Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The indifferent embryo begins phenotypic sexual differentiation during:

A. Week 3 of development
B. Week 5 of development
C. Week 7 of development
D. Week 12 of development
E. Week 20 of development
A

C. Week 7 of development

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2
Q

The indifferent embryo completes phenotypic sexual differentiation during:

A. Week 3 of development
B. Week 5 of development
C. Week 7 of development
D. Week 12 of development
E. Week 20 of development
A

E. Week 20 of development

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3
Q

After the sinovaginal bulbs have proliferated and fused, they form a solid core of endodermal cells called the:

A. Vestibule of the vagina
B. Uterovaginal primordium
C. Urogenital sinus
D. Vaginal plate
E. Clitoris
A

D. Vaginal plate

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4
Q

A structure found within the adult female pelvis formed from the gubernaculum is the

A. Broad ligament
B. Suspensory ligament of the ovary
C. Round ligament of the uterus
D. Medial umbilical ligament
E. Median umbilical ligament
A

C. Round ligament of the uterus

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5
Q

One day a 9 y/o girl tells her mother that she is a boy. The mother is shocked but does not act on the comment. During the next few years, the mother notices some tomboyish behavior and difficulty in social adjustment at school. When the girl is 12 years old, puberty starts with striking virilization of external genitalia. The mother is extremely concerned and seeks medical attention. What is the most likely cause?

A. Male pseudo-intersexuality
B. Female pseudo-intersexuality
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
D. Testicular feminization
E. Illegal use of anabolic steroids
A

A. Male pseudo-intersexuality

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6
Q

The most common cause of female pseudo-intersexuality is

A. A 46,XO genotype
B. A 47,XXY genotype
C. Lack of androgen receptors
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
E. Inadequate production of testosterone and MIF
A

D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

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7
Q

Bilateral cryptorchidism usually results in

A. Impotence
B. Sterility
C. Male pseudo-intersexuality
D. Female pseudo-intersexuality
E. Testicular feminization syndrome
A

B. Sterility

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8
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the true pelvis?

A. It is superior to the pelvic brim and occupied by the abdominal viscera
B. It does not include the sacrum and coccyx, as those are part of the false pelvis
C. It is bordered superiorly by the pelvic brim and inferiorly by the muscular pelvic diaphragm
D. It is bordered superiorly by the pelvic brim and inferiorly by the lines drawn between the greater trochanter

A

C. It is bordered superiorly by the pelvic brim and inferiorly by the muscular pelvic diaphragm

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9
Q

What is the significance of the puborectalis muscle?

A. It helps to externally rotate the thigh
B. It tightens during urination and defecation
C. It helps maintain fecal continence by relaxing
D. Sitting down will fully relax the muscle and allow colon to empty quickly

A

C. It helps maintain fecal continence by relaxing

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10
Q

A 25 y.o. white female presents to your clinic with c/c of RLQ pain, nausea and vomiting for one day. She says the pain began suddenly during a rec league soccer game. She rates the pain a 9/10. The patient undergoes laparoscopic surgery for suspected appendicitis but the surgical team finds that the right ovary is necrotic secondary to an ovarian torsion. In what structure is the ovarian artery located?

A. Broad ligament
B. Round ligament
C. Uterosacral ligament
D. Suspensory ligamnt
E. Cardinal ligament
A

D. Suspensory ligament

[contains ovarian vessels and may be considered part of broad ligament]

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11
Q

A 25 y.o. white female presents to your clinic with c/c of RLQ pain, nausea and vomiting for one day. She says the pain began suddenly during a rec league soccer game. She rates the pain a 9/10. The patient undergoes laparoscopic surgery for suspected appendicitis but the surgical team finds that the right ovary is necrotic secondary to an ovarian torsion. What vessel(s) do the ovarian arteries branch off of?

A. anterior division of the internal iliac a.
B. Aorta
C. External iliac a.
D. Posterior division of the internal iliac a.
E. Uterine a.
F. Common iliac a.

