PRACTICE SET Flashcards
280/300
1
Q
Which is/are an example/s of beta lactamase inhibitors?
a. Imipenem
b. Tazobactam
c. Thienamycin
A
B, C
2
Q
Mechanism of action of trimethoprim
a. inhibits protein synthesis
b. folate reductase inhibitor
c. destruction of bacterial cell wall
d. competitive inhibitor for the incorporation of PABA
A
B
3
Q
Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:
a. streptomycin
b. rifampicin
c. ethambutol
d. isoniazid
e. pyrazinamide
A
A
4
Q
DOC for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is
a. chloroquine
b. quinine
c. artemisinin
d. primaquine
e. quinine
A
D
5
Q
Synthetic pyrethrinoid compound
a. permethrin
b. lindane
c. kepone
d. benzoyl benzoate
e. crotamiton
A
A
6
Q
Most phototoxic quinolone
a. moxifloxacin
b. levofloxacin
c. lomefloxacin
d. ciprofloxacin
e. sparfloxacin
A
C
7
Q
Metronidazole can be used as:
a. Anti-amoeba
b. Anti-trichomonal
c. Anti-giardiasis
A
A, B, C
8
Q
Example of 5th generation cephalosporin
a. cefazolin
b. cephalexin
c. ceftazidime
d. ceftibuten
e. ceftaroline
A
E
9
Q
Property of certain medicinal agent to kill one type of pathogenic microorganisms without harming the host’s cell
a. Selectively permeability
b. QSARs model
c. Pathogenicity index
d. selective toxicity
e. Phenol coefficient
A
D
10
Q
AOC: cryptococcal meningitis
DOC: fungal meningitis
a. fluconazole
b. amphotericin B
c. itraconazole
d. nystatin
A
A
11
Q
Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:
a. carcinogenic
b. hepatotoxic
c. ototoxic
d. can lead to pulmonary fibrosis
e. can cause kidney damage
A
C
12
Q
All of the following are effective and clinically useful against worm infestation caused by Ascaris lumbricoides, except:
a. niridazole
b. mebendazole
c. thiabendazole
d. piperazine
e. albendazole
A
A
13
Q
Which among the following can inhibit squalene epoxidase?
a. terbinafine
b. metronidazole
c. nystatin
d. fluconazole
A
A
14
Q
A general protoplasmic poison:
a. isopropyl alcohol
b. dimercaprol
c. ethylene oxide
d. salvarsan
e. phenol
A
E
15
Q
Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:
a. citric acid
b. salicylaldehyde
c. salicylic acid
d. oxalic acid
e. acetic acid
A
C
16
Q
DOC: Scabies
a. amodiaquine
b. sulfur
c. benzyl benzoate
d. crotamiton
e. tannic acid
A
C
17
Q
Mechanism of action of quinolones
a. inhibition of DNA gyrase
b. inhibitor of reverse transcriptase
c. inhibition of translation to prokaryotes
d. inhibition of tubulin assembly
e. act as false membrane component
A
A
18
Q
Paracetamol is commonly used as:
a. anti-cholinergic
b. an example of MAOIs
c. opioid analgesic
d. anti-pyretic
e. an example of neurotransmitter
A
D
19
Q
Which among the following is an example of a thiazine dye?
a. crystal violet
b. gentian violet
c. methylene blue
d. basic-fuchsin
A
C
20
Q
Acid resistant, except:
a. Penicillin G
b. Penicillin V
c. Ampicillin
d. Amoxicillin
A
A
21
Q
Penicillin is the drug of choice for the following anti-infective conditions, except:
a. gonococcal
b. treponema
c. pseudomonal
d. streptococcal
A
C
22
Q
Isolated from Aureobasidium pullulan:
a. pullulanase
b. aureobasidins
c. fosmidomycin
d. IPC synthase inhibitors
e. echinocanadins
A
B
23
Q
A dicarboxylic acid used as rust and stain remover:
a. citric acid
b. formic acid
c. acetic acid
d. oxalic acid
e. tartaric acid
A
D
24
Q
Indicated for ifosfamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis
a. panthotenic acid
b. mesna
c. amifostine
d. dexrazoxane
e. pyridoxine
A
B
25
HCTZ is used as:
a. anti-cancer
b. diuretic
c. anti-diuretic
d. antibiotics
e. analgesic
B
26
An organic compound with a molecular formula of C4H8. The compound can be classified as what type of hydrocarbon?
a. Alkane
b. Alkene
c. Cycloalkane
B, C
27
Sulfanilamide for intestinal infections, ulcerative colitis (reduction of bacterial flora):
a. silver sulfadiazine
b. mafenide acetate
c. sulfasalazine
d. sulfacetamide sodium
e. pseudomembranous colitis
C
28
Common side effects associated with the use of tetracyclines:
a. Gastric distress
b. Teeth discoloration, hypoplasia in children
c. Phototoxic
d. Hepatotoxic
A, B, C, D
29
Inhibits formation of the fusion component conformation of gp41.
a. indinavir
b. delavirdine
c. pentafuside
d. efavirenz
C
30
An example if integrase inhibitor:
a. raltegravir
b. pentafuside
c. indinavir
d. remdesivir
e. ritonavir
A
31
A parahydroxybenzoic acid effective against growth of yeast:
a. propylparaben
b. gamma amino benzoic acid
c. para amino benzoic acid
d. methylparaben
A
32
The most toxic anti-malarial drug
a. quinine
b. primaquine
c. chloroquine
d. quinacrine
e. aralen
D
33
Which among the following is not an example of purine analog?
