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Agile Cert > Practice Questions > Flashcards

Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Commitment to delivery and prioritization in Agile projects are usually part of

A

Sprint Planning

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2
Q

Choose the correct Extreme Programming (XP) practice names from the following options:

A
  • Test-driven development
  • refactoring
  • pair programming
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3
Q

What describes the Sprint Review Meeting?

A
  • It is conducted at the end of the Sprint to gather the feedback from Product Owner on the progress
  • It is associated with the demo of the software developed in the Sprint
  • Product Owner reviews the deliverables as per ‘Done’ definition
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4
Q

Visualize work stages, Limit Work in progress, Measure and Manage flow are related to which of the following?

A

Kanban

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5
Q

At the lowest level of any Scaled Agile method, Scrum, XP or Kanban are generally followed

A

True

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6
Q

What is TRUE regarding daily stand-up meeting?

A

It is conducted every day at the same time where all team members update what they did yesterday, plan for today and mention any road blocks.

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7
Q

Sprint Burndown Chart helps the Agile Projects for –

A
  • Tracking project progress on a daily basis
  • Quick reference for Team to know , if any issue to achieve Sprint goal
  • Plotted for remaining effort against the days of the sprint
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8
Q

Product backlog is owned and maintained by

A

Product Owner

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9
Q

What is CORRECT about Continuous Integration (CI)?

A
  • Code needs to be frequently checked in
  • Automated builds facilitate CI
  • CI helps to identify integration defects in the early stages of the project
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10
Q

Test Driven Development and Unit Testing are similar practices in different names.

A

False

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11
Q

Which of the following options is the effective way of conducting Daily Stand-up meeting for the teams distributed in different geographic locations?

A

Leverage time zone difference in the most effective way and accepted by the team

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12
Q

What are important practices for execution of Agile projects in distributed environment?

A
  • Effective usage of communication and collaboration platforms
  • Building up trust among team members with frequent meetings
  • Active participation of team members across locations in daily stand up, review and retrospective meetings
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13
Q

In cases where Product Owner (PO) and development team do not have any time overlap, which is the BEST way to conduct Sprint Planning meeting?

A

Team should do certain activities, like analysis, in advance before the actual Sprint Planning meeting with PO

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14
Q

At which stage of the project is it recommended for the teams to co-locate?

A

During Initiation stage of the project

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15
Q

The advantage of deploying ALM (Application Lifecycle Management) tool in distributed team environment is –

A
  • Provides Visibility and Traceability of entire project
  • Manages Reports (tracking project status and Burndown charts)
  • Manages Project artifacts
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16
Q

In ‘InfyAgile Global’ projects, Release Planning is associated with –

A

Establishing estimates

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17
Q

Continuous Integration and Continuous Testing does not support which of the following CMMI process area –

A

Technical Solution

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18
Q

Objective of ‘Quantitative Project management practice’ in ‘InfyAgile Global’ projects is to:

A

Obtain the predictability of project performance

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19
Q

Problem and defect prevention, and identification of action items for improvement are recommended to be done during –

A

Sprint Retrospective Meeting

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20
Q

Which one of the following CMMI process areas is addressed when requirements are traceable and consistent through mechanisms of Product Backlog and User Stories?

A

Requirements Management

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21
Q

One of the Cs in 3 ‘C’ Method represents:

A

Conversation

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22
Q

For Epic, which is the most CORRECT definition?

A

Epics are large requirements broken down in smaller stories

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23
Q

Product Backlog is

A

Ordered (Prioritized) list of stories, defects, other work items committed for Sprints

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24
Q

The third ‘C’ of the 3C method, ‘Confirmation’ represents

A

Acceptance Tests

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25
Q

Sprint Backlog is:

A

Forecasted (committed) list of Product Backlog for the Sprint

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26
Q

What is NOT maintained as part of design in Agile?

A

Detailed design document with pseudo code

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27
Q

Which of the following is more flexible design?

A
  • Classes with singular responsibilities
  • Classes with increase cohesion and reduce coupling
28
Q

Code Refactoring is done to –

A
  • Remove duplication and unused code
  • Change code structure to make it modular and simpler
  • Increase reuse
29
Q

If a method returns a collection, as part of encapsulation collection refactoring technique, it is recommended to make the method return read-only view and provide add/remove methods. This statement is –

A

True

30
Q

An interface between high-level and low-level classes is implemented using –

A

Dependency Inversion principle

31
Q

What is NOT an essential element of Continuous Integration?

A

Database Structure

32
Q

Robin is the Scrum Master of an Agile Team, working on a critical project with stringent timelines. He has observed that his team is spending significant time in fixing defects found at the end of the Sprint. Which of the following practice should Robin ask the team to adopt?

