Practice Questions LEIK - some questions may not apply to our unit Flashcards

I just put in any question with the health issues we have that came up in my search - you may or may not want to study them.

1
Q
  1. A 73-year-old patient complains of recent episodes of acute-onset left-sided facial asymmetry, slurred speech, weakness, and dizziness, accompanied by
    weakness of the left arm and left leg. She reports that the episodes occur at random and last from 30 minutes to about 2 hours. Each episode resolved completely. The patient has type 2 diabetes with hyperlipidemia, peripheral arterial disease,
    hypertension, and osteoporosis. Her symptoms suggest:
    A) Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
    B) Ménière’s disease
    C) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
    D) Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
    680
A
  1. C) Transient ischemic attack (TIA) Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a transient episode of ischemia in the brain, retina, or spinal cord without acute
    infarction. About 10% to 20% of patients with TIA will have a stroke within 90
    days. TIA signs and symptoms are acute onset of facial asymmetry, slurred speech,
    weakness, monocular visual loss, headache, and hemiplegia that resolves within
    minutes to several hours. TIA is a neurological emergency; should undergo brain
    imaging (MRI preferred) within 24 hours of onset.
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2
Q
  1. A lipid profile for a newly diagnosed hypertensive patient with a BMI (body mass index) of 27 shows a triglyceride level of 950 mg/dL, total cholesterol of
    240 mg/dL, LDL (low density lipoprotein) of 145 mg/dL, and HDL (high-density lipoprotein) of 45 mg/dL. What is the best intervention for this patient?
    A) Educate the patient about lifestyle changes that will help lower cholesterol levels
    B) Initiate a prescription of metformin (Glucophage)
    C) Recommend that the patient exercise at least 30 minutes daily
    D) Initiate a prescription of fenofibrate (Tricor)
A

D) Initiate a prescription of fenofibrate (Tricor) A triglyceride level above 800 mg/dL is considered to be “very high”; there is an increased risk of acute pancreatitis, especially if the patient also drinks alcohol. Two fibrate drugs have been approved for
use in the United States: fenofibrate (Tricor) and gemfibrozil (Lopid). Another option is nicotinic acid, but fibrates are more potent and better tolerated. In
addition, lifestyle changes are important; these include avoiding foods with concentrated sugars, alcohol, weight loss if overweight or obese, and regular,
moderate to intense aerobic exercise.

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3
Q

The nurse practitioner notices a gray ring on the edge of both irises of an 80-year-old woman. The patient denies visual changes or pain. She reports that she has had the “ring” for many years.

312. Which of the following causes is most likely?
A) Arcus senilis
B) Pinguecula
C) Peripheral cataracts
D) Macular degeneration
A
  1. A) Arcus senilis Arcus senilis (arcus senilis corneae) is a white, gray, or blue opaque ring in the corneal margin (peripheral corneal opacity), or white ring in
    front of the periphery of the iris. It is present at birth, but then fades; however, it is commonly present in older adults. It can also appear earlier in life as a result of
    hypercholesterolemia. It does not affect vision. Unilateral arcus is a sign of decreased
    blood flow to the unaffected eye due to carotid artery disease or ocular hypotony.
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4
Q

The nurse practitioner notices a gray ring on the edge of both irises of an 80-year-old woman. The patient denies visual changes or pain. She reports that she has had the “ring” for many years.