a. 6-mercaptopurine
b. cladribine
c. capecitabine
d. fludarabine
C
34
Which is correct about carbol-fuchsin solution?
a. Component of castellani’s paint
b. Treatment of fungal infections
c. Mixture of chloride of rosaniline and p-rosaniline chloride
A, B, C
35
Polyene antibiotics for fungi that can act as false membrane component:
a. terbinafine
b. micafungin
c. fluconazole
d. nystatin
e. griseofulvin
D
36
DOC: Pseudomembranous Colitis (PO)
a. clindamycin
b. bacitracin
c. vancomycin
d. gentamicin
e. amikacin
C
37
A combination of non – ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:
a. wagner's solution
b. Lugol's solution
c. povidone iodine
d. iodine tincture
C
38
1,3-dimethylxanthine is:
a. cocaine
b. theophylline
c. caffeine
d. theobromine
e. isoproterenol
B
39
Common adverse reaction of HIV Protease inhibitors:
a. dyslipidemia
b. atherosclerosis
c. rashes
d. rapid release of histamine (redness)
A
40
Mechanism of action of Ritonavir
a. inhibitor of RNA polymerase
b. inhibitor of HIV protease
c. inhibitor of reverse transcriptase
d. Inhibitor of viral DNA Polymerase
B
41
A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:
a. Griseofulvin
b. Econazole
c. Nystatin
C
42
o – xylene and m – xylene are what type of isomers?
a. functional
b. positional
c. geometric
d. chain
B
43
This are cyclic peptide antibiotics that has powerful bactericidal activity characterized by presence of amide linkages:
a. penicillin
b. polypeptide
c. cephalosporins
d. glycopeptide
e. bacitracin
B
44
Thiabendazole, a benzimidazole derivative, is an anthelmintic drug used primarily to treat infections caused by:
a. Taenia saginata
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Sarcoptes scabiei
e. Necator americanus
B
| or E
45
bind to tubulin disrupting formation and function of the mitotic spindle by arresting mitosis by inhibiting the polymerization of microtubules
a. cisplatin
b. imatinib
c. vinca alkaloids
d. thiotepa
e. bleomycin
C
46
Antibiotics CI during pregnancy:
a. Aminoglycosides
b. Erythromycin estolate
c. Clarithromycin
d. Tetracyclines
A, B, C, D
47
A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer:
a. myelosupression
b. alopecia
c. mydriasis
d. pulmonary fibrosis
e. ataxia
B
48
Classified as a macrolide antibiotic, except:
a. clarithromycin
b. erythromycin
c. bacitracin
d. oleandomycin
C
49
The stain of the urinary analgesic phenazopyridine HCl can be removed using:
a. sodium hypochlorite
b. oxalic acid
c. sodium dithionite solution
d. bleach
e. muriatic acid
C
50
The collective term given to aniline-substituted sulfonamides/sulfanilamides:
a. sulfa drugs
b. prodrug
c. HAART
d. silver sulfadiazine
e. TB-DOTS
A
51
Which among the following alkylating agents establishes cross-links within and between DNA strands?
a. organoplatinum
b. procarbazine
c. nitrosoureas
d. nitrogen mustards
A
52
Which among the following is an example pyrimidine analog, except:
a. decitabine
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. cytrabine
d. vidarabine
e. tegafur
D
53
Pulmonary fibrosis is associated with the use of:
a. vinca alkaloids
b. cisplatin
c. bleomycin
d. nitrosureas
e. methotrexate
C
54
An example of neuraminidase inhibitors:
a. Zanamivir
b. Amantadine
c. Rimantadine
d. Oseltamivir
A, D
55
A beta-lactamase inhibitor with penicillanic acid sulfone:
a. tazobactam
b. piperacillin
c. sulbactam
d. clavulanic acid
A
56
Lamivudine, Tenofovir, Efavirenz are combination of anti-HIV drugs that is commonly called as:
a. CMC
b. TMP-SMX
c. HAART
d. MDMA
e. MTX
C
57
The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
a. ethionamide
b. levofloxacin
c. isoniazid
d. streptomycin
e. neomycin
D
58
A common agent in smoking cessation program providing patches:
a. lobeline
b. nicotine
c. quinine
d. emetine
e. scopolamine
B
59
A good local anesthetic should have all of the following properties, except:
a. not irritant to the tissue and should not cause any permanent structural damage to nerves
b. effective at body fluid pH
c. systemic toxicity should be low
d. must be effective regardless of the site of application
e. onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short duration of action to avoid toxicity
E
60
First generation urinary tract anti-infective:
a. nalidixic acid
b. cinnoline
c. pipecolic acid
d. urothropin
e. methenamine
A
61
Currently, the most effective regimen for TB that is usually given by the rural health units:
a. swab test/rapid test kit
b. TB-DOTS
c. Anti-tubercular vaccine
d. RT-PCR test
B
62
The first nitroheterocyclic compounds used in chemotherapy:
a. thiotepa
b. aminoglycosides
c. nitrofurans
d. quinolones
e. methenamine
C
63
Is a dihydrofolate – reductase inhibitor:
a. monobactam
b. sulfamethoxazole
c. metothrexate
d. trimethoprim
e. tetracycline
D
| and C
64
The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms that the host:
a. disease management
b. chemotherapy
c. selective toxicity
d. therapeutics
e. gene therapy
B
65
For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by intravenous route?
