Checkpoint Q's Flashcards

Question

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps? a) 802.11a b) 802.11b c) 802.11g d) 802.11n e) 802.11ac

Answer 1

**a) 802.11a** *The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. Unfortunately, when this was first released, the radios to operate with this standard were fairly expensive, so it did not sell well or become widespread. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps.* ------------------------------------------------------------------- 802.11a: This Wi-Fi standard operates on the 5 GHz frequency band and can reach speeds of up to 54 Mbps. It was one of the first standards to use the 5 GHz band, which is less congested compared to the 2.4 GHz band. Why the other options are incorrect: 802.11b: Operates on the 2.4 GHz band and offers speeds up to 11 Mbps. 802.11g: Also operates on the 2.4 GHz band and offers speeds up to 54 Mbps, but does not utilize the 5 GHz frequency. 802.11n: Supports both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, offering speeds up to 600 Mbps (with multiple antennas), much higher than 54 Mbps. 802.11ac: Operates on the 5 GHz band and supports speeds up to 1 Gbps (1000 Mbps), much faster than 54 Mbps.

Answer 2

**a) Channel 1** *With wireless access points that run 2.4 GHz frequencies, you can only select channels between 1 and 11 in the United States. This includes 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ax networks. To prevent overlapping of the channels, you should select channels 1, 6, and 11. By doing so, you can increase the reliability and throughput of your wireless network.*

Answer 3

**d) NFC** *Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another.*

Answer 4

**c) Microwave** *Long-range fixed wireless can be licensed or unlicensed depending on the frequencies and power levels being utilized. For example, an 802.11 wireless network could be established using a directional antenna to connect two buildings over several miles using unlicensed frequencies and minimal power levels (under 200 mW) which are under the FCC limits. Alternatively, a microwave link can be established in the 4.91 GHz to 5.97 GHz unlicensed frequency range using a point-to-multipoint microwave antenna and transceiver system.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Microwave technology can be used for long-range fixed wireless communication and can operate in both licensed and unlicensed frequency bands. Fixed wireless microwave links are often used for point-to-point (PtP) or point-to-multipoint (PtMP) connections over long distances. Unlicensed microwave frequencies (such as those in the 5 GHz and 24 GHz bands) can be used for wireless broadband, backhaul connections, and rural internet solutions. Why the other options are incorrect: a) Bluetooth – Short-range wireless technology (typically 10 meters or less), not suitable for long-range fixed wireless. b) NFC (Near Field Communication) – Extremely short-range (a few centimeters), used for contactless payments and device pairing. d) Cellular – Uses licensed frequency bands regulated by governments and is not considered an unlicensed long-range technology.

Answer 5

**d) Cable** *A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth.* *When you see HFC, think of Cable Modem* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: Cable internet operates over a Hybrid Fiber-Coaxial (HFC) network, which combines fiber-optic and coaxial cable infrastructure. It provides high-speed bi-directional data communication, meaning users can both download and upload data at fast speeds. Cable internet is widely used for broadband access and is provided by ISPs using DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) technology. Why the other options are incorrect: a) Fiber – While fiber-optic connections provide high-speed internet, they use pure fiber instead of an HFC network, making this incorrect. b) Satellite – Uses satellite signals for internet connectivity, which has higher latency and does not use HFC infrastructure. c) DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) – Uses telephone lines (copper wires) for internet access, not an HFC network.

Answer 6

**a) FTTH** *"Fiber to the X" (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user's network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user's home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: FTTH (Fiber to the Home) delivers fiber-optic internet directly to Jason’s house, providing the fastest speeds and lowest latency possible. This technology offers gigabit-speed connections (up to 10 Gbps in some areas) without relying on slower copper cables. Why the other options are slower: b) FTTN (Fiber to the Node) – Fiber extends only to a central node in the neighborhood, and the final connection to homes is through copper telephone lines (DSL), which significantly reduces speed. c) FTTC (Fiber to the Curb) – Fiber extends closer to homes (to a curbside cabinet), but the last part of the connection is still over coaxial or copper wiring, making it slower than FTTH. d) HFC (Hybrid Fiber-Coaxial) – Uses fiber to the ISP’s node but relies on coaxial cable for the last mile, which is slower than FTTH and shared among users, leading to congestion.