  1. What is the clinical significance of this finding in a 35-year-old patient?
    A) The patient has a higher risk of blindness
    B) The patient should be evaluated for hyperlipidemia
    C) The patient should be evaluated by an ophthalmologist
    D) The patient should be evaluated for acute glaucoma
A
  1. B) The patient should be evaluated for hyperlipidemia Arcus senilis is caused
    by lipid deposits deep in the edge of the cornea and is quite commonly present in the
    elderly. However, it can also appear earlier in life as a result of hypercholesterolemia.
    1629
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5
Q
  1. A 25-year-old man with schizophrenia comes in for a routine annual physical. He
    is a heavy smoker and has a body mass index (BMI) of 28. The patient has been on
    olanzapine (Zyprexa) for 10 years. Regarding the patient’s prescription, which of the
    following laboratory tests is recommended for monitoring the adverse effects of
    atypical antipsychotics?
    A) Fasting blood glucose, fasting lipid profile, and weight
    B) Urinalysis, serum creatinine, 24-hour urine for protein and creatinine clearance
    C) Liver function tests only
    D) CBC with differential, liver function tests, and weight
A
  1. A) Fasting blood glucose, fasting lipid profile, and weight Patients on atypical antipsychotics commonly gain weight and are at risk for obesity, hyperglycemia, and type 2 diabetes. Zyprexa will increase lipids (cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein [LDL], and triglycerides). Atypical antipsychotics also increase the risk of death among frail elders and older adults living in nursing homes.
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6
Q
  1. An 80-year-old man with hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with
    complaints of the rapid onset of severe low-back pain accompanied by abdominal pain that is gradually worsening. The patient appears pale and complains that he does not feel well. During the abdominal exam, the nurse practitioner detects a soft pulsatile mass just above the umbilicus as she palpates this area with her hand.
    Which of the following conditions is most likely?
    A) Abdominal aortic aneurysm
    B) Cauda equina syndrome
    C) Acute diverticulitis
    D) Adenocarcinoma of the colon
    1189
A
  1. A) Abdominal aortic aneurysm Elderly males who are ex-smokers are at higher risk for abdominal aortic aneurysm. The aneurysm is usually asymptomatic and is
    discovered incidentally during a routine chest x-ray or abdominal ultrasound.
    Although small aneurysms are usually not detectable during abdominal exams, the
    larger aneurysms may be palpable during an abdominal exam, but abdominal obesity
    will obscure the findings.

The symptoms in this case point toward a rapidly
dissecting aneurysm. The best action is to call 911 stat.

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7
Q
  1. The 2013 American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association
    (ACC/AHA) Arteriosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease (ASCVD) risk calculator measures the risk of a cardiovascular event within 10 years after measurement.
    What is the cutoff value when treatment for hyperlipidemia is recommended?
    A) 6.5% or higher
    B) 7.5% or higher
    C) 8% or higher
    D) 10 % or higher
    1303
A
  1. B) 7.5% or higher The estimated 10-year ASCVD risk score is 7.5% or higher.

The 2013 ACC/AHA guidelines recommend treatment with high-intensity statins for patients aged 40 to 75 years with very high low-density lipoprotein (LDL) values
who have a score of 7.5% or higher.

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8
Q
  1. A 55-year-old male patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 has a history of angina and type 2 diabetes. His lipid profile results are total cholesterol of 280 mg/dL, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) of 195 mg/dL, and high-density lipoprotein
    (HDL) of 25 mg/dL. The nurse practitioner diagnoses him with hyperlipidemia and wants to start him on statin therapy. What intensity of treatment is recommended
    for this patient?
    A) Low-intensity statin
    B) Moderate-intensity statin
    C) High-intensity statin
    D) Very high-intensity statin
A
713. C) High-intensity statin This patient fulfills the criteria for high-intensity statin dosing criteria from the 2013 American College of Cardiology/American
Heart Association (ACC/AHA) blood cholesterol guideline. He already has heart
disease (angina), type 2 diabetes, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) of 195 mg/dL, and
low high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 25 mg/dL. 

This patient is at very high risk
for heart disease and warrants a high-intensity dose of statin. There are only two choices at this level: atorvastatin (Lipitor) 40 to 80 mg or rosuvastatin (Crestor) 20 to 40 mg.

