DeepDive Management

Question 1

‘Time-and-Material’ (T&M) contracts

Answer 1

when the project effort is not clearly predictable. In this type of contract, client pays the software vendor by total number of hours/days of effort put into the project

Application maintenance projects normally are contracted on a T&M basis.

Question 2

fixed price software contract

Answer 2

defines the service to be provided and states a single price for the project regardless of how much time and expenses the software service vendor incurs

most commonly deployed in the Development or Re-engineering type of projects.

two subtypes:

• Fixed price for fixed amount of work in fixed schedule
• ) Fixed price for fixed scope (applicable only if scope is very well detailed during the contract phase

Question 3

Acceptance criteria

Answer 3

an explanation attached to the user story which describes how a particular user story will be tested and accepted

Question 4

Regarding Contract Negotiation

Answer 4

Collaboration with customer is more valuable than the contract mediation

Question 5

Contracts in Agile projects

Answer 5

• The contractual agreements pertaining to procurement process should be varied in Agile projects.
• The legal aspects of Agile project contracts need to be changed as compared to the traditional project contracts
• If Contractual agreements are not aligned in context of execution of Agile projects, it would likely to get into challenges and risks.

Question 6

Since Sprint duration is internal to Agile project execution, it must not be covered as part of project contract.

Answer 6

True

Question 7

At what stage of the project ‘Definition of Done’ criteria for Sprint and Release level should get discussed?

Answer 7

At the Sprint Planning

Question 8

Software projects are typically controlled by four major variables

Answer 8

• Schedule
• Scope
• Cost
• Effort

Question 9

Estimation is done at the following three stages

Answer 9

• Proposal or Project Level
• Release Level
• Sprint Leve

Question 10

function point

Answer 10

the metric which converts requirements or user stories into a number.

Question 11

Quick Function Points

Answer 11

method is a unique approach for rapidly estimating FP

Question 12

DETs

Answer 12

Data Element Types

Question 13

RETs

Answer 13

Record Element Types

Question 14

FTRs

Answer 14

File Type Referenced

Question 15

ILFs

Answer 15

Internal Logical Files

Question 16

EIFs

Answer 16

External Interface Files

Question 17

Story Point

Answer 17

represents the relative amount of work required to implement a feature, compared to other features.

Question 18

4D framework

Answer 18

• Demand, Fit Gaps Business processes, System Landscape, NFRs, Product defects and Information Architecture will be taken as inputs.
• Determine, These rationalized list of requirements will be analyzed based on their business relevance during, and they will be mapped to Epics and Themes
• Define, stage the User Stories will be derived by analyzing technical feasibility, business benefits and they will get updated in the Product Backlog
• Decide, stage they will be groomed and prioritized in terms of risk and dependency and the groomed product backlog will be created.

Question 19

Infrastructure Planning for Agile is needed only when projects are executed in distributed environment.

Answer 19

True

Question 20

Process Performance Models (PPMs)

Answer 20

enable the team to validate size and determine effort and schedule by applied estimation technique

Question 21

Sprint Retrospective report

Answer 21

aims at providing leading indicators, like Velocity, Defect Density, for project progress to identify corrective and preventive actions

Question 22

What is the purpose of setting goals at a Project, Release and Sprint level?

Answer 22

• To help team plan the project better in terms of realistic targets, appropriate strategies and quantitatively track Project/Sprint progress
• To monitor the project progress and update internal stakeholders in an objective manner

Question 23

‘Risk Profiler

Answer 23

risk assessment questionnaire