A

B. Aorta

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12
Q

A 32 y.o. Hispanic G1P1 woman presents to your clinic 3 months after the birth of her first child with c/c of urinary incontinence. She says this began soon after her son was born and is most noticeable when she laughs and sneezes. She tells you her son weighed 9 lbs 2 oz at birth and that she had a long delivery during which an episiotomy had to be performed. You suspect a problem with the external urethral sphincter. What nerve supplies this muscle?

A. Inferior hypogastric plexus
B. Superior hypogastric plexus
C. Inferior rectal n.
D. Dorsal n. of the clitoris
E. Perineal branch of the pudendal n.
A

E. Perineal branch of the pudendal n.

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13
Q

A 65 y.o. African American woman presents to your clinic with c/c of a mass on her right labia minora. She says that the mass has been slowly getting bigger for many years and that it is extremely itchy. You have a high suspicion of vulvar cancer. If a cancer in this location has spread through the lymphatic system (direct extension) what lymph node group would be the first to be affected?

A. Lumbar
B. External iliac
C. Internal iliac
D. Deep inguinal
E. Superficial inguinal
A

E. Superficial inguinal

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14
Q

A 65 y.o. African American woman presents to your clinic with c/c of a mass on her right labia minora. She says that the mass has been slowly getting bigger for many years and that it is extremely itchy. You have a high suspicion of vulvar cancer. An infection or cancer in which location would NOT spread to the superficial inguinal nodes?

A. Vaginal vestibule
B. Vagina
C. Cervix
D. Uterine fundus
E. Fallopian tubes
A

E. Fallopian tubes [drain to lumbar nodes]

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15
Q

After a long and painful delivery a 23 y.o. white female gives birth to her first child, a boy. The infant has APGAR scores of 8 after delivery and 10 at 5 minutes. During development, which of the following is directly responsible for the formation of the penis, scrotum, and prostate in males?

A. Testosterone from fetal Leydig cells
B. Testosterone from Sertoli cells
C. DHT from fetal Leydig cells
D. DHT from Sertoli cells
E. AMH from fetal Leydig cells
F. AMH from fetal Sertoli cells
A

C. DHT from fetal Leydig cells

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16
Q

After a long and painful delivery a 23 y.o. white female gives birth to her first child, a boy. The infant has APGAR scores of 8 after delivery and 10 at 5 minutes. The same patient has another baby 3 years later, this time a healthy baby girl. During development of the internal female reproductive tract, what event forms the uterus?

A. Fusion of superior paramesonephric ducts
B. Fusion of inferior paramesonephric ducts
C. Fusion of superior mesonephric ducts
D. Fusion of inferior mesonephric ducts

A

B. Fusion of inferior paramesonephric ducts

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17
Q

A 15 y.o. female presents to your primary care clinic for a sports physical. She has normal breast development, normal external genitalia, but has not yet had her first menstrual period. Her mother reports that the patient had normal external genitalia at birth. Further testing shows that she has high levels of testosterone and an US reveals absent uterus and absent upper vagina. Which of the following would also be expected about this patient?

A. XX genotype
B. Undescended testes found on US
C. Deficiency in 21-hydroxylase
D. Deficiency in 5 alpha-reductase
E. Gonads with testicular and ovarian tissue
A

B. Undescended testes found on US

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18
Q

During a particularly difficult labor, the OBGYN you are working with considers making a surgical incision in the area between the vagina and anus. During the repair, what order do you place the sutures in?

A. The muscular layer, the vaginal wall, the skin
B. The vaginal wall, the subcutaneous fascia, the muscle layers
C. The vaginal wall, the muscle layer, and the subcutaneous fascia
D. The rectal mucosa, the anal sphincter, and the perineal mm

A

C. The vaginal wall, the muscle layer, and the subcutaneous fascia

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19
Q

The blood supply to the scrotum and penis in the male, and the labia majora and clitoris is via branches of which artery?