a. Amphotericin B
b. Clotrimazole
c. Ketoconazole
d. Nystatin
e. Miconazole
A
66
This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:
a. acyclovir
b. plecoranil
c. oseltamivir
d. fomiversen
e. zidovudine
A
67
Benzyl penicillin is also known as:
a. p-amino penicillanic acid
b. Penicillin G
c. Oxacillin
d. Penicillin V
B
68
Methenamine is also called:
a. urothropin
b. azo-gantrisin
c. pyrazinoic acid
d. uridine
e. uric acid
A
69
The drug of choice for typhoid fever:
a. paracetamol
b. quinine
c. chloramphenicol
d. blood dyscrasias
e. artemisinin
C
70
Prodrug of Acyclovir with better bioavailability.
a. valacyclovir
b. ganciclovir
c. penciclovir
d. famciclovir
A
71
The chemical CH3CH2COOCH3 is given what IUPAC name?
a. butanal
b. butanoic acid
c. ethylmethyl ether
d. methyl propanoate
e. butanone
D
72
Household vinegar is chemically ______
a. CH3CH2COOH
b. CH3COOH
c. CH3CH2OH
d. HCOOH
e. HCHO
B
73
These are isomers that are not mirror images of each other differing only in position of moieties at the first carbon.
a. epimers
b. isotopes
c. anomers
d. tautomers
e. enantiomers
C
74
Which of the following penicillin is resistant to penicillinase?
a. flucloxacillin
b. polymyxin B
c. carbenicillin
d. cloxacillin
e. thienamycin
D
75
The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic an erythrocytic forms of malaria:
a. Atovaquone
b. Amodiaquine
c. Quinine
d. Proguanil
D
76
The first antibiotic with anti malignant property that binds non-covalently to double stranded DNA by partial intercalation between the adjacent G-C bases resulting to inhibition of DNA function.
a. bleomycin
b. daunorubicin
c. doxorubicin
d. dactinomycin
D
77
Class of antibiotics which has large lactone ring, has a ketone group and has glycosidically linked amino sugar:
a. aminoglycosides
b. penicillins
c. macrolides
d. cephalosporins
e. peptide antibiotics
C
78
The structure of this class of antibiotic has a beta-lactam ring and a thiazolidine ring:
a. penicillin
b. oxazolidinedione
c. glycopeptide antibiotics
d. cephalosporins
e. macrolides
A
79
Which among the following is applicable to fluconazole?
a. imidazole, broad spectrum
b. bis-triazole, broad spectrum
c. bis-triazole, narrow spectrum
d. imidazole, narrow spectrum
B
80
DOC: Chronic Hepatitis B
a. adefovir
b. silymarine
c. lamivudine
d. essentiale forte
A
81
Piperazine citrate, gentian violet, pyrantel pamoate and thiabendazole are all:
a. pediculides
b. antibacterial dye
c. anthelminthics
d. anti-protozoal
e. antifungal
C
82
Propanone and 1 – propen-1-ol are considered as ____ isomers.
a. enantiomers
b. epimers
c. positional
d. tautomers
e. configurational
D
83
Doxurubicin inhibits:
a. protein kinases
b. tubulin synthesis
c. DNA polymerase
d. topoisomerase II
e. topoisomerase I
D
84
Which among the following is correct about aminoglycosides?
a. Contains beta-lactam dihydrothiazine ring
b. Derivative of 7-aminocephalosporanic acid
c. Contain a highly substituted 1,3-diaminocyclohexane central ring
d. Strongly basic antibiotics
C, D
85
Prevents contamination; The following are preservatives, except:
a. benzoic acid
b. potassium sorbate
c. undecylenic acid
d. methylparaben
C
86
Long term use of tetracyclines in pregnant women should be avoided due to several reasons. Which of these is not true?
a. they can cause yellow atrophy of the liver in the mother
b. they chelate calcium ions
c. they are toxic to the fetus and may cause abortion
d. they predispose to discoloration of deciduous teeth in infant
e. they get deposited in growing bones
C
87
Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:
a. atabrine
b. mefloquine
c. quinine
d. amodiaquine
e. chloroquine
B
88
The antibiotic that binds with 30s ribosome subunit:
a. chloramphenicol
b. penicillin
c. tetracycline
d. clavulanic acid
e. rifampicin
C
89
First orally active broad spectrum imidazole antifungal:
a. miconazole
b. ketoconazole
c. itraconazole
d. fluconazole
e. clotrimazole
B
90
The plant containing the anti-cancer drug, vincristine and vinblastine:
a. mandrake
b. taxol
c. mayapple
d. campthoteca
e. periwinkle
E
91
A combination of non – ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:
a. Lugol's solution (strong iodine)
b. povidone iodine
c. Wagner's solution (Iodine in KI)
d. Iodine tincture
e. phenol-glycerol mixture
B
92
Methenamine is decomposed into _ at a urine pH of 5.5. This is responsible for methenamine’s urinary tract antiseptic property.