Answer 7

**b) 25** *The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. Port 25 must be set to OPEN or ALLOW in the firewall for SMTP (Send Mail transfer protocol) to function properly.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: Port 25 is used for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), which is responsible for sending outbound emails from mail clients to mail servers. If the firewall is blocking outbound email traffic, it might be blocking port 25, preventing emails from being sent. Why the other options are incorrect: a) 22 (SSH) – Secure Shell (SSH) is used for remote command-line access and secure file transfers, not for email. c) 80 (HTTP) – Used for standard web traffic (web browsing), not for email communication. d) 143 (IMAP) – Used for retrieving emails from a mail server (IMAP), not for sending emails.

Answer 8

**a) An order for a $50,000 stock purchase** *TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a slower but more reliable data delivery protocol. TCP is responsible for ensuring that packets arrive error-free and without loss. If you are doing something that must get to the destination without errors or data loss, such as a banking transaction or stock trade, it should be sent over TCP. The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets.*

Answer 9

**c) 169.254.12.64** *IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no DHCP server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. APIPA addresses are from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) is a feature used when a device fails to get an IP address from a DHCP server. APIPA assigns an IP address in the range of 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254, allowing local network communication but no internet access. Why the other options are incorrect: a) 192.168.1.123 – This is a private IP address (Class C), commonly used in home and office networks. b) 172.30.15.12 – This falls within the private IP range (172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255) and is used for internal networking. d) 8.8.8.8 – This is a public IP address and belongs to Google's public DNS server, used for internet DNS resolution.

Answer 10

**b) SMTP server** *SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. An SMTP server uses the SMTP protocol to send emails from one server to another. If your mail client cannot send an email properly, it is likely an issue with your SMTP server. A mail server is a server that sends or received emails on behalf of its users. POP3 and IMAP servers are used to receive email and SMTP is used to send an email.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the protocol used for sending emails from an email client (like Outlook or Gmail) to an email server. If your email is stuck in the outbox, it usually means there's an issue with the SMTP server settings (e.g., incorrect address, port, or authentication settings). Why the other options are incorrect: a) SSH server – Secure Shell (SSH) is used for remote administration of servers, not for sending emails. c) POP3 server – Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) is used for retrieving emails from a mail server, not for sending emails. d) DNS server – Domain Name System (DNS) is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses, but it does not handle email delivery.

Answer 11

**a) DHCP server** *A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) serve is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host's MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers.*

Answer 12

**d) Embedded system** *An embedded system is a computer system designed to perform a specific, dedicated function. These systems can be as small and simple as a microcontroller in an intravenous drip-rate meter or as large and complex as an industrial control system managing a water treatment plant. Embedded systems might typically have been designed to operate within a closed network. The network elements are all known to the system vendor, and there is no connectivity to wider computer data networks.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: An embedded system is a specialized computer system designed to perform a specific, dedicated function within a larger device or system. These systems are not general-purpose computers like PCs but are optimized for specific tasks, such as controlling a smart thermostat, operating a microwave, or managing a car's ABS braking system. Why the other options are incorrect: a) UTM system (Unified Threat Management system) – A security device that combines multiple network security functions (firewall, antivirus, intrusion detection, etc.), not a dedicated-function computing system. b) Legacy system – An outdated or old computer system still in use, often replaced over time but not designed for a single dedicated function. c) Patch system – This is not a recognized term in computing; however, "patching" refers to software updates, not a standalone system type.

Answer 13

**a) LCD panel** *A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: The LCD panel is responsible for displaying images on the screen. Since the screen has spider web cracks but still shows images, it's likely that only the outer glass is cracked, but the display itself is still functioning. Why the other options are incorrect: b) GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) – The GPU processes graphics, but since the screen still displays images, the GPU is not faulty. c) Inverter – Modern touchscreen laptops use LED backlighting, which does not require an inverter. Inverters were used in older CCFL-backlit LCDs. d) Digitizer – The digitizer is the touch-sensitive layer, but since touch is fully responsive, it does not need replacement.