A. Internal pudendal a.
B. Internal iliac a.
C. Deep femoral a.
D. Femoral a.
E. Perineal a.
A

D. Femoral a. [external pudendal is a branch off femoral that sends both deep and superficial branches to structures above]

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20
Q

A 2 month old male is brought to your clinic because his parents believe his genitals are not developing correctly. All routine genetic tests are normal. The infant is not in distress; the mother assures you she did not take any teratogenic drugs during pregnancy. Serum testosterone levels are normal. You suspect a less common problem may be affecting the child. What is the most likely dx?

A. Congenital absence of sex hormone binding globulin
B. Decreased LH/FSH secretion
C. Defect in side chain cleavage enzyme
D. Defect in 5 alpha-reductase
E. A genotype of 47,XXY
A

D. Defect in 5 alpha-reductase

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21
Q

A 2 month old male is brought to your clinic because his parents believe his genitals are not developing correctly. All routine genetic tests are normal. The infant is not in distress; the mother assures you she did not take any teratogenic drugs during pregnancy. Serum testosterone levels are normal. 5 alpha-reductase activity is nonexistent. US of lower abdomen, pelvis, and genitals shows no structural abnormalities. His testosterone, being normal, was most likely in which form in his blood?

A. Free (unbound)
B. Bound to androgen binding protein
C. Bound to sex hormone binding globulin
D. Bound to albumin
E. Bound to cortisol binding globulin
A

C. Bound to sex hormone binding globulin

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22
Q

A 2 month old male is brought to your clinic because his parents believe his genitals are not developing correctly. All routine genetic tests are normal. The infant is not in distress; the mother assures you she did not take any teratogenic drugs during pregnancy. Serum testosterone levels are normal. 5 alpha-reductase activity is nonexistent. US of lower abdomen, pelvis, and genitals shows no structural abnormalities. His enzymatic deficiency would normally be found in what location of the body?

A. Leydig cells
B. Sertoli cells
C. Peripherally
D. Adrenal gland
E. Seminiferous tubules
A

C. Peripherally

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23
Q

A 27 y/o male comes to your fertility clinic with his wife complaining of difficulty conceiving. Routine tests show wife is normal but he has low sperm count. Where is the best spot to take a sample to assess morphology of his sperm?

A. Vas deferens
B. Prostate gland
C. Ejaculatory ducts
D. Epididymis
E. Seminal vesicles
A

D. Epididymis

24
Q

A 27 y/o male comes to your fertility clinic with his wife complaining of difficulty conceiving. Routine tests show wife is normal but he has low sperm count. A sample from the epididymis is taken. Decapacitation has taken place in the sperm and DNA test confirms mature spermatozoa with haploid 1N karyotype. Morphologically, the sperm are normal. The ability of sperm to mature in isolation from the rest of the body is d/t what phenomenon?

A. Separate immune system in the testes protecting it from the body
B. Internal vasculature system
C. Leydig cell phagocytosis
D. Sertoli cell derived barrier
E. Capsule around sperm head
A

D. Sertoli cell derived barrier — blood testis barrier

25
Q

A 27 y/o male comes to your fertility clinic with his wife complaining of difficulty conceiving. Routine tests show wife is normal but he has low sperm count. A sample from the epididymis is taken. Decapacitation has taken place in the sperm and DNA test confirms mature spermatozoa with haploid 1N karyotype. Morphologically, the sperm are normal. Which of the following could have precipitated this condition?

A. Administration of exogenous LH
B. Administration of exogenous FSH
C. Administration of exogenous testosterone
D. Pulsatile administration of GnRH analog
E. Adenoma of the posterior pituitary

A

C. Administration of exogenous testosterone

26
Q

Radiographic studies of a 42 y/o woman reveal vulvar malignancy involving clitoris. Removal of all affected LNs would be indicated to avoid spread of this cancer. Which are the first LNs to filter lymph drainage of involved area?

A. Superficial and deep inguinal nodes
B. Internal iliac nodes
C. Paraaortic nodes
D. Presacral nodes
E. Axillary nodes
A

A. Superficial and deep inguinal nodes

27
Q

A 34 y/o woman complains of severe lower abdominal pain. Radiographic exam reveals bilateral ovarian tumors. Biopsy is ordered and confirms initial dx of ovarian cancer. Which of the following LNs are the first to receive lymph from diseased ovaries?