a. acetone (as ketone body)
b. formaldehyde
c. ethylene glycol
d. ethyl alcohol
e. acetic acid
B
93
The degree of unsaturation of fats can be determined through:
a. polarimeter
b. iodine number
c. refractive index
d. saponification number
B
94
The chemical name of phenethicillin:
a. phenoxymethyl penicillin
b. phenoxypropylpenicillin
c. phenoxyethyl penicillin
d. benzyl penicillin
C
95
For patients allergic to penicillin, this drug is used as alternative:
a. depot penicillin
b. ampicillin
c. co-amoxiclav
d. amoxicillin
e. macrolides like erythromycin
E
96
The alcohol “unfit for use”:
a. distilled alcohol
b. completely denatured alcohol
c. absolute alcohol
d. denatured alcohol
e. dehydrated alcohol
D
97
The scientist who can lay claim to the title of “Father of Chemotherapy”:
a. Joseph Lister
b. Alexander Fleming
c. August Kekule
d. Friedrich Wohler
e. Paul Ehrlich
E
98
inhibition of glucose uptake leading to depleted glycogen storage ==> decrease ATP synthesis
a. mebendazole
b. bithionol
c. thiabendazole
d. pyrantel pamoate
e. ivermectin
A
99
The single, first line agent for tuberculosis:
a. streptomycin
b. rifampicin
c. isoniazid
d. ethambutol
e. pyrazinamide
A
100
Antibiotics that targets the cell wall:
a. nystatin
b. lincomycins
c. chloramphenicol
d. penicillins
D
101
Which among the following is correctly paired:
a. Streptomycin: first anti-TB antibiotic from Strep. griseus
b. Neomycin: from Strep. fradiae (orally active)
c. Paromomycin: Strep. rimosus anti-amebic
d. Kanamycin: Strep. kanamyceticus, tx for bacillary dysentery
A, B, C, D
102
The anticancer obtained from mayapple or mandrake:
a. topotecan
b. etoposide
c. taxol
d. vincristine
B
103
Chemically, procaine is classified as:
a. ether
b. phenol
c. ester
d. amide
e. ketone
C
104
DOC: Schistosoma mansoni
a. bithionol
b. thiocarbazine
c. mebendazole
d. praziquantel
e. niridazole
D
105
This agent can induce proliferation of epithelial cells leading to sloughing and repair:
a. hydrogen peroxide
b. benzyl benzoate
c. carbamide peroxide
d. benzoyl peroxide
e. salicylic acid
D
106
Which of the following is/are examples of drugs that are extensively metabolized by first pass effect?
a. Lidocaine
b. Morphine
c. Nitroglycerin
d. Meperidine
A, B, C, D
107
The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is:
a. salicylaldehyde
b. methylsalicylate
c. salicylic acid
d. salicin
e. acetylchloride
C
108
Which of the following bases is most susceptible to alkylating agents?
a. adenine
b. thymine
c. uracil
d. cytosine
e. guanine
E
109
Neurotoxicity caused by isoniazid can be treated with:
a. panthotenic acid
b. cyanocobalamine
c. pyridoxine
d. thiamine
e. tocopherol
C
110
this drug can inhibit the action of one or more protein kinases.
a. vinblastine
b. erlotinib
c. bleomycin
d. irinotecan
e. taxol
B
111
A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer:
a. anaphylaxis
b. bulging fontanel
c. alopecia
d. ataxia
e. mydriasis
C
112
An antibiotic that is obtained from Streptomyces noursei:
a. natamycin
b. nystatin
c. clindamycin
d. amphotericin B
e. clarithromycin
B
113
a brilliant azo red dye which was found to protect against and cure Streptococcal infections in mice; it is converted to its active metabolite “sulfanilamide"
a. prontosil
b. phenol
c. gentian violet
d. crystal violet
e. methyl red
A
114
used for sever LRTI cause by RSV in carefully selected hospitalized infants and young children
a. ribavirin
b. foscarnet
c. ganciclovir
d. adefovir
e. chloramphenicol
A
115
Irinotecan inhibits:
a. tubulin synthesis
b. protein kinases
c. topoisomerase II
d. topoisomerase I
e. DNA polymerase
D
116
Which among the following is/are use of formalin?
a. embalming agent
b. can be used as gargle or mouthwash
c. antipyretic agent
d. antiseptic for wounds
e. analgesic
A
117
Analogue of acyclovir with an additional hydroxymethyl group on the acyl side chain.
a. ganciclovir
b. valacyclovir
c. acyclovir
d. famciclovir
A
118
The generic name of Dalacin – C which is OFTEN used to treat pimples:
a. clarithromycin
b. dactinomycin
c. iso-tretinoin
d. clindamycin
e. doxurubicin
D
119
Odd one out:
a. lamivudine
b. nevirapine
c. efavirenz
d. delavirdine
A
120
This is an effective antidote for the treatment of copper poisoning:
a. dimercaprol
b. penicillamine
c. BAL
d. deferoxamine mesylate
B
121
Tetracycline is:
a. a broad spectrum, bactericidal
b. an intermediate spectrum, bactericidal
c. a narrow spectrum, bacteriostatic
d. an intermediate spectrum, bacteriostatic
e. a broad spectrum, bacteriostatic
E
122
An example of first generation quinolone:
a. nalidixic acid
b. ciprofloxacin
c. moxifloxacin
d. ofloxacin
A
123
Trisodium phosphonoformate: organic analogue of inorganic pyrophosphate:
a. vidarabine
b. plecoranil
c. fosmidomycin
d. foscarnet
D
124
Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of:
a. Koch Bacilli
b. HIV/AIDS
c. SARS-COV2
d. Dengue
e. HBV
B
125
What is the type of the chemical Methoxyethane:
a. RCOOH
b. RCOOR
c. RCHO
d. ROR
e. RCOR
D
126
Sulfanilamide is a generic term that denotes:
a. Aniline-substituted sulfonamides/sulfanilamides
b. Prodrugs that generate active sulfanilamides
c. Non-aniline sulfonamide like mafenide acetate
A, B, C
127
The chemical CH3OCH3 is an example of what type of organic compound?