Answer 14

**c) Docking station** *A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: A docking station is designed to provide a comprehensive connection solution for laptops, offering multiple ports for peripherals like external monitors, keyboard, mouse, wired network, and storage devices. It allows a laptop to be easily connected to these devices with a single connection when the user returns to the office. In this scenario, a docking station would allow the real estate agents to quickly connect to all required peripherals, including a wired network connection, which is especially important since the laptops don't have a built-in wired network port. Why the other options are incorrect: a) Port replicator – While a port replicator offers additional ports, it may not provide as many features as a docking station, such as power delivery or support for multiple monitors. It’s generally a simpler version that replicates only some of the laptop's ports. b) Thunderbolt – Thunderbolt is a high-speed data and power interface that can be used with compatible devices (such as a Thunderbolt docking station). However, by itself, it does not provide all the ports you need. A Thunderbolt dock could be an option, but a basic docking station is the correct choice. d) USB 4-port hub – A USB hub would expand USB ports but wouldn't provide a wired network connection or other features like support for external monitors or additional storage. It’s not a complete solution in this case.

Answer 15

**b) Signature pad** *Many stores use a signature pad to digitally capture your handwritten signature when using a credit card to pay for your purchase. A signature capture pad is a device that electronically captures a person's handwritten signature on an LCD touchpad using a pen-type stylus. Once captured, digital signatures can be imported into and used with most ID software and security programs. Signatures can also be digitally stored for future use.*

Answer 16

**c) Email and Password** *To configure the email client on an Android device with an Office 365 account, the employee will need their email and password. Since Office 365 is a mainstream service, it is well supported on both Android and iPhone smartphones. If your company is running its own email servers, though, then you would be required to enter the domain name, appropriate mail protocols, and authentication codes.*

Answer 17

**b) Perform a remote wipe of the device** *To ensure the data remains confidential and is not accessed by the thief, Tim should perform a remote wipe of the device from the MDM. This will ensure any corporate data is erased before anyone accesses it. Additionally, Tim could reset the device's password, but if the thief can guess or crack the password, they would have access to the data.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: Remote wipe is the most effective way to ensure the stolen device's data remains confidential and inaccessible. This action will completely erase all the data on the smartphone, including sensitive business information, preventing the thief from accessing it. Most Mobile Device Management (MDM) solutions offer the ability to remotely wipe data from a device, which is especially important if the device is stolen and could potentially be accessed by unauthorized users. Why the other options are incorrect: a) Reset the device's password – While changing the password may prevent unauthorized access to the device, it does not erase the data, so the thief could still access the information if they bypass the password or perform a factory reset themselves. c) Remotely encrypt the device – While encryption protects data, if the device is already stolen and in the thief's possession, encrypting the device won't immediately protect the data. Wiping the data is more effective in this situation. d) Identify the IP address of the smartphone – While identifying the IP address might give some indication of the device's location, it does not prevent unauthorized access to the data. Remote wipe is a more direct and secure action.

Answer 18

**b) MAM** *Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users' corporate and personal smartphones and tablets. MAM software allows IT administrators to apply and enforce corporate policies on mobile apps and limit the sharing of corporate data among apps. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. MAMs focus on the application while MDMs focus on the device.*

Answer 19

**b) 1 TB SSD** *Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the storage's speed being installed and not the storage size. Therefore, we should choose the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) over the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) due to its faster speeds.*

Answer 20

**a) SODIMM** *Laptops and integrated PCs usually use SODIMM memory due to the memory module's smaller footprint. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: SODIMM (Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module) is a type of RAM commonly used in laptops due to its smaller size compared to DIMM (Dual Inline Memory Module), which is typically used in desktops. Since Tim is upgrading the RAM in his laptop, he should install SODIMM RAM as it is specifically designed for laptops and compact systems. Why the other options are incorrect: b) GDDR5 – GDDR5 is a type of graphics memory used in graphics cards (GPUs), not for general system RAM. It is not suitable for upgrading a laptop's main memory. c) DIMM – DIMM is used for desktop computers and is not compatible with laptops. Laptops require the smaller SODIMM form factor. d) VRAM – VRAM (Video RAM) is used specifically for graphics cards to store video data, not as system RAM for the computer.