A. Superficial and deep inguinal nodes
B. External iliac nodes
C. Paraaortic nodes at level of renal vessels
D. Node of cloquet
E. Internal iliac nodes accompanying the uterine a. and v.

A

C. Paraaortic nodes at level of renal vessels

28
Q

A 58 y/o postmenopausal woman is diagnosed with carcinoma of distal GI tract. During surgery, nodes from sacral, internal iliac, and inguinal nodes were removed and sent for histopathologic exam. The path report revealed positive cancer cells only at inguinal LNs. Which of the following parts of GI tract were most likely affected?

A. Cutaneous portion of anal canal
B. Distal rectum
C. Mucosal zone of anal canal
D. Pectinate line of anal canal
E. Proximal rectum at inferior valve (of Houston)
A

A. Cutaneous portion of anal canal

29
Q

A 58 y/o postmenopausal woman complains of pelvic discomfort and dull pain. LNs from sacral, internal iliac, and inguinal nodes are removed for histopathologic exam. Path report reveals positive cancerous cells only in inguinal nodes. Which pelvic organ would most likely be involved in this cancer?

A. Body of uterus
B. Distal rectum
C. One or both ovaries
D. Proximal rectum
E. Anal canal superior to pectinate line
A

A. Body of uterus

30
Q

A 42 y/o female pt has malignancy involving vestibule of vagina. Which are the first LNs to filter lymph drainage from this area and therefore most likely to become involved in tumor spread?

A. Superficial inguinal
B. Internal iliac
C. Lumbar/lateral aortic
D. Presacral
E. Axillary lymph
A

A. Superficial inguinal

31
Q

A 55 y/o man complains of pain at his anus. Exam reveals external hemorrhoids. Which of the following nerves carries pain sensation from the anus?

A. Sacral splanchnic
B. Superior hypogastric
C. Pelvic splanchnic
D. Pudendal
E. Ilioinguinal
A

D. Pudendal

32
Q

A 68 y/o male is admitted to hospital with dysuria, nocturia, urgency, and painful urination. MRI exam reveals enlargement and irregularity of uvula of urethra d/t prostatic hypertrophy. Lab investigation reveals high levels of PSA suggesting prostatic carcinoma and a prostatectomy is performed. Which of the following LNs should be removed during prostatectomy?

A. Internal iliac and sacral
B. External iliac
C. Superficial inguinal
D. Deep inguinal
E. Gluteal
A

A. Internal iliac and sacral

33
Q

A 22 y/o male is admitted to the hospital with groin pain and blood in the semen. An MRI exam and biopsy reveal testicular cancer. Which of the following LNs will be first involved in case of metastasis?

A. Internal iliac
B. External iliac
C. Superficial inguinal
D. Deep inguinal
E. Paraaortic and lumbar
A

E. Paraaortic and lumbar

34
Q

A 68 y/o male underwent radical prostatectomy. 6 months post-op he complains of being incapable of penile erection without the use of Viagra. Which of the following nerves was most probably damaged during the operation?

A. Pudendal
B. Perineal
C. Pelvic splanchnic
D. Sacral splanchnic
E. Dorsal n. to the penisq
A

C. Pelvic splanchnic

35
Q

A 15 y/o is admitted to the ED 2 days after crashing his bike. MRI exam reveals severe edema of the boy’s scrotum and abdominal wall and extravasated urine. Which of the following structures is most likely ruptured?

A. Spongy urethra
B. Preprostatic urethra
C. Prostatic urethra
D. Urinary bladder
E. Ureter
A

A. Spongy urethra

36
Q

A 19 y/o woman is admitted with hypotension and intense pelvic pain. PE reveals heavy blood loss during this menstrual period. Speculum exam reveals irritation of the cervix of the uterus. Which of the following nerves conveys sensory fibers from the cervix of the uterus?

