Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A 4-month-old male infant is admitted to the pediatric clinic because he was passing urine near the anus rather than from the tip of the penis. Physical examination reveals that the patient has perineal hypospadias. Which of the following embryologic structures failed to fuse?

A. Labioscrotal Folds
B. Cloacal Membrane
C. Urogenital Folds
D. Genital Tubercle
E. Urogenital Membrane
A

A. Perineal hypospadias is due to a failure of fusion of labioscrotal folds so that the external urethral orifice is between the unfused halves of the scrotum.

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2
Q

A 2-month-old infant has epispadias and the bladder mucosa is exposed to the outside. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?

A. Failure of the Primitive Streak Mesoderm to migrate around the cloacal membrane
B. Failure of the urethral folds to fuse
C. Insufficient Androgen Stimulation
D. Klinefelters Syndrome
E. Persistent Allantois
A

A. When the urinary bladder mucosa is open to the outside in the fetus or newborn, the condition is referred to as extrophy of the bladder. The extrophy results from failure of the primitive streak mesoderm to migrate around the cloacal membrane, and it occurs often in combination with epispadias.

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3
Q

A bifid ureter or paired unilateral ureters result from partial or complete division of which of the following embryologic structures?

A. Ureteric Bud / Metenephric Diverticulum
B. Mesonephric Duct
C. Paramesonephric Duct
D. Metanephric Mesoderm
E. Pronephros
A

A. The ureteric bud, or metanephric diverticulum, is an outgrowth from the mesonephric duct. It is the primordium of the ureter, renal pelvis, the calyces, and the collecting tubules. Incomplete division results in a divided kidney with a bifid ureter. Complete division results in a double kidney with a bifid ureter, or separate ureters.

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4
Q

A 6-year-old boy has a large intraabominal mass in the midline just above the pubic symphysis. During surgery a cystic mass is found attached to the umbilicus and to the apex of the bladder. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hydrocele
B. Meckel Cyst
C. Meckel Diverticulum
D. Omphalocele
E. Urachal Cyst
A

E. The persistence of the epithelial lining of the urachus can give rise to a urachal cyst. This swelling is found in the midline in the umbilical region.

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5
Q

A 4-month-old infant is admitted to the pediatric clinic because urine can be observed passing through an opening on the dorsum of the penis. Which of the following embryologic structures failed to fuse?

A. Spongy Urethra
B. Labioscrotal Folds
C. Cloacal Membrane
D. Urogenital Folds
E. Genital Tubercle
A

A. Epispadias is a developmental defect in the Spongy Urethra resulting in urine being expelled from the dorsal aspect of the penis.

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6
Q

A 16-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain and fever. Laboratory examination is remarkable for an elevated white blood cell count and a positive test for pregnancy. Colpocentesis is performed to ascertain the presence of blood in the pelvis from the ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Through which of the following structures does the needle need to be inserted?

A. Through the perineal body into the vesicouterine space
B. Through the posterior fornix into the rectouterine pouch
C. Through the anterior fornix into the endocervical canal
D. Through the introitus into the vestibular gland
E. Through the perineal membrane into the urogenital diaphragm

A

B. This is going to open up into the pouch of Douglass. Blood is NOT likely to enter the vesicouterine space from an ectopic pregnancy. Going through the Membrane by the posterior fornix to enter the Rectouterine pouch is the MOST DIRECT route to test for Pelvic Bleeding.

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7
Q

A 68-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with painful urination and nocturia (urination during the night). MRI examination reveals enlargement and irregularity of the uvula or the urethra. This enlargement resulted in difficulty with urinary voiding and inadequate emptying of the bladder. Which of the following lobes of the prostate gland will most likely be hypertrophied?

A. Anterior
B. Median
C. Lateral
D. Posterior 
E. Lateral and Posterior
A

B. When the internal urethra orifice is obstructed, it is most likely due to an enlargement of the median lobe of the prostate gland. This glandular tissue is most frequently involved in benign hypertrophy.

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8
Q

A 22-year-old male complained to the urologist of pain that he experiences from bladder fullness after drinking large quantities of fluid. What is the location of the neural cell bodies responsible for pain sensation from the urinary bladder?

A. Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord levels S2, S3, and S4
B. The intermediolateral cell column of spinal cord levels S2, S3, and S4
C. The sensory ganglia of spinal nerves T5-T9
D. The preaortic ganglia at the site of origin of the testicular arteries
E. Dorsal root ganglia of spinal levels T10-L2

A

A. Conscious pain due to bladder fullness results from the excitation of stretch receptors in the bladder wall. These pain fibers are carried through the pelvic nerve plexuses and into the pelvic splanchnic nerves. The sensory fibers enter the dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerves S2, S3, and S4.

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9
Q

On digital examination of the vagina, the portion of the uterus that one anticipates palating with the examining finger is the cervix and its external os. Which of the following is the most common position of the uterus?