Answer 21

**c) Ribbon cable** *A ribbon cable is any cable with wires that run parallel on a flat plane down the length of the cable. Ribbon cables are typically used to connect internal components in laptops to save space. These laptop ribbon cables are usually hardwired into one component and connect to the motherboard or other components with a small connector clip.*

Answer 22

**b) Orientation** *By default, Microsoft Excel prints worksheets in portrait orientation (taller than wide). You can change the page orientation to landscape on a worksheet-by-worksheet basis. Page orientation is how a rectangular page is oriented for normal viewing. The two most common types of orientation are portrait (taller rather than wider) and landscape (wider rather than taller).*

Answer 23

**d) Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server** *You should install the print drivers for OS X (macOS) on the print server to ensure compatibility with MacBooks and iMac devices. Since the Windows users can print to the network printer without any issues, the printer and the network are working properly. Instead, the most likely explanation is that the print server does not have the print drivers for OS X (macOS) installed on it.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: MacBooks use different print drivers than Windows computers. If the print server only has Windows drivers installed, the MacBook won't be able to communicate properly with the printer. Installing the correct OS X print drivers on the print server ensures that John's MacBook can send print jobs in a compatible format. Why the other options are incorrect: a) Install and enable the OS X printing option on the network printer – Most modern network printers don’t require a separate "OS X printing option." The issue is more likely related to missing drivers. b) Restart the print spooler on the print server – If other employees (using Windows) are printing without issues, the print spooler is working fine. Restarting it won't fix the problem for John's MacBook. c) Enable Bonjour on John's MacBook – Bonjour is a network discovery protocol used by Apple devices, but it’s not required for printing to a network printer that is managed by a print server. The real issue is the missing drivers.

Answer 24

**b) Bonjour** *Bonjour, Apple's zero-configuration networking protocol, automates certain aspects of network configuration; the protocol enables devices connected to the local area network to discover and connect automatically. Businesses can use Bonjour to make the sharing of files and devices easier; the technology works with wired and wireless LANs. After enabling Bonjour on a workstation, other computers on the network can detect and install printers or scanners attached to the workstation or access files from shared folders.* -------------------------------------------------------------------- Explanation: Bonjour is Apple's networking protocol used for automatic discovery of devices and services on a local network, including printers. It allows macOS to detect and connect to network printers without needing manual configuration or knowing the printer’s IP address. Why the other options are incorrect: a) Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) – IPP is a protocol used for printing over the internet or a network, but it doesn’t handle device discovery like Bonjour does. c) Line Printer Daemon (LPD) – LPD is an older network printing protocol, mostly used in UNIX/Linux environments. It doesn't provide automatic printer discovery like Bonjour. d) Cloud Print – Google Cloud Print was a cloud-based printing service that allowed printing from anywhere, but Google discontinued it in 2020. It’s not used for local printer discovery in macOS.

Answer 25

**b) Calibration** *The technician should first calibrate the printer and perform a print test. Usually, it aligns the print heads during calibration and prints out a test page with a code for the user to enter and print another test page to ensure it is properly aligned. A printer that has alignment problems will not print documents accurately. Images and text can print at an angle, or they may not print at all. Your printer can become misaligned if there is any paper stuck in the machine, print cartridges are clogged or dirty, improper installation of cartridges, and using low-quality cartridges.*

Answer 26

**b) 3-D** *3-D printers use a filament to create the objects being printed. A 3D printing filament is a thermoplastic feedstock for fused deposition modeling by 3D printers. There are many types of filament available with different properties, requiring different temperatures to print the final product or object. On the exam, you should be thinking about a 3D printer anytime you see the word filament. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Ribbon is used with an impact printer. Ribbon or special thermal paper is used with a thermal printer.*