a. aldehyde
b. ether
c. alcohol
d. ester
e. ketone
B
128
The following antibiotic possess clinically useful anti-malignant property, except:
a. plicamycin
b. streptomycin
c. mitomycin C
d. bleomycin
e. daunorubicin
B
129
A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo (Ilosone):
a. mycostatin
b. erythromycin
c. clindamycin
d. spiramycin
e. clarithromycin
B
130
DOC: Hodgkin’s disease
a dialkylating agent
a. ifosfamide
b. mechlorethamine
c. cisplatin
d. thiotepa
B
131
This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating penicillin:
a. distillation
b. MRI
c. chromatography
d. freeze-drying
e. extraction by solvents
D
132
Which among the following alkylating agents can induce hyperglycemia on animal models?
a. streptomycin
b. streptozotocin
d. alloxan
e. altrenamine
B
133
toxic syndrome characterized by tinnitus, headache, nausea, disturbed vision associated with the use of cinchona extract like quinine:
a. optic neuropathy
b. pseudomembranous colitis
c. charotism
d. cinchonism
e. ergotism
D
134
which among the following drug can tint the urine red-orange?
a. methylene blue
b. coffee
c. rifampicin
d. MAOIs inhibitors
e. pyrazinamide
C
135
The sterol that is commonly targeted by antifungal agents:
a. cholecalciferol
b. ergosterol
c. peptidoglycan layer
d. cholesterol
e. chitin
B
136
Loperamide is commonly use for/as:
a. antacid
b. anti-diarrheal
c. cathartic
d. stimulant laxative
e. anthelmintics
B
137
Isolated from Lincolnensis; which of the following contains sulfur?
a. penicillin G
b. clindamycin
c. lincomycin
d. clarithromycin
C
138
A depo penicillin preparation:
a. amoxicillin
b. penicillin G
c. ampicillin
d. penicillin V
e. penicillin benzathine
E
139
an oxazolidinedione antibiotics that can inhibit 30s and 70s ribosomes:
a. mupirocin
b. fosfomycin
c. linezolid
d. bacitracin
C
140
Which of the following is/are true regarding phase II drug metabolism?
a. allows attachment of small, polar, and ionizable endogenous compounds
b. allows termination or attenuation of a biological activity
c. serves to protect the body against chemically reactive compounds or metabolites
A, B, C
141
Yellow to brownish-yellow liquid that has a characteristic creosote odor:
a. resorcinol
b. cresol
c. thymol
d. eugenol
e. hydroquinone
B
142
All of the following statements are true concerning penicillins, except:
a. use of any penicillin is contraindicated in a patient who has had an allergic reaction to any one penicillin
b. they are obtained from the genus Streptomyces
c. piperacillin and ticarcillin have activity against Pseudomonas species
d. the addition of clavulanic acid to amoxicillin preparations protects the drug from penicillinase
e. this class of anti-bacterials act damaging the cell walls of bacteria
B
143
Which among the following is correct about cephalosporins?
a. Contains beta-lactam dihydrothiazine ring
b. Derivative of 7-aminocephalosporanic acid
c. Contain a highly substituted 1,3-diaminocyclohexane central ring
A, B
144
An example of fourth generation cephalosporins:
a. cefixime
b. ceftaroline
c. cefuroxime
d. cephradine
e. cefepime
E
145
An example of bioreductive alkylating agent:
a. plicamycin
b. doxorubicin
c. mitomycin C
d. bleomycin
C
146
All of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade, except:
a. amikacin
b. ampicillin
c. neomycin
d. kanamycin
e. streptomycin
B
147
Indication of phenazopyridine HCl?
a. anti-protozoal
b. antibacterial dye
c. anti SARS-COV2
d. urinary analgesic
e. urinary antiseptic
D
148
A dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor:
a. trimethoprim
b. dapsone
c. ciprofloxacin
d. sulfamethoxazole
e. chloramphenicol
A
149
Zidovudine is an example of:
a. Inhibitor of viral DNA Polymerase
b. inhibitor of reverse transcriptase
c. fusion inhibitors
d. inhibitor of viral RNA polymerase
B
150
UDPGA is used in what type of phase II metabolic reaction?
a. sulfation
b. glycine conjugation
c. glucuronidation
d. acetylation
e. phosphorylation
C
151
Mechanism of action of Idoxuridine:
a. inhibitor of viral RNA polymerase
b. Fusion inhibitor
c. Inhibitor of reverse transcriptase
d. Inhibitor of viral DNA Polymerase
D
152
the present day "gamot na pula" contains":
a. thimerosal
b. cetylpyridinium chloride
c. nitromersol
d. benzalkonium chloride
e. benzoyl peroxide
D
153
Enzyme inhibited by Methotrexate:
a. DNA polymerase
b. thymidylate synthetase
c. DNA gyrase
d. dihydropteroate synthetase
B
154
Gray-baby syndrome is usually associated in which among the following antibiotics?
a. piperacillin
b. vancomycin
c. tobramycin
d. chloramphenicol
e. sulfonamide
D
155
DOC: African trypanosomiasis (Later Stages)
a. melarsoprol
b. suramin sodium
c. eflornithine
d. nifurtimox
e. metronidazole
A
156
prodrug (m-aminosalicylic acid and sulfapyridine; effective in treating ulcerative colitis:
a. sulfixosazole
b. sulfasalazine
c. mafenide acetate
d. trimetoprim
e. silver sulfadiazine
B
157
Major organ for excretion:
a. kidneys
b. lungs
c. skin
d. liver
A
158
The first compound in the development of a drug that has the desired biological and physiochemical properties:
a. latentiated drug
b. prodrug
c. lead drug
d. linker protein
C
159
The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:
a. sultamicillin
b. azo-gantrisin
c. urobitioc
d. co-amoxiclav
e. co-trimoxazole
E
160
Saponification is an alkali hydrolysis of:
a. RCOOR
b. RCHO
c. ROR
d. RCOR
e. ROH
A
161
Which among the following statement is correct about cephalosporins?
