowly due to the increased memory requirements. He has decided to install some additional RAM to speed up the laptop. Which of the following should he install?
a) SODIMM
b) GDDR5
c) DIMM
d) VRAM
a) SODIMM
Laptops and integrated PCs usually use SODIMM memory due to the memory module’s smaller footprint. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop.
Explanation:
SODIMM (Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module) is a type of RAM commonly used in laptops due to its smaller size compared to DIMM (Dual Inline Memory Module), which is typically used in desktops. Since Tim is upgrading the RAM in his laptop, he should install SODIMM RAM as it is specifically designed for laptops and compact systems.
Why the other options are incorrect:
b) GDDR5 – GDDR5 is a type of graphics memory used in graphics cards (GPUs), not for general system RAM. It is not suitable for upgrading a laptop’s main memory.
c) DIMM – DIMM is used for desktop computers and is not compatible with laptops. Laptops require the smaller SODIMM form factor.
d) VRAM – VRAM (Video RAM) is used specifically for graphics cards to store video data, not as system RAM for the computer.
Dion Training’s video editing laptop has a defective keyboard. You have been asked to replace the keyboard. What type of cable should be connected to the internal laptop keyboard during your replacement?
a) USB
b) SATA
c) Ribbon cable
d) ZIF
c) Ribbon cable
A ribbon cable is any cable with wires that run parallel on a flat plane down the length of the cable. Ribbon cables are typically used to connect internal components in laptops to save space. These laptop ribbon cables are usually hardwired into one component and connect to the motherboard or other components with a small connector clip.
A user wants to print a spreadsheet horizontally on a piece of paper instead of vertically to fit more columns on a single page. What setting should the user enable on the printer for this print job to achieve this result?
a) Duplex
b) Orientation
c) Transparency
d) Collate
b) Orientation
By default, Microsoft Excel prints worksheets in portrait orientation (taller than wide). You can change the page orientation to landscape on a worksheet-by-worksheet basis. Page orientation is how a rectangular page is oriented for normal viewing. The two most common types of orientation are portrait (taller rather than wider) and landscape (wider rather than taller).
John connected his MacBook to the corporate network and is trying to print to the office’s large network printer. John notices that the print job is failing to print. The other employees in the office are having no issues printing from their Windows workstations. Which of the following should be done to resolve John’s issue?
a) Install and enable the OS X printing option on the network printer
b) Restart the print spooler on the print server
c) Enable Bonjour on John’s MacBook
d) Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server
d) Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server
You should install the print drivers for OS X (macOS) on the print server to ensure compatibility with MacBooks and iMac devices. Since the Windows users can print to the network printer without any issues, the printer and the network are working properly. Instead, the most likely explanation is that the print server does not have the print drivers for OS X (macOS) installed on it.
Explanation:
MacBooks use different print drivers than Windows computers. If the print server only has Windows drivers installed, the MacBook won’t be able to communicate properly with the printer.
Installing the correct OS X print drivers on the print server ensures that John’s MacBook can send print jobs in a compatible format.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Install and enable the OS X printing option on the network printer – Most modern network printers don’t require a separate “OS X printing option.” The issue is more likely related to missing drivers.
b) Restart the print spooler on the print server – If other employees (using Windows) are printing without issues, the print spooler is working fine. Restarting it won’t fix the problem for John’s MacBook.
c) Enable Bonjour on John’s MacBook – Bonjour is a network discovery protocol used by Apple devices, but it’s not required for printing to a network printer that is managed by a print server. The real issue is the missing drivers.
What is the name of the networking protocol used by macOS to find available printers on the network to use?
a) Internet Printing Protocol
b) Bonjour
c) Line Printer Daemon
d) Cloud Print
b) Bonjour
Bonjour, Apple’s zero-configuration networking protocol, automates certain aspects of network configuration; the protocol enables devices connected to the local area network to discover and connect automatically. Businesses can use Bonjour to make the sharing of files and devices easier; the technology works with wired and wireless LANs. After enabling Bonjour on a workstation, other computers on the network can detect and install printers or scanners attached to the workstation or access files from shared folders.
Explanation:
Bonjour is Apple’s networking protocol used for automatic discovery of devices and services on a local network, including printers.
It allows macOS to detect and connect to network printers without needing manual configuration or knowing the printer’s IP address.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) – IPP is a protocol used for printing over the internet or a network, but it doesn’t handle device discovery like Bonjour does.
c) Line Printer Daemon (LPD) – LPD is an older network printing protocol, mostly used in UNIX/Linux environments. It doesn’t provide automatic printer discovery like Bonjour.
d) Cloud Print – Google Cloud Print was a cloud-based printing service that allowed printing from anywhere, but Google discontinued it in 2020. It’s not used for local printer discovery in macOS.