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9
Q
168. Which of the following would you recommend on an annual basis for an elderly
patient with type 2 diabetes?
A) Eye exam with an ophthalmologist
B) Follow-up visit with a urologist
C) Periodic visits to an optometrist
D) Colonoscopy
A
  1. A) Eye exam with an ophthalmologist Elderly patients with type 2 diabetes should have a dilated eye exam done annually by an ophthalmologist. They should also see a podiatrist once or twice a year. Preventive care also includes receiving a flu
    shot annually, receiving a Pneumovax vaccine if older than 60 years of age, and taking a 81-mg baby aspirin each day.
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10
Q
  1. An obese Asian patient with BMI (body mass index) of 33 complains of fatigue,
    and excessive thirst and hunger. You suspect type 2 diabetes mellitus. Initial testing
    to confirm diagnosis can include:
    A) Fasting plasma glucose level
    B) Glycated hemoglobin level (A1C)
    C) Oral glucose tolerance testing
    D) All of the above
A
  1. D) All of the above Type 2 diabetes mellitus screening tests include fasting plasma glucose level (>126 mg/dL), random plasma glucose level (>200 mg/dL), and oral glucose tolerance testing (2-hour blood glucose level >200 mg/dL) with a 75-g
    glucose load. Normal A1C levels are less than 6%.
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11
Q
218. Which chronic illness disproportionately affects the Hispanic population?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hypertension
C) Alcohol abuse
D) Skin cancer
A
  1. A) Diabetes mellitus The risk of diabetes mellitus is two to three times higher in Mexican Americans than in non-Hispanic Americans.
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12
Q
462. Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) are at higher risk for the following:
A) Heart disease and endometrial cancer
B) Uterine fibroids and ovarian cancer
C) Premature menopause
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
A
  1. A) Heart disease and endometrial cancer Chronic anovulation results in high levels of estrogen and androgens in the body.

The risk of heart attack is four to seven times higher in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) than women of the same age without PCOS.

Women with PCOS are at greater risk of having high
blood pressure and have high levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and low levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol. Lack of ovulation is usually the reason for fertility problems in women with PCOS.

More than 50% of women with PCOS have diabetes or prediabetes (impaired glucose tolerance) before the age of 40.

Women with PCOS are also at risk for endometrial cancer. Irregular menstrual periods and the lack of ovulation cause women to produce the hormone estrogen, but not progesterone. Without progesterone, the endometrium becomes thick, which can cause heavy or irregular bleeding. Over time, this can lead to endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.
1778

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13
Q
190. In the United States, the most common cause of cancer deaths in men is:
A) Lung cancer
B) Prostate cancer
C) Colon cancer
D) Skin cancer
A
  1. A) Lung cancer Lung cancer is the most common cause of cancer deaths in men (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 2017). Prostate cancer and colon cancer are the second and third causes of cancer death in men.
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14
Q
297. The most common cause of cancer deaths for women in the United States is:
A) Breast cancer
B) Lung cancer
C) Colon cancer
D) Uterine cancer
A
  1. B) Lung cancer Lung cancer is the most common cause of cancer deaths in women as well as men (U.S. Cancer Statistics Working Group, 2017).
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15
Q
  1. At what level of prevention would you classify screening for lung cancer?
    A) Primary prevention
    B) Secondary prevention
    C) Tertiary prevention
    D) Screening for lung cancer is not currently recommended
A
  1. D) Screening for lung cancer is not currently recommended

Primary prevention involves methods to avoid occurrence of disease in the general
population.

Secondary prevention involves screening, diagnosis, and treatment of existing disease in early stages before it causes significant morbidity.

Tertiary prevention involves methods to reduce the negative impact of an existing disease by
restoring function and reducing disease-related complications.

Screening for lung cancer is not currently recommended for the general population.

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16
Q
  1. According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, which of the following tests
    should be used to screen for lung cancer?
    A) Chest radiograph
    B) Bronchoscopy with biopsy
    C) Low-dose computed tomography (LDCT)
    D) Sputum for cytology
A
  1. C) Low-dose computed tomography (LDCT) The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends annual screening for lung cancer with low-dose computed tomography in adults aged 55 to 80 years who have a 30-pack-year smoking history
    and currently smoke (or quit within the past 15 years).

