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Biochemistry > Practice Questions > Flashcards

Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Esterase is an enzyme in the body cleaves C-O-C bonds by using water as a nucleophile. What type of enzyme is it, and what type of compound is cleaved?

A. Lyase: Fatty Acid Chain
B. Isomerase: DNA
C. Hydrolase: Triglyceride
D. Hydrolase: Proteins Primary structural chain

A

C. Hydrolase: Triglyceride

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2
Q

What is the correct order of strength from least to greatest?

A. Hydrogen Bond -> Covelant Bond -> Van Der Walls -> Dipole Interaction

B. Hydrogen Bonds -> Van Der Waals -> Electrostatic Interactions -> Covelant Bonds

C. Induced Dipole-Dipole -> Hydrogen Bonds -> Dipole-Dipole -> Covelant Bonds

D. Induced Dipole-Dipole -> Dipole-Dipole -> Electrostatic interaction -> Covelant Bond

A

D. Induced Dipole-Dipole -> Dipole-Dipole -> Electrostatic interaction -> Covelant Bond

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3
Q

You are pondering life and notice the water in the straw you are drinking from (Cue dramatic Music). You remember your Biochemistry lecture which taught you that the force binding the water to the edge of the straw is ________, while the force. Creating tension of the surface of the water is due to _________.

A. Cohesion; Adhesion
B. Density; Ionization energy
C. Adhesion; Cohesion
D. Electron affinity; opsonization

A

C. Adhesion; Cohesion

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4
Q

Strong Acids generally have a ________ Ka, ________ pKa, and ______ Energy of Interaction.

A. Large, Large, Small
B. Large, Small, Small
C. Small, Large, Large
D. Small, Small, Large

A

B.. Large, Small, Small

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5
Q

Weak acid generally have a ________ Ka, ________ pKa, and ______ Energy of Interaction.

A. Large, Large, Small
B. Large, Small, Small
C. Small, Large, Large
D. Small, Small, Large

A

C. Small, Large, Large

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6
Q

Strong bases generally have a ________ Ka, ________ pKa, and ______ Energy of Interaction.

A. Large, Large, Small
B. Large, Small, Large
C. Small, Large, Small
D. Small, Small, Large

A

B. Large, Small, Large

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7
Q

Weak bases generally have a ________ Ka, ________ pKa, and ______ Energy of Interaction.

A. Large, Large, Small
B. Large, Small, Large
C. Small, Large, Small
D. Small, Small, Large

A

C. Small, Large, Small

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8
Q

Which of the following are correctly paired?

A. Exergonic; -H; -S
B. Catabolic; -H; +S
C. Anabolic; -H; +S
D. Endergonic; +H, +S

A

B. Catabolic; -H, +S

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9
Q

Which conditions generate the most favorable outcome?

A. Highly Exergonic; High temperature; High spontaneity

B. Highly endergonic; Low Temperatures; negative spontaneity

C. Highly exergonic; High Temperatures; Negative Spontaneity

D. Highly endergonic; Hight temperature; High Spontaneity

A

A. Highly endergonic; High temperature; High spontaneity

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10
Q

In the lab, Joe is trying to calculate free energy for a biochemical reaction not in equilibrium. Which factor does he need to use in his calculations in addition to free energy at standard state?

A

A. Ionization energy
B. Energy released
C. Temperature
D. Spontaneity

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11
Q

Nucleosides lack a _____ group on the _____ carbon.

A. OH; 2’
B. PO4; 5’
C. PO4; 1’
D. NH2; 4’

A

B. PO4; 5’

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12
Q

Phosphodiester bonds form on which two carbons of the sugar in a nucleic acid chain?

A. 3’ and 5’
B. 1’ and 5’
C. 2’ and 5’
D. 2’ and 4’

A

A. 3’ and 5’

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13
Q

Purines feature a cyclical structure featuring _____ Nitrogens in the ring structure and have side groups on Carbons ________.

A. 2; 2, 4, and 5
B. 2: 2 and 6
C. 4; 4 and 6
D. 4; 2 and 6

A

D. 4; 2 and 6

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14
Q

Which DNA structure is the most physiological relevant?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. Z

A

B. B

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15
Q

What is characteristic of hairpin/cruciform structures?

A. Homopurine duplexes
B. Hoogsteen H-Bonds
C. Palindromic Sequences
D. Guanine-only areas

A

C. Palindromic sequences

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16
Q

What type of structure is common at telomeres?

A. Hairpins
B. Quadruplexes
C. Triplexes
D. Quintaplexes

A

B. Quadruplexes

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17
Q

Sickle Cell Disease is caused by a mutation. Where A -> T. This is also called what?

A. Translation mutation
B. Frameshift mutation
C. Transition mutation
D. Deletion mutation

A

C. Transition mutation

18
Q

What phenomenon commonly results in hairpin structures in DNA?

A. Transition mutation
B. Depurination
C. Depyrimidization
D. Frameshift mutation

A

B. Depurination

19
Q

Which compound acts as an analog which binds to A or G nucleotides?

A. BrdU
B. 6-Ethylguanine
C. Psoralen
D. 8-oxoguanine

A

A. BrdU

20
Q

Which of the following primarily form adducts with neighboring pyrimidine residues?

A. Alkylation agents
B. UV Light
C. Intercalated agents
D. Ionizing radiation

A

C. Intercalating agents

21
Q

A nonspecific protein Genericase-2 has a s dipole by alternating Negatively and positively charged AAs every 3 places. Which of the. Following could be part of this protein?

A. ANILSW
B. ANFIEL
C. LNFILF
D. FAFAFA

A 
B. Alanine - NP
    Asparagine - Basic
    Phenylalanine - NP
    Isoleucine - NP
    Glutamic Acid - Acidic
    Leucine - NP
22
Q

A certain biochemical reaction requires the use of a Guanidino group as a catalyst. Which Amino Acid could be used?