An inkjet printer is printing images and text at an angle, and sometimes they don’t print at all. Which of the following would a technician perform to align a printer?
a) Maintenance cleaning
b) Calibration
c) Replace cartridge
d) Replace printhead
b) Calibration
The technician should first calibrate the printer and perform a print test. Usually, it aligns the print heads during calibration and prints out a test page with a code for the user to enter and print another test page to ensure it is properly aligned. A printer that has alignment problems will not print documents accurately. Images and text can print at an angle, or they may not print at all. Your printer can become misaligned if there is any paper stuck in the machine, print cartridges are clogged or dirty, improper installation of cartridges, and using low-quality cartridges.
Your company’s printer is displaying an error of “Replace cartridge 1. Filament is empty.” Based on this error, what kind of printer is your company using?
a) Thermal
b) 3-D
c) Inkjet
d) Laser
b) 3-D
3-D printers use a filament to create the objects being printed. A 3D printing filament is a thermoplastic feedstock for fused deposition modeling by 3D printers. There are many types of filament available with different properties, requiring different temperatures to print the final product or object. On the exam, you should be thinking about a 3D printer anytime you see the word filament. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Ribbon is used with an impact printer. Ribbon or special thermal paper is used with a thermal printer.
Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass?
a) Pickup roller
b) Transfer belt
c) Duplexing assembly
d) Transfer roller
b) Transfer belt
The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.
Which of the following is the third step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
a) Identify the problem
b) Document findings, actions, and outcomes
c) Test the theory to determine the cause
d) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution
c) Test the theory to determine the cause
For the exam, it is important that you are able to list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order.
(1) Identify the problem.
(2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious).
(3) Test the theory to determine the cause.
(4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution.
(5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures.
(6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
You are working as a network technician and have been asked to troubleshoot an issue with a workstation. You have just established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology should you perform NEXT?
a) Identify the problem
b) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem
c) Test the theory to determine the cause
d) Verify full system functionality
c) Test the theory to determine the cause
The next step would be to “test the theory to determine the cause” since you just finished the “establish a theory of probable cause” step. The troubleshooting steps are to:
(1) Identify the problem,
(2) Establish a theory of probable cause,
(3) Test the theory to determine the cause,
(4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects,
(5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary,
(6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and
(7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.
A technician has been troubleshooting a network problem, has determined the likely cause of the issue, and implemented a solution. What is the NEXT step they should perform according to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
a) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lesson learned
b) Verify system functionality
c) Test the theory to determine the cause
d) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem
b) Verify system functionality
The next step would be to “verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures” since you just finished the “implement a solution or escalate as necessary” step. The troubleshooting steps are to
(1) Identify the problem,
(2) Establish a theory of probable cause,
(3) Test the theory to determine the cause,
(4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects,
(5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary,
(6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.
You are attempting to troubleshoot a computer for a user. When you attempt to turn on the computer by pressing the power button, the computer turns on, and the fan spins normally. There is no output displayed on the screen from the PCIe x16 video card. You turn off the computer, remove the processor and the memory, and attempt to power on the computer again. During the boot-up sequence, you do not hear any POST beep codes, but the fans still spin normally. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his issue?
a) The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer
b) The CMOS battery needs to be replaced
c) The motherboard has failed and needs to be replaced
d) The power supply’s voltage switch is set to 240V but the power
a) The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer
If your computer won’t boot, but fans spin continuously, it indicates a problem with the power supply, the motherboard, or overheating could be occurring. When the power supply to your computer fails, it won’t start or power up, but the fans spin (as described in this question). Based on the symptoms and actions performed, it appears that the power supply is not providing enough wattage to all the components of the computer, which is why the fans are spinning (they use low wattage) while the rest of the system fails to boot.
A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the CMOS battery needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?
a) Continuous reboot
b) Burning smell
c) Incorrect date/time on the workstation
d) Distended capacitors
c) Incorrect date/time on the workstation
The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.