Answer 27

**b) Transfer belt** *The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.*

Answer 28

**c) Test the theory to determine the cause** *For the exam, it is important that you are able to list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.*

Answer 29

**c) Test the theory to determine the cause** *The next step would be to "test the theory to determine the cause" since you just finished the "establish a theory of probable cause" step. The troubleshooting steps are to: (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.*

Answer 30

**b) Verify system functionality** *The next step would be to "verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures" since you just finished the "implement a solution or escalate as necessary" step. The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.*

Answer 31

**a) The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer** *If your computer won't boot, but fans spin continuously, it indicates a problem with the power supply, the motherboard, or overheating could be occurring. When the power supply to your computer fails, it won't start or power up, but the fans spin (as described in this question). Based on the symptoms and actions performed, it appears that the power supply is not providing enough wattage to all the components of the computer, which is why the fans are spinning (they use low wattage) while the rest of the system fails to boot.*

Answer 32

**c) Incorrect date/time on the workstation** *The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.*

Answer 33

**d) CPU overheated** *If a computer's CPU becomes overheated, the system will unexpectedly shut down the computer to protect the processor from damage. This usually occurs if the CPU's cooling fan isn't working properly, the heat sink is dislodged, or the thermal paste breaks down. In this case, you would need to remove the heat sink, remove the processor, reseat the processor, reapply thermal paste, reattach the heat sink, and reconnect the processor fan before rebooting the computer to solve this issue.*

Answer 34

**b) Backup the hard drive** *S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym for Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It is a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (non-SSD drives) that monitors the hard drive to ensure it performs properly. S.M.A.R.T. can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and can alert the user so that they can back up the drive before a complete failure occurs. If your hard drive produces a S.M.A.R.T. failure, you should immediately back up the drive. Once a backup has been completed, you can instead focus on repairing the drive using chkdsk.*

Answer 35

**c) Check the boot order and select the proper HDD to boot from** *The very first step we want to check is the boot order. Typically, the internal storage device is the first item on the list, followed by removeable storage. You should check to see if the devices are being recognized by the computer. If it isn’t, then you should check the connections. This falls under step two of the troubleshooting methodology (question the obvious).*

Answer 36

**b) Schedule an authorized downtime period, replace physical disk 3, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded** *Since a RAID 5 has some built-in redundancy, it will continue to operate while in this degraded state without any additional redundancy since one of the drives has failed. It is best to schedule an authorized downtime period, replace the failed drive, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded. During the rebuilding of the array, the system may perform extremely slowly, and users may experience a loss of service, which is why scheduling some downtime is necessary.*

Answer 37

**c) Incorrect resolution** *This is likely a screen resolution problem. Each LCD/LED has a native resolution that fits perfectly on the screen. If a resolution other than the native resolution is used, the screen could become squished, distorted, or have black vertical or horizontal lines filling up the excess space. For example, if the computer rebooted into Safe Mode, it will default back to an 800x600 pixel resolution instead of the 16:9 ratio of 1920x1080 pixels used by modern laptops. This is also referred to as VGA mode.*

Answer 38

**b) Color depth** *Color depth is either the number of bits used to indicate the color of a single pixel in a bitmapped image or video frame buffer or the number of bits used for each color component in a single pixel. In Windows 10, you can display up to 32-bits of color depth if your monitor supports it. A larger color depth number allows more unique colors to be displayed. If you only have 4-bit color, for example, you can only have 16 colors. With an 8-bit color depth, you can see 256 colors. Normally, most Windows systems are set to 16-bit (65,536), 24-bit (16.7 million), or 32-bit (4.2 billion) colors.*

Answer 39

**c) Increase the contrast on the projector** *If the image being displayed is dim, this could be an issue with your project's contrast. By increasing the contrast, you can increase the amount of light reflected from an all white image and an all black image. The higher the contrast ratio, the brighter the whites will appear in the image. For example, if you have a projector with a 3000:1 contrast ratio, this means that the white image is 3000 times brighter than the black image. The higher the contrast ratio, the more detail you can see on the projected image, regardless of whether it is numbers, pictures, graphs, text, or video.*