Discontinue screening once a person has not smoked for 15 years or develops a health problem that substantially limits life expectancy or willingness to have curative lung surgery.

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17
Q
  1. A 36-year-old woman is seen by the nurse practitioner for a Pap smear and
    gynecological exam. The patient is of Ashkenazi Jewish ethnicity. Her mother
    died of breast cancer at age 50 years. Her 57-year-old sister has recently been
    diagnosed with breast cancer. The breast exam is negative for a dominant mass and
    the axillae do not contain any masses. All of the following are appropriate measures
    for this patient except:
    A) Mammogram and MRI of the breast
    B) Referral to a breast specialist
    C) Check serum carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and cancer antigen (CA) 125
    levels
    D) Genetic counseling and BRCA testing
    1265
A
  1. C) Check serum carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and cancer antigen (CA) 125 levels

The patient is a woman who is of Ashkenazi Jewish background with a positive family history of breast cancer (mother, sister).

She is at very high risk for BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations (hereditary breast cancer).

The U.S. Preventive Services
Task Force (2013) recommends that primary care providers screen women for a family history of breast, ovarian, tubal, or peritoneal cancer. 

Women with positive screening results should receive genetic screening, and, if indicated after counseling,
BRCA testing. These high-risk women are screened with a mammogram and breast MRI and are best managed by breast cancer specialists.

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18
Q
  1. A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is requesting prophylaxis
    before her dental surgery. Which of the following would you prescribe this patient?
    A) Amoxicillin a half hour before and 2 hours after the procedure
    B) Amoxicillin 1 hour before the procedure
    C) Amoxicillin 1 hour before and 3 hours after the procedure
    D) Prophylaxis is not recommended for this patient
A
  1. D) Prophylaxis is not recommended for this patient Current American Heart Association guidelines (2017) do not recommend endocarditis prophylaxis for most
    patients with aortic or mitral valve disease, including those with mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation or for patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

Patients at highest risk for infective endocarditis (IE) are those with prosthetic heart valves,
including mechanical, bioprosthetic, and homograft valves; prior history of IE; unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease; prosthetic material used for valvular repair; repaired congenital heart disease with residual shunts or with catheter-based
intervention; and others.

The high-risk procedures are dental work with
manipulation of tissue, tooth extractions, and certain respiratory tract procedures.

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19
Q
  1. Medicare Part B will pay for all of the following services except:
    A) Outpatient physician visits that are medically necessary
    B) Durable medical equipment
    C) Outpatient laboratory and radiology tests
    D) Eyeglasses and routine dental care
A
  1. Medicare Part B will pay for all of the following services except:
    A) Outpatient physician visits that are medically necessary
    B) Durable medical equipment
    C) Outpatient laboratory and radiology tests
    D) Eyeglasses and routine dental care
20
Q
  1. A postmenopausal woman complains of random episodes of vaginal bleeding
    for the past 6 months. Which of the following is recommended management for
    this condition?
    A) Cervical biopsy
    B) Pap smear
    C) Colposcopy
    D) Endometrial biopsy
A
  1. D) Endometrial biopsy Random episodes of vaginal bleeding in a postmenopausal woman are not normal. Endometrial biopsy is needed to evaluate a
    specimen of the endometrial lining for abnormal cells, which may indicate cancer.
21
Q
462. Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) are at higher risk for the following:
A) Heart disease and endometrial cancer
B) Uterine fibroids and ovarian cancer
C) Premature menopause
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
A
  1. A) Heart disease and endometrial cancer Chronic anovulation results in high levels of estrogen and androgens in the body.

The risk of heart attack is four to seven
times higher in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) than women of the same age without PCOS.