A. Alanine
B. Aspartic Acid
C. Arginine
D. Asparagine

A

C. Arginine

23
Q

Tyrosine is made through a nucleophilic addition of an alcohol. Which Amino acid is used in the process of making Tyrosine?

A. Tryptophan
B. Glycine
C. Phenylalanine
D. Glutamic Acid

A

C. Phenylalanine

24
Q

A scientist wants to create a protein that has one basic side with very little steric hindrance. Which amino acids would be best?

A. Lysine
B. Histidine
C. Glutamine
D. Phenylalanine

A

?

25
Q

What stabilizes reverse turns in Beta-sheets?

A. Hydrogen Bonds
B. Disulfide Bonds
C. Covalent interactions
D. Induced dipole-dipole

A

A. Hydrogen Bonds

26
Q

What best describes superhelical alpha-coiled coil proteins?

A. The two helices in a-keratin associate with each other by strong interactions such as covalent bonding

B. Characterized by a side region of 300 amino acid that contains triplet repeats

C. Involved in regulation of Oncoproteins c-Fos, c-jun.

D. Reversal directions provide compact and globular shapes for polypeptide chains

A

C. Involved in regulation of Oncoproteins c-Fos, c-jun.

27
Q

What best describe the Molten Globule State?

A. The presence of a specific tertiary structure produced by the loose packing of amino acid side chains

B. The presence of a native-like content of secondary structure

C. Uncondensed in the overall shape of the protein molecule, with a radius 10 to 30% smaller than that of the native state

D. The presence of a tightly packed hydrophilic core that increases the hydrophilic surface area accessible to solvent

A

B. The presence of the native-like content of secondary structure

28
Q

Which type of interaction is primarily responsible for tertiary structure?

A. Disulfide Bond
B. Phosphodiester Bonds
C. Hydrogen Bonds
D. Peptide bonds

A

A. Disulfide Bonds

29
Q

Which best describes cooperativity in protein folding?

A. Molten globule stage is
intermediate, and takes very long to develop.

B. loss of folding stabilizes the remainder of the structure

C. The protein folding and
unfolding is an “ all or none”
process

D. Extracellular proteins often have
several S-S bonds

A

C. The protein folding and

unfolding is an “ all or none” process

30
Q

Which of the following is NOT a condition for protein denaturation?

A. PH
B. Agitation
C. Low pressure
D. Heat

A

C. Low pressure

31
Q

Which of the following is NOT a chemical used to denature proteins?

A. H20
B. SDS
C. Urea
D. TCA

A

A. H2O

32
Q

Which heat shock protein Integrates signaling functions, acting at a late stage of folding of substrates?

A. Hsp60
B. Hsp70
C. Hsp90
D. Hsp10

A

C. Hsp90

33
Q

Which statement best describes a Dominant negative mutation?

A. ncorrectly folded proteins lead to improper subcellular localization

B. A mutant protein
antagonizes the function
of the wild-type protein

C. Overactive cellular 
degradation systems (ERAD 
and autophagy) can 
contribute the accumulation 
of mutant, misfolded , 
incomplete degraded 
proteins

D. Protein conformational
changes can cause
dominant phenotypes

A

B. mutant protein
antagonizes the function
of the wild-type protein

34
Q

Which of the following is not a step in the development of amyloid plaques?

A. Seeding
B. Fibril formation
C. Deposit
D. Stacking

A

D. Stacking

35
Q

Which of the following occur in the unfolded protein response (UPR) that can ultimately lead to the
development of type -2 diabetes?

A. General protein synthesis is activated to produce more proinsulin
B. Chaperon synthesis is stimulated
C. Misfolded proteins are removed from the ER and are subsequently delivered to the proteasome for destruction
D. Apoptosis is triggered, leading to cell death

A

D. Apoptosis is triggered, leading to cell death

36
Q

Which statement is most accurate regarding homologous proteins?

A. Homologous proteins require conserved amino acid sequences to maintain similar secondary structures

B. A protein’s structure is more highly conserved than its sequence.

C. True homologous com from the ancestor, and diverged later in the evolutionary tree

D. All of the above

A

B. A protein’s structure is more highly conserved than its sequence

37
Q

What sentence best describes Blosum-62?

A. Matches based on amino acid substitution

B. Alignment scores are calculated for many shuffled sequences, and the number of sequences generating a particular score is plotted against the score

C. Uses conservative substitutions which replaces an amino acid with one with different chemical properties.

D. Substitution matrix, which can reveal homologies not identified by sequence alignments only

A

D. Substitution matrix, which can reveal homologies not identified by sequence alignments only

38
Q

Which acronym is a a database which searches for non redundant protein sequences at NCBI?

A. BRAVO
B. NRPS
C. BLAST
D. SARCO

A

C. BLAST

39
Q

Which pair of globin chains makes up the majority of hemoglobin found in the normal human fetus?

– A. a2b2 
– B. a2g2 
– C. a2d2 
– D. z2b2 
– E. a1g3
A

B. a2g2

40
Q

A newborn was stillborn. After examination, it was determined that the baby had tetramers of the Beta chain in their hemoglobin. What pathology is this consistent with?

A. HbH disease
B. Sickle Cell Anemia
C. Hydrops fetalis
D. Alpha+ Thelassemia

A

A. HbH disease

41
Q

A Mediterranean man walks into the clinic with hyperchromia. None of his parents exhibit hyperchromia. What is the likely phenotype of one of his parents?

A. A a/- -
B. A -/ - -
C. A a/ a -
D. - -/- -

A

C. a a/a -

Biochemistry (9 decks)

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