Answer 40

**d) Configure the laptop's network connection to use DHCP instead of a static IP** *This is a common error when two network devices are assigned the same IP address on a network. This occurs most commonly when static IP addresses are used, so the easiest way to avoid this issue is to use DHCP to assign the IP addresses on the network. Forcing the user to use wireless over wired may solve the issue temporarily, but this is more of a workaround than a true solution to the error. It would be best if you didn’t randomly choose a new IP and statically assign it to the laptop since this will lead to more future conflicts.*

Answer 41

**b) Cross-talk** *Crosstalk is defined as an effect caused by the unintentional and undesired transmission (leakage) of a signal from one cable to another. Due to the abuse of the cable being run over repeatedly by the user's chair, the cable's shielding could have been damaged and the cable may no longer be made up of the same consistency. This can lead to crosstalk amongst the cable pairs, or even opens/shorts of the wires in those cable pairs.*

Answer 42

**a) Implement QoS** *To prevent the calls from being dropped, quality of service should be implemented on the switch. Quality of Service (QoS) means using a network protocol to prioritize certain traffic types over others. Enterprise networks can use QoS protocols to make sure traffic such as Voice over IP calling or video conferencing is given higher priority than traffic where packets' timing is less important, such as ordinary file downloads.*

Answer 43

**b) Remove the external casing of the laptop and document the screw locations** *When you are taking apart a laptop, it is important to keep track of each of the screws and the location that they were removed from. Many of the screws may appear to be the same height or width, but they may be different. One easy way to keep track of these parts is to create a grid on a sheet of printer paper and place the screws on this makeshift diagram. While the other options may be useful, the question asks you what you should do first to examine the laptop components. To perform that examination, you must remove the external casing and its screws.*

Answer 44

**a) "Please do not use the smartphone and bring it to out service center immediately so that we can replace the battery for you."** *A mobile device battery (such as a smartphone or tablet) will become swollen or distended as it begins to fail. If this occurs and the battery or device appears to be physically abnormal, the customer should NOT use the smartphone. The device should be serviced immediately, the battery should be replaced, and the phone inspected to ensure the defective battery has not damaged it.*

Answer 45

**c) Bluetooth is not enabled** *Since Sally can connect to the internet, either her cellular or WiFi is enabled, and the phone would not be in airplane mode. Since AirPods work over Bluetooth, it is most likely that the Bluetooth is not enabled on the new phone and should be turned on. Once Bluetooth is enabled, the Airpods will need to be paired to the device to begin using them.*

Answer 46

**c) Establish a print share on the local host** *The simplest and most cost-efficient way to share a printer is to share the printer via the local host and allow sharing across everyone to access the printer. While this costs nothing to establish and requires no additional hardware, it does require that the local host remains on 24 hours a day so that others can print to it at any time. If you are willing to spend a little money, though, you can purchase a wireless print server or a new network-capable printer instead.*

Answer 47

**b) Increase the temperature of the fuser element** *When printing with a laser printer, the paper passes through rollers in the fuser assembly, where temperatures up to 801 F (427 C) and pressure are used to bond the toner to the paper permanently. If you often print with specialty paper (i.e., envelopes, cardstock, & labels), you may want to turn up the fuser temperature on your printer. With thicker paper types, heat does not transfer as easily as it does with standard paper so the toner may not bond as well and the image could smear when it is touched.*

Answer 48

**c) Clean the printer's corona wires** *A corona wire is a charged wire in a laser printer that draws the toner off the drum onto the paper. It must be cleaned when the toner cartridge is replaced. A dirty corona wire can cause a portion of the drum not to be charged properly and lead to a white streak appearing on the printed image. Some laser printers combine the toner and drum into a single replaceable item. The drum on a laser printer should be changed after printing 10,000 to 15,000 pages to prevent issues during printing.*

Answer 49

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