Women with PCOS are at greater risk of having high
blood pressure and have high levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and low levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol.

Lack of ovulation is usually the
reason for fertility problems in women with PCOS.

More than 50% of women with
PCOS have diabetes or prediabetes (impaired glucose tolerance) before the age of 40.

Women with PCOS are also at risk for endometrial cancer. Irregular menstrual periods and the lack of ovulation cause women to produce the hormone estrogen, but not progesterone. Without progesterone, the endometrium becomes thick,
which can cause heavy or irregular bleeding. Over time, this can lead to endometrial
hyperplasia and cancer.

22
Q
  1. A female patient, who has a BMI (body mass index) of 29 has a 20-year history of primary hypertension. She has been taking hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily with excellent results.

On this visit, she complains of feeling thirsty all the time even though she drinks more than 10 glasses of water per day. She reports to the nurse practitioner that she has been having this problem for about 6 months.

Upon reading the chart, the nurse practitioner notes that the last two fasting blood glucose
levels have been 140 mg/dL and 168 mg/dL. The result of a random blood glucose test is 210 mg/dL. Which of the following is the appropriate action to follow at this
visit?
A) Order another random blood glucose test in 2 weeks
B) Initiate a prescription of metformin (Glucophage) 500 mg PO BID
C) Order a 3-hour glucose tolerance test
D) Order an A1C level

A
  1. D) Order an A1C level.

The next step is to check the A1C level. The treatment
goal is an A1C less than 7%. But if the patient is frail or has frequent hypoglycemic episodes, the American Diabetes Association allows a goal of up to 8%. If the A1C level is 6.5 or higher, the patient has type 2 diabetes.

23
Q
  1. Which of the following patients is least likely to become an alcoholic?
    A) A patient whose father has a history of alcoholism
    B) A patient whose wife complains that he drinks too much
    C) A patient who drinks one glass of wine nightly with dinner
    D) A patient who feels he drinks all the time
A
  1. C) A patient who drinks one glass of wine nightly with dinner

Excessive use or exposure to alcohol increases the risk of becoming an alcoholic.

A patient who drinks one glass of wine at dinner has a lower risk of becoming an alcoholic than someone
who has been exposed to alcohol while growing up, one who drinks all the time, or one whose family believes he is drinking excessively.

24
Q
  1. A 65-year-old man with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 and a history of asthma
    has hypertension that has been well controlled with hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg PO
    daily. His total cholesterol is 230 g/dL. How many risk factors for coronary artery
    disease (CAD) does he have?
    A) One risk factor
    B) Two risk factors
    C) Three risk factors
    D) Four risk factors
A
  1. D) Four risk factors The risk factors for coronary artery disease for this patient
    are (1) 65-year-old male, (2) overweight (body mass index [BMI] of 30), (3)
    hypertension, and (4) total cholesterol 230 g/dL.
25
Q
40. Signs and symptoms of depression include all of the following except:
A) Anhedonia
B) Low self-esteem
C) Apathy
D) Apraxia
A
  1. D) Apraxia
    Apraxia is characterized by loss of the ability to execute or carry out learned purposeful movements despite the desire and the physical ability to perform the movements. Apraxia is not a sign or symptom of depression; it is a disorder of motor planning caused by damage to specific areas of the cerebrum.

Common signs of depression include anhedonia (loss of interest in activities that the patient finds pleasurable), unintentional weight loss or gain, fatigue, change in appetite, insomnia or hypersomnia, feelings of guilt and worthlessness, and recurrent thoughts of suicide.