A

Check-in code daily, as a practice, perform local build frequently before integrating changes to server and run smoke test

33
Q

Is Continuous Delivery and Continuous Deployment are same concept in two different name

A

No, there is a difference between these two the way deployment is done

34
Q

How does Continuous Delivery complement Continuous Integration in terms of faster delivery?

A
  • Deploying the working software in the right environment so that it can be accessed by enduser
  • Providing the logical conclusion of the development being done
  • Faster feedback cycle
35
Q

What tool can be used for the deployment of a Continuous Integration Server?

A

Jenkins

36
Q

Choose the option(s) that is/are relevant to Test Driven Development.

A
  • Failing tests
  • Refactoring
  • Enough code to make tests pass
37
Q

TDD can be used for requirements which are not stated clearly

A

False

38
Q

What is INCORRECT with respect to TDD?

A

Arrive at an upfront design and freeze it before starting TDD

39
Q

What is the correct sequence for TDD from the below options

A

Write Test –> RunTest –> Develop Code –> Refactor Code

40
Q

What is TRUE regarding TDD?

A
  • Enables writing ‘clean code’ which is fully tested
  • Helps avoid speculative coding
  • Helps in defect reduction and high quality code generation
41
Q

Which of the following is the BEST mechanism for effective Collaboration and Communication between teams and Product Owner?

A

Face-to-Face interaction

42
Q

Which of the following techniques is BEST to collaborate between client and distributed teams while demonstrating new features?

A

Screen sharing

43
Q

Which of the following facilitates good communication?

A
  • Use live or real-time communication channels
  • Use available tools like instant messaging, video/voice conference
  • Not wait for a planned meeting till end of the day
44
Q

Workshop is an event where –

A

A group of people collaborate for gathering, understanding and prioritizing requirements

45
Q

Sprint Reviews are an effective way to –

A
  • Share information and improve communication with all stakeholders
  • Inspect and adopt what has been developed in the current Sprint and collaborate on what needs to be done next
  • Notify the Product Owner with overall status of the project
46
Q

How is planning done for Agile Projects?

A

Planning is done in a collaborative way involving the entire Team

47
Q

What is FALSE about Agile Planning?

A

Agile practices need not be planned upfront

48
Q

Infrastructure Planning for Agile is needed only when projects are executed in distributed environment.

A

False

49
Q

What is TRUE about Quality Management Planning?

A
  • It is intended to define and measure project goals
  • It is done at Project, Release and Sprint level
50
Q

Why is Sprint 0 important in package context?

A
  • To know about the dependency in the modules
  • To understand roles and responsibilities in case of multi-vendor context
  • Fitgap Analysis
51
Q

Who is NOT involved during estimation for Agile projects?

A

End-user

52
Q

What is NOT an estimation methodology at Proposal Level?

A

Story Point

53
Q

Story Point estimation is done for Sprint Planning

A

False

54
Q

What is CORRECT about Function Point Estimation

A

It is an industry standard method for measurement

55
Q

Story Point estimation has below properties

A
  • Consensus-based
  • Can differ from team to team for same User Stories
  • Is a Relative measure of complexity
56
Q

What is the purpose of Burndown charts?

A
  • To visually represent the progress of the project
  • To provide an indication on when the remaining work will be completed
  • To graphically represent work yet to be completed over a time scale
57
Q

QPM aligns project level strategies to meet the objectives at the Sprint and Release level.

A

True

58
Q

What is the purpose of setting goals at a Project, Release and Sprint level?

A
  • To help team plan the project better in terms of realistic targets, appropriate strategies and quantitatively track Project/Sprint progress
  • To monitor the project progress and update internal stakeholders in an objective manner
59
Q

Sprint level metrics for Infosys Global Agile projects is/are:

A
  • Velocity
  • Defect density
60
Q

To define the goals for a project, what are the feasible options to adopt?

A
  • Past performance of similar project of different client
  • Process capability base line of the organization
  • Past performance of the same project with same client
61
Q

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence for risk management process?

A
  1. Risk Identification
  2. Risk Analysis
  3. Risk Response Planning
  4. Risk Monitoring and Control
62
Q

What are the risk response strategies for managing risks?

A
  • Risk Avoidance
  • Risk Mitigation
  • Risk Acceptance
63
Q

Requirements are not detailed before start of the Sprint and are changing during the Sprint. Under which of the following category does this risk fall?

A

Scope/Requirements/NFRs

64
Q

The identified tools are not suitable for Test Automation in Agile projects. What would be the probable mitigation action for this risk?

A

Perform proper due diligence before proposing automation tool for Agile testing

65
Q

What risk DOES NOT qualify under Environment and Infrastructure category?

A

Unrealistic commitments to the clients has exposed the project to very high risk situations

Agile Cert (4 decks)

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