An employee’s workstation will operate for a short period of time, but then it unexpectedly shuts down. When you check the workstation, you hear the hum of the cooling fans. What is most likely the issue?
a) GPU overheated
b) Defective NIC card
c) Defective case fan
d) CPU overheated
d) CPU overheated
If a computer’s CPU becomes overheated, the system will unexpectedly shut down the computer to protect the processor from damage. This usually occurs if the CPU’s cooling fan isn’t working properly, the heat sink is dislodged, or the thermal paste breaks down. In this case, you would need to remove the heat sink, remove the processor, reseat the processor, reapply thermal paste, reattach the heat sink, and reconnect the processor fan before rebooting the computer to solve this issue.
A user has reported that their workstation is running slowly. You perform a reboot of their workstation and receive a S.M.A.R.T. error during the boot-up process. Which of the following actions should you perform FIRST?
a) Reformat the hard drive
b) Backup the hard drive
c) Run chkdsk
d) Run diskpart
b) Backup the hard drive
S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym for Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It is a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (non-SSD drives) that monitors the hard drive to ensure it performs properly. S.M.A.R.T. can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and can alert the user so that they can back up the drive before a complete failure occurs. If your hard drive produces a S.M.A.R.T. failure, you should immediately back up the drive. Once a backup has been completed, you can instead focus on repairing the drive using chkdsk.
While working as a technician, you are trying to help a customer whose PC cannot boot up. When the computer is turned on, an error stating “bootable device not found” appears on the screen. What should you attempt first?
a) Verify that either the Molex or SATA cable is connected to the HDD
b) Boot into Recovery Mode and run the “bootrec /fixmbr” command to fix the MBR that’s preventing the PC from booting
c) Check the boot order and select the proper HDD to boot from
d) Check Disk Management to see if the system drive is recognized
c) Check the boot order and select the proper HDD to boot from
The very first step we want to check is the boot order. Typically, the internal storage device is the first item on the list, followed by removeable storage. You should check to see if the devices are being recognized by the computer. If it isn’t, then you should check the connections. This falls under step two of the troubleshooting methodology (question the obvious).
Your company’s file server is using a RAID 5 configuration. You just received an alert from the server that states that “RAID is degraded” and that the “Local Disk 0, Physical Disk 3 has failed”. Which of the following is the BEST way to fix this error?
.
a) Replace physical disk 3 immediately, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded
b) Schedule an authorized downtime period, replace physical disk 3, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded
c) Format logical disk 0, manually configure a new RAID using the remaining good drives from the RAID 5 and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded
d) Reconfigure the RAID 5 to a RAID 0 to avoid any downtime, then rebuild the array during the next authorized maintenance period, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded
b) Schedule an authorized downtime period, replace physical disk 3, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded
Since a RAID 5 has some built-in redundancy, it will continue to operate while in this degraded state without any additional redundancy since one of the drives has failed. It is best to schedule an authorized downtime period, replace the failed drive, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded. During the rebuilding of the array, the system may perform extremely slowly, and users may experience a loss of service, which is why scheduling some downtime is necessary.
Jason booted up a Windows 10 laptop and noticed that the icon appears very large and the image appeared blurry. What is the most LIKELY cause of these issues?
a) Faulty digitizer
b) Incorrect cable used
c) Incorrect resolution
d) Incorrect color depth
c) Incorrect resolution
This is likely a screen resolution problem. Each LCD/LED has a native resolution that fits perfectly on the screen. If a resolution other than the native resolution is used, the screen could become squished, distorted, or have black vertical or horizontal lines filling up the excess space. For example, if the computer rebooted into Safe Mode, it will default back to an 800x600 pixel resolution instead of the 16:9 ratio of 1920x1080 pixels used by modern laptops. This is also referred to as VGA mode.
You just rebooted your Windows 10 workstation, and the desktop’s background picture looks strange. Upon closer examination, you notice that only a few hundred unique colors are being shown in the image. Which of the following settings should you reconfigure?
a) Resolution
b) Color depth
c) Refresh rate
d) App size
b) Color depth
Color depth is either the number of bits used to indicate the color of a single pixel in a bitmapped image or video frame buffer or the number of bits used for each color component in a single pixel. In Windows 10, you can display up to 32-bits of color depth if your monitor supports it. A larger color depth number allows more unique colors to be displayed. If you only have 4-bit color, for example, you can only have 16 colors. With an 8-bit color depth, you can see 256 colors. Normally, most Windows systems are set to 16-bit (65,536), 24-bit (16.7 million), or 32-bit (4.2 billion) colors.