26
Q
  1. All of the following are true statements regarding elder abuse except:
    A) Those aged 80 years or older are at the highest risk for abuse
    B) A delay in medical care is a common finding
    C) A new onset of a sexually transmitted disease (STD) in an elderly patient may
    signal sexual abuse
    D) Decreased anxiety and depression are common symptoms of abuse in the elderly
A
  1. D) Decreased anxiety and depression are common symptoms of abuse in the
    elderly

In an abusive situation, the patient may experience increased anxiety, may not want the nurse practitioner to see his or her unclothed body, may not speak in
front of the abuser, and may exhibit depression and despair. A new onset of a sexually transmitted disease (STD) may indicate signs of sexual abuse. These patients commonly delay treatment for acute and chronic conditions.

27
Q
  1. A sexually active 16-year-old girl is brought by her mother for a physical exam.
    During the exam, the nurse practitioner notices some bruises on both breasts. All of
    the following are important areas to evaluate in this patient during this visit except:
    A) Depression
    B) Tanner stage
    C) Sexual history
    D) Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
A
  1. B) Tanner stage

The stem of the question is asking for the important areas to evaluate in this patient “during this visit.” This is a priority-type question. The
priorities to evaluate in this patient are depression, sexually transmitted disease (STD) testing, and sexual history. The Tanner staging does not have to be done
“during this visit.”

28
Q
  1. All of the following statements are true regarding domestic abuse except:
    A) There is no delay in seeking medical treatment
    B) The pattern of injuries is inconsistent with the history reported
    C) Injuries are usually in the “central” area of the body instead of the extremities
    D) Pregnant women have a higher risk of domestic abuse
A
  1. A) There is no delay in seeking medical treatment

When assessing for domestic abuse, the most common body area that is abused is the “swimsuit” area, which is usually covered by clothing. Suspect abusive relationships when the history is inconsistent with the injury. Due to shame and the secrecy of domestic violence, most victims do not seek medical attention until after several episodes of violence.
The violent partner may refuse to let the partner out of his or her “control.” Studies have shown that the incidence of battery escalates during pregnancy.

29
Q
7. Kyphosis is a late sign of:
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Osteopenia
C) Osteoporosis
D) Osteoarthritis
A
  1. C) Osteoporosis Kyphosis is a curvature of the spine that causes a rounding of the back, which leads to a slouching posture. Severe thinning of the bones
    (osteoporosis) contributes to this curvature in the spine. Symptoms that may occur
    with severe cases of kyphosis include difficulty breathing, fatigue, and back pain.
30
Q
  1. Which of the following antihypertensive medications has beneficial effects for an elderly White woman with osteoporosis?
    A) Calcium channel blockers
    B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
    C) Beta-blockers
    D) Thiazide diuretics
A
  1. D) Thiazide diuretics Thiazide diuretics have a favorable effect in patients with osteopenia and osteoporosis by slowing down the kidney’s excretion of calcium and increasing distal tubule calcium reabsorption. This results in decreased
    bone demineralization. Thiazide diuretics are a good choice of therapy for this population because they treat hypertension and slow bone loss.
31
Q
90. All of the following measures have been found to help lower the risk of osteoporosis except:
A) Drinking organic orange juice
B) Eating low-fat dairy foods
C) Performing weight-bearing exercises
D) Vitamin D supplementation
A
  1. A) Drinking organic orange juice

Commercial orange juice is fortified with calcium and vitamin D. But organic products usually do not have any additives such as calcium. Vitamin D levels must be sufficient for the body to absorb calcium.
Eating foods high in vitamin D and calcium along with calcium and vitamin D supplements is advised to protect the bones and prevent bone loss. Performing
weight-bearing exercises daily also increases bone strength.

32
Q
  1. Which of the following individuals is most likely to be at higher risk for
    osteoporosis?
    A) 70-year-old woman of African ancestry who walks daily for exercise
    B) 42-year-old obese woman from Cuba who has been taking prednisone 10 mg
    daily for the past 12 years to control her severe asthma
    C) 55-year-old Caucasian woman who is an aerobics instructor
    D) 45-year-old Asian woman who has been on high-dose steroids for 1 week
    777
A
  1. B) 42-year-old obese woman from Cuba who has been taking prednisone 10 mg daily for the past 12 years to control her severe asthma

Risk factors for osteoporosis include postmenopause, early menopause, use of chronic steroids,
smoking, excessive use of alcohol, sedentary lifestyle, insufficient intake of calcium and vitamin D in the diet, and being an Asian or Caucasian female.