A. Pudendal
B. Superior hypogastric
C. Pelvic splanchnic
D. Sacral splanchnic
E. Lesser splanchnic
A

C. Pelvic splanchnic

37
Q

A 38 y/o woman presents for a routine Pap exam. During collection of cells from uterine cervix she feels mild pain. Which of the following areas is most likely to experience referred pain during this procedure?

A. Perineum and lateral portion of thigh
B. Suprapubic region
C. Umbilical region
D. Inguinal region
E. Epigastric region
A

A. Perineum and lateral portion of thigh

38
Q

What is the site of implantation in placenta previa?

A. Uterine (fallopian) tubes
B. Cervix
C. Mesentary of abdominal wall
D. Lower part of uterine body, overlapping internal cervical os
E. Fundus of uterus
A

D. Lower part of uterine body, overlapping internal cervical os

39
Q

A 32 y/o woman’s pap smear reveals atypical cervical cells indicating possible cervical cancer. Which of the following LNs need to be biopsied to confirm the existence of initial metastasis from the suspected cancerous tumor?

A. Internal iliac
B. External iliac
C. Superficial inguinal
D. Deep inguinal
E. Sacral
A

A. Internal iliac

40
Q

A 41 y/o male s/p vasectomy presents with pain in his testis. The dx was made for postvasectomy pain syndrome. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured?

A. Sympathetic fibers to ductus deferens
B. Ilioinguinal
C. Iliohypogastric
D. Genital branch of genitofemoral
E. Visceral afferent T10-L2
A

E. Visceral afferent T10-L2

41
Q

For male differentiation to occur during embryonic development, testosterone must be secreted from the testes. What stimulates the secretion of testosterone during embryonic development?

A. LH from maternal pituitary gland
B. HCG
C. Inhibin from the corpus luteum
D. GnRH from the embryo’s hypothalamus

A

B. HCG

42
Q

A 20 y/o woman is not having menstrual cycles. Her plasma progesterone concentration is found to be minimal. What is the explanation for the low level of progesterone?

A. LH secretion is elevated
B. LH secretion rate is suppressed
C. FSH secretion rate is suppressed
D. No corpus luteum is present
E. High inhibin concentration in the plasma has suppressed progesterone synthesis
A

D. No corpus luteum is present

43
Q

2 days before the onset of menstruation, secretions of FSH and LH reach their lowest levels. What is the cause of this low level of secretion?

A. The AP gland becomes unresponsive to stimulatory effect of GnRH
B. Estrogen from the developing follicles exerts a feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus
C. The rise in body temperature inhibits hypothalamic release of GnRH
D. Secretion of estrogen, progesterone, and inhibin by the corpus luteum suppresses hypothalamic secretion of GnRH and pituitary secretion of FSH

A

D. Secretion of estrogen, progesterone, and inhibin by the corpus luteum suppresses hypothalamic secretion of GnRH and pituitary secretion of FSH

44
Q

During the latter stages of pregnancy, many women experience an increase in body hair growth in a masculine pattern. What is the explanation for this phenomenon?

A. The ovaries secrete some testosterone along with large amounts of estrogen produced late in pregnancy
B. The fetal ovaries and testes secrete androgenic steroids
C. The maternal and fetal adrenal glands secrete large amounts of androgenic steroids that are used by the placenta to form estrogen
D. The placenta secretes large amounts of estrogen, some of which is metabolized to testosterone

A

C. The maternal and fetal adrenal glands secrete large amounts of androgenic steroids that are used by the placenta to form estrogen

45
Q

A 37 y/o man is suffering from carcinoma of the skin of the penis. Cancer cells are likely to metastasize directly to which of the following lymph nodes?

A. External iliac nodes
B. Internal iliac nodes
C. Superficial inguinal nodes
D. Aortic (lumbar) nodes
E. Deep inguinal nodes
A

C. Superficial inguinal nodes

46
Q

A 42 y/o woman who has had six children develops a weakness of the urogenital diaphragm. Paralysis of which of the following muscles would cause such a symptom?