You are working as a technician for a college. One of the professors has submitted a trouble ticket stating that the projector connected to the workstation in his classroom is too dim. You look at the image being projected on the wall and notice it is dim, but the image appears to be displayed clearly and correctly. What is the FIRST thing you should do to make the image brighter?
a) Replace the bulb in the projector
b) Modify the workstation’s video resolution
c) Increase the contrast on the projector
d) Update the video driver on the workstation
c) Increase the contrast on the projector
If the image being displayed is dim, this could be an issue with your project’s contrast. By increasing the contrast, you can increase the amount of light reflected from an all white image and an all black image. The higher the contrast ratio, the brighter the whites will appear in the image. For example, if you have a projector with a 3000:1 contrast ratio, this means that the white image is 3000 times brighter than the black image. The higher the contrast ratio, the more detail you can see on the projected image, regardless of whether it is numbers, pictures, graphs, text, or video.
Josie in Human Resources was just issued a new laptop by Dion Training. When she plugs the laptop into the network’s wall jack and turns it on, she receives an error message. She calls the service desk to report that the error message being displayed states, “There is an IP address conflict with another system on the network.” You are working as a field service technician and have been asked to resolve this error. What should you do?
a) Replace the wired network adaptor on the laptop since it is faulty
b) Disable the wired network adapter and require the laptop to use the wireless network adapter in stead
c) Choose a new IP address and statically assign it to the laptop
d) Configure the laptop’s network connection to use DHCP instead of a static IP
d) Configure the laptop’s network connection to use DHCP instead of a static IP
This is a common error when two network devices are assigned the same IP address on a network. This occurs most commonly when static IP addresses are used, so the easiest way to avoid this issue is to use DHCP to assign the IP addresses on the network. Forcing the user to use wireless over wired may solve the issue temporarily, but this is more of a workaround than a true solution to the error. It would be best if you didn’t randomly choose a new IP and statically assign it to the laptop since this will lead to more future conflicts.
A technician receives a report that a VoIP phone is experiencing a “no network connectivity” error. The technician notices the Cat6a patch cable running from the back of the phone is routed behind the user’s rolling chair. The cable appears to have been rolled over numerous times by the user, and it looks flattened from the abuse. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the connectivity issues being experienced on the VoIP phone?
a) Improperly crimped cable
b) Cross-talk
c) Excessive collisions
d) Transmit and receive reversed
b) Cross-talk
Crosstalk is defined as an effect caused by the unintentional and undesired transmission (leakage) of a signal from one cable to another. Due to the abuse of the cable being run over repeatedly by the user’s chair, the cable’s shielding could have been damaged and the cable may no longer be made up of the same consistency. This can lead to crosstalk amongst the cable pairs, or even opens/shorts of the wires in those cable pairs.
Dion Training has recently installed a new VoIP telephone service in their offices. The employees are now complaining that their phone calls are being dropped during the middle of their conversations. The company has a single 48-port gigabit ethernet layer 3 switch that supports their desktops, laptops, and VoIP devices. Which of the following should the company do to prevent VoIP calls from dropping?
a) Implement QoS
b) Increase the MTU
c) Configure the DHCP server
d) Enforce MAC filtering
a) Implement QoS
To prevent the calls from being dropped, quality of service should be implemented on the switch. Quality of Service (QoS) means using a network protocol to prioritize certain traffic types over others. Enterprise networks can use QoS protocols to make sure traffic such as Voice over IP calling or video conferencing is given higher priority than traffic where packets’ timing is less important, such as ordinary file downloads.
You are working as a laptop repair technician. You just received a laptop that was reported to have a glass of water spilled on it. You want to examine the components in the laptop to begin troubleshooting it. What are the first steps you should take as part of your troubleshooting process?
a) Watch a YouTube video for tutorials on how to fix this model of laptop
b) Remove the external casing of the laptop and document the screw locations
c) Consult your coworkers for suggestions and advice
d) Submerge the laptop in a large bowl of rice to fully dry out the inner components
b) Remove the external casing of the laptop and document the screw locations
When you are taking apart a laptop, it is important to keep track of each of the screws and the location that they were removed from. Many of the screws may appear to be the same height or width, but they may be different. One easy way to keep track of these parts is to create a grid on a sheet of printer paper and place the screws on this makeshift diagram. While the other options may be useful, the question asks you what you should do first to examine the laptop components. To perform that examination, you must remove the external casing and its screws.
You are working as a customer service technician at a smartphone repair center. A customer calls your help desk and states that the device feels warm to the touch even when not used. You ask them to conduct a visual inspection of the smartphone and describe what they are seeing. The customer says, “The battery appears to be swollen’ and bulging outward beyond its normally rectangular shape.”