33
Q
  1. Which of the following T-scores is indicative of osteoporosis?
    A) T-score of 0 to −1.0
    B) T-score of −1.0 to −2.0
    C) T-score of −2.5 or less
    D) Diagnosis is based on an x-ray series of the spine
A
  1. C) T-score of −2.5 or less

Osteoporosis is defined as having a T-score of −2.5 or less. Risk factors should also be considered when interpreting T-scores for diagnosis.

34
Q
  1. Thiazide diuretics have been shown to have a beneficial effect on the bones,
    making them a desirable treatment option in hypertensive women with
    osteopenia or osteoporosis. What is the mechanism of action for their effect on the
    bones?
    A) Thiazide diuretics decrease calcium excretion by the kidneys and stimulate
    osteoclast production
    B) Thiazide diuretics increase both calcium and magnesium retention by the
    kidneys
    C) Thiazide diuretics increase bone mineral density (BMD)
    D) Thiazide diuretics influence electrolyte excretion by the kidneys
A
  1. A) Thiazide diuretics decrease calcium excretion by the kidneys and stimulate osteoclast production This positive side effect of thiazides results in a decrease in
    calcium bone loss and an increase in bone mineral density.
35
Q
  1. All of the following factors are associated with a higher risk of osteopenia and osteoporosis except:
    A) Excessive alcohol intake and cigarette smoking
    B) Asian or Caucasian ancestry
    C) Obesity
    D) Older age
A
  1. C) Obesity

Obesity is not a risk factor for bone loss. But being female, older age, in menopause, having a small thin frame, being of Caucasian or Asian race, family
history of osteoporosis, excessive alcohol use, and long-term cigarette smoking are
risk factors.

36
Q
680. All of the following conditions are more common in the geriatric population except:
A) Macular degeneration
B) Osteoporosis
C) Parkinson’s disease
D) Acute otitis media
A
  1. D) Acute otitis media

Acute otitis media is more common in children. Macular degeneration, osteoporosis, and Parkinson’s disease are more common in the geriatric
population.

37
Q
298. Human papillomavirus infection in women has been associated with the
development of:
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Infertility
C) Cervical cancer
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
A
  1. C) Cervical cancer

There are more than 30 types of human papillomavirus
(HPV). HPV types in the anogenital region have been strongly associated with lowgrade
and high-grade cervical change, cervical neoplasia, as well as anogenital and other cancers. An HPV vaccine is recommended for girls and boys between the ages
of 15 and 21 years of age to help prevent four strains of this virus.

38
Q
  1. A charitable foundation plans to build a community youth center in a large urban
    area with a history of gang violence. What type of health prevention activity is being
    done in this area?
    A) Primary prevention
    B) Secondary prevention
    C) Tertiary prevention
    D) Health prevention
A
  1. A) Primary prevention

A community youth center with good staffing can be
an effective method of drawing the children out of the streets into a safer environment. It can reduce the risk of children becoming victims of gang violence.
In addition, staff members can serve as role models or mentors for the older children.

39
Q
185. Swim therapy (aqua therapy) for a 13-year-old with cerebral palsy is an example of:
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Health prevention
A
  1. C) Tertiary prevention

Tertiary prevention is any type of rehabilitation for a
particular condition. Examples include physical rehab (swimming), cardiac rehab,
and/or speech therapy.

40
Q
  1. At what level of prevention would you classify screening for lung cancer?
    A) Primary prevention
    B) Secondary prevention
    C) Tertiary prevention
    D) Screening for lung cancer is not currently recommended
A
  1. D) Screening for lung cancer is not currently recommended

Primary prevention involves methods to avoid occurrence of disease in the general
population.