a. 4th generation has higher gram – activity as compared with 1st generation
b. 3rd generation has the highest gram – activity as compared with the 1st generation
c. 2nd generation has the highest gram – activity as compared with the 1st generation
d. 1st generation has higher gram – activity as compared with 3rd generation
A
162
DOC: Chicken Pox
a. co-trimoxzaole
b. adefovir
c. vancomycin
d. chloramphenicol
e. acyclovir
E
163
Examples of isoxazoyl penicillin, except:
a. oxacillin
b. nafcillin
c. cloxacillin
d. dicloxacillin
B
164
Chemically known as p-dichlorosulfamoylbenzoic acid: a white crystalline, photosensitive compound with faint chlorine odor that can be used to disinfect water to make it potable:
a. halazone
b. chloroazodin
c. oxychlorosene sodium
d. bordeaux mixture
A
165
A fluoroquinolone:
a. amoxicillin
b. ciprofloxacin
c. cotrimazine
d. nalidixic acid
e. itraconazole
B
166
Methylsalicylate is also known as:
a. otto of rose
b. jasmine oil
c. juniper oil
d. oil of wintergreen
e. toothache drops
D
167
An androgen receptor antagonist:
a. megestrol acetate
b. tamoxifen
c. depo-provera
d. bicalutamide
D
168
Trifluridine is structural analog of which among the following?
a. guanosine
b. adenosine
c. uridine
d. thymidine
D
169
Group of drugs that can be used for the treatment and management of HIV is called:
a. antiretroviral
b. vaccines
c. sulfa drugs
d. immunoglobulins
e. antimycobacterial
A
170
The main goal of this metabolic reactions is to attach small, polar, ionizable endogenous substrate:
a. Conjugation reaction
b. Phase II Metabolism
c. Functionalization reaction
d. Phase I Metabolism
A, B
171
The following anti-malarials are synthetic drugs, except:
a. cycloguanil
b. mefloquine
c. chloroquine
d. quinine
e. primaquine
D
172
MOA of aminoglycosides
a. Interferes with cell wall synthesis
b. act directly on the bacterial ribosome to inhibit the initiation of protein synthesis
c. interferes with the fidelity of translation of the genetic message
B, C
173
Captopril is an example of:
a. COX inhibitor
b. HMG CoA inhibitor
c. MAO inhibitor
d. ACE inhibitor
D
174
Most active nebramycins, effective against conjunctivitis:
a. streptomycin
b. tobramycin
c. gentamicin
d. amikacin
B
175
The alkaloid from Ipecac is commonly employed as:
a. Emetic
b. Analgesic
c. Anti-protozoal
A, C
176
Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of micro-organisms when applied to living tissues:
a. antimicrobials
b. protoplasmic poison
c. antiseptics
d. disinfectants
e. astringents
C
177
Orally active monobactam:
a. aztreonam
b. tazobactam
c. clavulanic acid
d. tigemonam
e. sulbactam
D
178
The primary metabolic product of cyclophosphamide:
a. sulfur stripping
b. chlorambucil
c. chloroacetaldehyde
d. mesna
e. melphalan
C
179
Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues:
a. virucidal agents
b. antimicrobials
c. fungicides
d. anti-cancer
e. disinfectant
f. antiseptics
F
180
It is a colorless, flammable gas, used to sterilized thermosensitive medical equipment and some pharmaceuticals:
a. formalin
b. potassium permanganate
c. ether
d. ethylene oxide
e. phenol
D
181
The drugs intended for management of HIV infection are called as:
a. antiretrovirals
b. sulfa drugs
c. anti-metabolites
d. antibiotics
e. inhibitor of reverse transcriptase
A
182
Which among the following is correct about cefuroxime:
a. an example of oral cephalosporin
b. an example of parenteral
c. classified as fourth generation cephs
d. has excellent gram negative activity
A, B
183
The antiviral telbivudine was patterned to which among the following nitrogenous base?
a. guanine
b. uracil
c. cytosine
d. thymidine
e. adenine
D
184
The halogen found on halazone:
a. bromine
b. iodine
c. chlorine
d. nitrogen
e. hydrogen
C
185
Drugs that can inhibit dihydropteroate synthetase:
a. Dapsone
b. Sulfamethoxazole
c. TMP
d. Pyrimethamine
A, B
186
Mechanism of Aureobasidium pullulan:
a. inhibits DNA Gyrase
b. inhibits beta-1,4 glucan synthase
c. inhibits thymidylate synthetase
d. inhibits IPC synthase
D
187
DOC: TB prophylaxis
a. ethambutol
b. streptomycin
c. pyrazinamide
d. isoniazid
e. rifampicin
D
188
Fluconazole is a bis-triazole, broad spectrum that is:
a. AOC for cryptococcal meningitis
b. DOC for fungal meningitis
c. Last line for vaginal candidiasis
d. DOC for oral candidiasis
A, B
189
the drug of choice for pseudomembranous colitis and this is usually given per orem:
a. streptomycin
b. clindamycin
c. capreomycin
d. neomycin
e. vancomycin
E
190
Which among the following can tint the urine red-orange?