A. Sphincter urethrae
B. Coccygeus
C. Superficial transversus perinei
D. Levator ani
E. Obturator internus
A

A. Sphincter urethrae

47
Q

A 22 y/o man has a gonorrheal infection that has infiltrated the space between the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm and the superficial perineal fascia. Which of the following structures might be inflamed?

A. Bulb of the penis
B. Bulbourethral gland
C. Membranous part of the male urethra
D. Deep transverse perineal m.
E. Sphincter urethrae
A

A. Bulb of the penis

48
Q

After his bath but before getting dressed, a 4 y/o boy was playing with his puppy. The boy’s penis was bitten by the puppy, and the deep dorsal v. was injured. The damaged vein:

A. Lies superficial to Buck’s fascia
B. Drains into the prostatic venous plexus
C. Lies lateral to the dorsal a. of the penis
D. Is found in the corpus spongiosum
E. Is dilated during erection

A

B. Drains into the prostatic venous plexus

49
Q

After repair of a ruptured diverticulum, a 31 y/o pt begins to spike a fever and complains of abdominal pain. An infection in the deep perineal space would most likely damage which of the following structures?

A. Ischiocavernosus muscles
B. Superficial transverse perineal muscles
C. Levator ani
D. Sphincter urethrae
E. Bulbospongiosus
A

D. Sphincter urethrae

50
Q

A 75 y/o man presents to his family physician with complaints of generalized fatigue, weight loss, and anorexia for 5 months. He denies difficulty urinating, dysuria, hesitancy, and feelings of incomplete emptying with urination. During physical exam, the patient looks unwell. The abdomen was flat, soft, and was not tender, with no organomegaly or inguinal lymphadenopathy. Digital rectal exam was performed and one of the lobes of the prostate was found to be enlarged. The patient was referred to the urologist. What structure was most likely affected in this patient’s condition?

A. The posterior lobe of the prostate
B. The fibromuscular zone of the prostate
C. The median zone of the prostate
D. The lateral zone of the prostate
E. The lateral capsule of the prostate
A

A. The posterior lobe of the prostate

[note that the posterior lobe is often cancerous, while the median and lateral lobes are affected by BPH]

51
Q

An obstetrician administered anesthesia to a 30 y/o pregnant woman in labor. The physician palpated the ischial spine transvaginally and then injected a local anesthetic. Injection of the anesthetic at this location blocked a nerve that most likely contained fibers from which of the following ventral rami?

A. S2, S3, S4
B. L4, L5, S1
C. L5, S1, S2
D. S1, S2, S3
E. S3, S4, S5
A

A. S2, S3, S4

52
Q

A 69 y/o male is admitted to the hospital with a painful mass on the glans penis. A biopsy of the mass reveals carcinoma. Which lymph nodes will most likely be affected first if metastatic spread of the cancer occurs?

A. External iliac
B. Internal iliac
C. Deep inguinal
D. Lumbar/lateral aortic
E. Axillary
A

C. Deep inguinal

53
Q

A 36 y/o man is admitted to the hospital after a car crash. An MRI scan reveals rupture of the penile urethra and deep (Buck’s) fascia. Where is the most likely place to which extravasated urine will flow?

A. Ischioanal fossa
B. Rectovesical pouch
C. Deep perineal pouch
D. Retropubic space
E. Superficial perineal pouch
A

E. Superficial perineal pouch

54
Q

A 66 y/o woman with MS suffers from neurologic urinary incontinence. Involvement of which nerve causes dysfunction of her external urethral sphincter, leading to this incontinence?

A. Pelvic splanchnic
B. Sacral splanchnic
C. Pudendal
D. Superior gluteal
E. Inferior gluteal
A

C. Pudendal

55
Q

A 55 y/o woman presents complaining of blood in her stools. Physical exam reveals firm, enlarged inguinal LNs. A contrast CT shows a possibly cancerous mass is visualized in the lower part of the GI tract. In which location is the mass most likely located?

A. Anal canal inferior to the pectinate line
B. Distal rectum
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Proximal rectum
E. Anal canal superior to the pectinate line

A

A. Anal canal inferior to the pectinate line