Secondary prevention involves screening, diagnosis, and treatment of existing disease in early stages before it causes significant morbidity.

Tertiary prevention involves methods to reduce the negative impact of an existing disease by
restoring function and reducing disease-related complications.

Screening for lung cancer is not currently recommended for the general population.

41
Q
  1. All of the following factors are associated with a higher risk of osteopenia and
    osteoporosis except:
    A) Excessive alcohol intake and cigarette smoking
    B) Asian or Caucasian ancestry
    C) Obesity
    D) Older age
A
  1. C) Obesity Obesity is not a risk factor for bone loss. But being female, older age, in menopause, having a small thin frame, being of Caucasian or Asian race, family history of osteoporosis, excessive alcohol use, and long-term cigarette smoking are risk factors.
42
Q
  1. Lifestyle modifications are an important aspect in the treatment of hypertension.
    Which of the following statements is incorrect?
    A) Reduce intake of sodium, potassium, and calcium
    B) Reduce intake of sodium and saturated fats
    C) Exercise at least three to four times per week
    D) Maintain an adequate intake of potassium, magnesium, and calcium
A
  1. A) Reduce intake of sodium, potassium, and calcium

Lifestyle modifications for hypertension include exercise three to four times a week, diet modifications of reduced intake of sodium and saturated fats, and adequate dietary intake of potassium, magnesium, and calcium.

43
Q
  1. A middle-aged patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes wants to start an exercise program.

All of the following statements are true except:
A) If the patient is unable to eat due to illness, antidiabetic agents can be continued
with frequent glucose monitoring
B) Strenuous exercise is contraindicated for most patients with type 2 diabetes
because of a higher risk of hypoglycemic episodes
C) Exercise increases the body’s ability to metabolize glucose
D) Patients who exercise vigorously in the afternoon may have hypoglycemic episodes in the evening or at night if they do not eat

A
  1. B) Strenuous exercise is contraindicated for most patients with type 2 diabetes because of a higher risk of hypoglycemic episodes

Exercise is recommended because exercise helps to use the glucose stores and reduce blood sugar.

When exercising, the patient should monitor blood sugar closely, especially if using insulin, to avoid hypoglycemia.

44
Q
576. Acanthosis nigricans is associated with all of the following disorders except:
A) Obesity
B) Diabetes
C) Colon cancer
D) Tinea versicolor
A
  1. D) Tinea versicolor

Acanthosis nigricans is a benign skin condition that is a sign of insulin resistance. It appears as hyperpigmented velvety areas that are usually located on the neck and the axillae. It is rarely associated with some types of adenocarcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract. Tinea versicolor is a superficial infection of the skin (stratum corneum layer) that is caused by dermatophytes (fungi) of the
tinea family. Another name for it is sunspots.

45
Q
  1. An 87-year-old man is being seen at the health clinic. He tells the nurse practitioner that his grandson locks him in the bedroom when the grandson goes out of the house and sometimes withholds food from him if he does not give the
    grandson spending money. The patient appears frail, with poor grooming, and has a strong odor of urine on his clothing. Which of the following is the best action for the nurse practitioner to take?
    A) Report the patient’s grandson for elder abuse to the state protective health services
    B) Speak to the grandson and educate him about the importance of proper grooming for his grandfather
    C) Advise the grandson that if the patient has the same complaints the next time he is seen, the grandson will be reported for elder abuse to the state authorities
    D) Advise the patient that he should call his son as soon as possible to tell him
    about the grandson’s actions
A
  1. A) Report the patient’s grandson for elder abuse to the state protective health services

Speaking with the grandson and warning him about elder abuse and being reported to authorities may result in harm to the patient and/or refusal to return to
the clinic in the future for follow-up of the patient. Advising the patient to call his son as soon as possible is vague (for what?) and may benefit the patient but it is not
the best option in this case.