a. Rifampicin
b. Methylene blue
c. Phenazopyridine HCl
A, C
191
The following are examples of topical sulfonamide that can be used for burn therapy that can cause systemic acidosis:
a. mafenide acetate
b. sulfisoxazole
c. sulfasalazine
d. silver sulfadiazine
e. triacetin
A
192
Which among the following antivirals are used in the management of the COVID pandemic?
a. remdesivir
b. dexamethasone
c. ivermectin
d. virgin coconut oil
e. tocilizumab
A
193
DOC: RSV bronchiolitis and pneumonia
a. ribavirin
b. zalcitabine
c. plecoranil
d. didanosine
e. azidothymidine
A
194
Yellow to brownish-yellow liquid that has a characteristic creosote odor:
a. thymol
b. resorcinol
c. cresol
d. carbinol
e. eugenol
C
195
it refers to the prevention of biosynthesis or use of normal cellular metabolites by enzyme inhibition:
a. antimetabolites
b. reduction
c. alkylation
d. inhibition of protein kinases
e. intercalation
A
196
this antibiotic can be used as drug of choice for chlamydia, ricketssia and mycoplasma associated infections:
a. chloramphenicol
b. gramicidin
c. polymyxin B
d. tetracyclines
e. mupirocin
D
197
The best known limitation on the use of amphotericin B:
a. nephrotoxicity
b. hyperglycemia
c. cardiotoxicity
d. dyslipidemia
e. alopecia
A
198
Gemcitabine is:
a. antimetabolite - hormone
b. antimetabolite - purine - uracil
c. antimetabolite - anti-folates
d. antimetabolite - purine - cytosine
e. antimetabolite -pyrimidine - adenine
E
| Pyrimidine - Cytosine
199
Which among the following can inhibit squalene epoxidase?
a. tolnaftate
b. fluconazole
c. metronidazole
d. nystatin
e. flucytosine
A
200
Which among the following antibiotics listed below targets the prokaryotic 50s ribosomes?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Macrolides
c. Lincosamides
d. Quinupristin
A, B, C, D
201
DOC: Chronic Hepatits B
a. nevirapine
b. plecoranil
c. azidothymidine
d. zidovudine
e. adefovir dipivoxil
E
202
A synthetic derivative of halogenated hydrocarbon that can be used as scabicide or pediculicide:
a. lindane
b. kerosene
c. benzylbenzoate
d. permethrine
e. crotamiton
A
203
DOC: Chaga’s disease (acute and chronic attack)
a. emetine
b. sodium stibogluconate
c. dimercaprol
d. melarsoprol
e. nifurtimox
E
204
Common side effects associated with busulfan:
a. bone marrow toxicity
b. pulmonary fibrosis
c. alopecia
d. peripheral neuropathy
e. nephrotoxicity
A
205
It refers to the property of certain medicinal agents to kill one type of pathogenic microorganisms without harming the host’s cell.
a. cumulative poison
b. anti-metabolite
c. alkylation
d. selective toxicity
e. protoplasmic poison
D
206
Second line drug of onychomycosis:
a. phenol
b. clioquinol
c. carbol-fuchsin
d. ciclopirox olamine
e. desenex
D
207
Which among the following is correctly matched, except:
a. Aminopenicillins - Ampicillin
b. Carboxypenicillins – Ticarcillin
c. Acylureido penicillins – Cloxacillin
C
208
This antifungal-antibiotics is a mitotic spindle poison:
a. fluconazole
b. griseofulvin
c. nystatin
d. terbinafine
e. flucytosine
B
209
The quinolone that is to be given once daily:
a. ciprofloxacin
b. lomefloxacin
c. moxifloxacin
d. levofloxacin
B
210
First orally active broad spectrum imidazole antifungal:
a. albendazole
b. metronidazole
c. fluconazole
d. posoconazole
e. ketoconazole
E
211
True or False:
Presence of ketone bodies in the urine is a sign that the patient is suffering from diabetes mellitus.
True
212
True or False:
Lassagine’s test is also known as the sodium fusion test.
True
213
True or False:
The antidote for methanol poisoning is ethanol.
True
214
True or False:
Naturally occurring phenols are sometimes basic.
False
215
True or False:
On the structure of acetanilide, the amide functional group is attached on the acetoxy ring.
False
216
True or False:
95% ethyl alcohol is more effective than the 70% alcohol as antiseptic.
False
217
True or False:
The density or specific gravity of the liquid can be used in computing the equivalent weight of the reactant given in milliliters.
False
| idk
218
True or False:
In the computation of the number of moles, balancing is the equation is not necessary since we are only computing for the equivalent number of moles.
False
| idk
219
True or False:
Seeding is the process wherein the side of the glass vessel are scratched using a stirring rod.
False
| idk
220
True or False:
The carbon found on methanol is called as the “carbinol” carbon.
True
221
True or False:
Base on structure, isopropyl alcohol is an example of secondary alcohol.
True
222
True or False:
If a catalyst is added in an equilibrium, it can affect the reaction by shifting its direction to the right or the product side.
False
223
True or False:
If there is no change in color when red litmus is used indicates the presence of phenolic group.
True
224
True or False:
Excessive use of alcohol may cause the destruction of liver, a condition known as cirrhosis.
True
225
True or False:
Acetanilide is used as anti-inflammatory due to its ability to inhibit LOX and COX.
False
| idk
226
True or False:
Phenols can be synthesized by hydrolysis of sodium benzene sulfonate.