Which of the following is the BEST statement for you to provide to the customer?
a) “Please do not use the smartphone and bring it to out service center immediately so that we can replace the battery for you.”
b) “Since the device is still working, you can continue to use your phone until the new model is released in 2 months”
c) “Please conduct a factory reset of your phone since this will eliminate the overheating issue”
d) “Please place 5 heavy books on top of your smartphone since the weight will help reform the battery into it’s proper and normal rectangular shape.”
a) “Please do not use the smartphone and bring it to out service center immediately so that we can replace the battery for you.”
A mobile device battery (such as a smartphone or tablet) will become swollen or distended as it begins to fail. If this occurs and the battery or device appears to be physically abnormal, the customer should NOT use the smartphone. The device should be serviced immediately, the battery should be replaced, and the phone inspected to ensure the defective battery has not damaged it.
Sally just purchased a new iPhone and AirPods to listen to her music. After setting up the new iPhone, she can get online and watch YouTube, but her wireless headphones aren’t working. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
a) Wi-Fi is not enabled
b) Cellular is not enabled
c) Bluetooth is not enabled
d) The phone is in airplane mode
c) Bluetooth is not enabled
Since Sally can connect to the internet, either her cellular or WiFi is enabled, and the phone would not be in airplane mode. Since AirPods work over Bluetooth, it is most likely that the Bluetooth is not enabled on the new phone and should be turned on. Once Bluetooth is enabled, the Airpods will need to be paired to the device to begin using them.
What is the simplest and most cost-efficient way to allow other network users to access a printer if the printer does not have an RJ-45 or Wi-Fi adapter available?
a) Order a printer port converter to share a non-networked printer
b) Establish a printer share on the network switch
c) Establish a print share on the local host
d) Order another printer with the network capabilities and share it on the network
c) Establish a print share on the local host
The simplest and most cost-efficient way to share a printer is to share the printer via the local host and allow sharing across everyone to access the printer. While this costs nothing to establish and requires no additional hardware, it does require that the local host remains on 24 hours a day so that others can print to it at any time. If you are willing to spend a little money, though, you can purchase a wireless print server or a new network-capable printer instead.
You just printed a new sign for your office using thick cardstock paper with your network printer. Unfortunately, when you pick up the cardstock from the laser printer’s output tray, the printed image smears across the paper. Attempting to troubleshoot this problem, you decide to print another sign using regular printer paper and determine that the image does not smear when touched on the regular printer paper.
Which of the following would be the NEXT step to perform in your troubleshooting efforts?
a) Change the feed rate of the paper
b) Increase the temperature of the fuser element
c) Replace the toner cartridge in the printer
d) Clean the printer’s transfer roller
b) Increase the temperature of the fuser element
When printing with a laser printer, the paper passes through rollers in the fuser assembly, where temperatures up to 801 F (427 C) and pressure are used to bond the toner to the paper permanently. If you often print with specialty paper (i.e., envelopes, cardstock, & labels), you may want to turn up the fuser temperature on your printer. With thicker paper types, heat does not transfer as easily as it does with standard paper so the toner may not bond as well and the image could smear when it is touched.
You are troubleshooting a laser printer and noticed the paper’s image has a black streak running across the face of the paper. Which of the following should be performed to fix this issue?
a) Replace the printer’s drum
b) Clean the printer’s fusing assembly
c) Clean the printer’s corona wires
d) Replace the toner cartridge
c) Clean the printer’s corona wires
A corona wire is a charged wire in a laser printer that draws the toner off the drum onto the paper. It must be cleaned when the toner cartridge is replaced. A dirty corona wire can cause a portion of the drum not to be charged properly and lead to a white streak appearing on the printed image. Some laser printers combine the toner and drum into a single replaceable item. The drum on a laser printer should be changed after printing 10,000 to 15,000 pages to prevent issues during printing.
Further Review:
System memory (1)
BIOS/UEFI (1)
Virtualization Concepts (1)
Cloud Computing (1)
Networking Basics (1)
Wireless Networks (1)
Internet Connections (3 - 0)
Network Services (1)
Mobile Devices (2)
Mobile Applications (1)
Laptop Hardware (1)
Printers and MFDs (1)
Printer Types (2)
Troubleshooting Methodology (1)
Troubleshooting Storage Devices (1)
Troubleshooting Video Issues (1)
Troubleshooting Networks (1)
Troubleshooting Mobile Devices (1)
Troubleshooting Print Devices (1)