True
227
True or False:
Fruit juices can be converted to alcohol with the help of yeast.
True
228
True or False:
Phenols can react with peroxy- and hydroxy- radicals thereby producing anti-oxidant property.
True
229
True or False:
Double bond is composed of one strong sigma bond and a weak pi bond.
True
230
True or False:
Chloral can be used as CNS stimulant thus capable of inducing sleep.
False
231
True or False:
Indophenol is colored red or brown.
False
232
True or False:
Prontosil is an example of brilliant azo red dye that can be used as antibacterial.
True
233
True or False:
Acids such as phosphoric, sulfuric, and hydrochloric can be used as a source of proton on the synthesis of salicylic acid.
True
234
True or False:
Methyl salicylate can be used as rubefacient when taken on small doses internally.
False
235
True or False:
Iodoform test is an example of halogenation reaction wherein methyl ketone is reduced to acid and iodoform.
True
236
True or False:
In the synthesis of acetanilide, aniline acts as a nucleophile, while the acyl group from the acetic anhydride acts as electrophile.
True
237
True or False:
Qualitative analysis is an analysis method used to determine the number of elements or molecules produced during a chemical reaction.
False
238
True or False:
Complete combustion of hydrocarbons produces carbon monoxide and water molecule.
False
239
True or False:
The actual melting point of acetanilide may increase due to the presence of impurities during the synthesis.
False
240
True or False:
When there is an insufficient of one of the reactants, the reaction can stop abruptly.
True
241
True or False:
Monosaccharides can be classified as aldoses or ketoses.
True
242
True or False:
Arsenic, antimony and mercury are found on some organic compounds as trace elements.
True
| idk
243
True or False:
The boiling point of phenol is 40.5°C.
False
244
True or False:
The expected result with Millon’s test is flesh precipitate.
True
245
True or False:
Amino acids are organic acids that contain an amine group.
True
246
True or False:
The α-carbon of carboxylic acid can be converted to amines via Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction.
False
247
True or False:
A fruity odor indicates the presence of esters.
True
248
True or False:
In the reflux distillation, an Erlenmeyer or distilling flask can be used depending on the availability of the condenser or glass tube.
True
| idk
249
True or False:
Sodium fusion test is used for the quantitative analysis of elements nitrogen, sulfur and halogen in organic compounds.
False
250
True or False:
Acrolein is chemically known as propenal.
True
251
True or False:
Phenol is prepared in the laboratory by a diazotization of primary aromatic amines.
True
252
True or False:
Presence of orange color using bromine water test indicates the presence of saturated compounds.
True
253
True or False:
Methane is formed when decaying vegetable matter is covered with carbon dioxide and water.
True
254
True or False:
Carboxylic acid molecules are polar due to the presence of two electronegative oxygen atoms.
True
255
True or False:
Tribromophenol absorbs visible light.
False
256
True or False:
The chief source of hydrocarbons are petroleum and natural gas.
True
257
True or False:
Complete oxidation of primary alcohol produces an aldehyde.
True
258
True or False:
The end reaction for chromic acid test is the conversion from orange to green or blue.
True
259
True or False:
Acetylene is a colorless and odor less gas.
True
260
True or False:
Esters, chemically speaking are considered as polar compounds or substances.
True
261
True or False:
This sodium bisulfate, aldehydes and methyl ketones can form water soluble salts of bisulfates.
False
| idk
262
True or False:
The aglycone portion of salicin is a sugar moiety such as glucose or rhamnose.
False
| idk
263
True or False:
Alkanes with 17 carbons or more are solid at room temperature.
True
264
Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which rendered inactive in the presence of:
a. soaps
b. GPB
c. GNB
d. cationic surfactants
e. organic acids
A
265
The metabolite of the red dye, prontosil, responsible for its antimicrobial property:
a. sulfapyridine
b. sulfacetamide
c. sulfisoxazole
d. sulfanilamide
D
266
This antibiotic can lead too anaphylactoid reaction due to histamine release when this antibiotic was rapidly infused:
a. bacitracin
b. gentamicin
c. amikacin
d. clindamycin
e. vancomycin
E
267
An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks:
a. citric acid
b. oxalic acid
c. tartaric acid
d. malic acid
C
268
Which of the following statements is not true regarding the aminoglycosides antibiotics?
a. they are more effective in alkaline medium
b. they are bactericidal
c. they are easily absorbed after oral administration
d. they are highly ionized in solution
e. they are ototoxic and nephrotoxic
C
269
DOC: Strongyloides
a. praziquantel
b. ivermectin
c. pyrantel pamoate
d. niridazole
e. albendazole
B
270
Flucytosine blocks:
a. Inhibition of protein synthesis
b. Inhibition of mRNA synthesis
c. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
A, C
271
DOC: Blood Flukes
Praziquantel
272
levido reticularis is associated with the use of which among the following drugs?
a. amantadine
b. streptomycin
c. vancomycin
d. rimantadine
e. oseltamivir
A
273
Which of the following germicide is used as oxidizing agent leading to protein denaturation:
a. chlorhexidine
b. glutaraldehyde
c. potassium permanganate
d. hydrogen peroxide
e. dequalinium
D
274
The common side effects associated on the use of anthracyclines:
a. alopecia
b. peripheral neuropathy
c. bone marrow supression
d. cardiotoxicity
e. pulmonary fibrosis
D
275
The side chain found on ganciclovir:
a. methy
b. valyl
c. hydroxyethyl
d. dideoxy
e. hydroxymethyl
E