A. Anteflexed and retroverted
B. Retroflexed and anteverted
C. Anteflexed and anteverted
D. Retroflexed and retroverted

A

C. Normally the uterus is ANTEFLEXED at the junction of the cervix and the body and ANTERVERTED at the junction of the vagina and the cervical canal.

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10
Q

A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department because of pelvic discomfort. During physical examination the gynecologist discovers that the patient has suffered complete uterine prolapse. Which of the following ligaments provides direct support to the uterus?

A. Mesosalpinx and mesometrium
B. Infundibulopelvis Ligament
C. Round Ligament of the uterus
D. Lateral cervical (cardinal) ligament
E. Broad ligament of the uterus
A

D. The cardinal ligament is composed of condensations of fibromuscular tissues that accompany the uterine vessels. These bands of pelvic fascia provide DIRECT support to the uterus

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11
Q

A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital due to severe lower abdominal pain. Radiographic examination reveals tumors in both of her ovaries. A biopsy is ordered and confirms the initial diagnosis of ovarian cancer. Which of the following lymph nodes are the first to receive lymph from the dieseased ovaries?

A. Superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes
B. External iliac nodes
C. Paraaortic nodes at the level of the renal vessels
D. Node of Cloquet
E. Internal iliac nodes accompanying the uterine artery and vein

A

C. Ovarian lymph first drains into the paraaortic nodes at the level of the renal vessels.

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12
Q

After having given birth to five children, a 41-year-old woman seeks correction of chronic urinary incontinence. While relating her history the patient reveals that she have leakage of urine with increased intrabdominal pressure. An MRI examination reveals injury to the pelvic floor that has altered the position of the neck of the bladder and the urethra. Which of the following structures has most probably been injured during the multiple deliveries?

A. Tendinous arch of levator ani
B. Coccygeus
C. Tendinous arch of pelvic fascia
D. Obturator internus
E. Rectovaginal septum
A

C. The tenidnous arch of pelvic fascia is a dense band of connective tissue that joins the fasci of the levator ani to the felt like pubocervical fascia that covers the anterior wall of the vagina. If this fascial band is torn, the ipsilateral side of the vagina falls, carrying with it the bladder and urethra, often leading to urinary incontinence.

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13
Q

A 58-year-old postmenopausal woman is diagnosed with carcinoma of the distal gastrointestinal tract. During surgery lymph nodes from the sacra, internal iliac, and inguinal lymph node groups were removed and sent for histopathologic examination. The pathology report revealed positive cancerous cells only at the inguinal lymph nodes. Which of the following parts of the gastrointestinal tract were most likely affected?

A. Cutaneous portion of anal canal
B. Distal Rectum
C. Mucosal zone of anal canal
D. Pectinate line of anal canal
E. Proximal rectum at the inferior valve (of Houston)
A

A. Lymph from the cutaneous portion of the anal canal (below the pectinate line) drains into the inguinal nodes.

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14
Q

A 13-year-old female is brought to the emergency department with a complaint of severe, deep pelvic discomfort. Physical examination reveals that the patient has an intact hymen. Incision of the hymen reveals hematocolpos. Which of the following conditions is associated with heatocolpos?

A. Cyst of Bartholin Gland
B. Bleeding from an ectopic pregnancy
C. Imperforate hymen
D. Indirect inguinal hernia with cremasteric arterial bleeding
E. Iatrogenic bleeding from the uterine veins

A

C. Hematocolpos is characterized by filling of the vagina with menstrual blood. This commonly occurs due to the presence of an imporforate hymen. Blood from an ectopic pregnancy is going to drain into the rectouterine pouch. Bleeding from the uterine veins would not flow into the vagina.

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15
Q

A 36-year-old male rodeo rider is admitted to the hospital after being thrown violently from a Brahma bull. An MRI scan reveals rupture of the penile urethra and deep (Bucks) fascia. Where is the most likely place that extravasated urine will flow?

A. Inschioanal Fossa
B. Rectovesical pouch
C. Deep perineal pouch
D. Retropubic space
E. Superficial perineal cleft
A

E. Because the penile urethra and deep (Bucks) fascia are both located in the superficial perineal pouch, rupture will occur here, with extravasation of fluids into the superficial perineal cleft.

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16
Q

A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a complaint of painful spasms of her vagina. Physical examination reveals several involuntary contractions of the vaginal musculature. The patient also complains of painful intercourse. Which of the following conditions will most likely describe the signs of this patient?

A. Vaginismus
B. Pudendal nerve compression in the pudendal canal
C. Disruption of the perineal body
D. Endometriosis
E. Fibroma of the uterus
A

A. Vaginismus is a painful, psychosomatic gynecologic disorder; it is describe as involving distension of the cavernous tissues and the bulbospongiosus and transverse perineal muscles, the stimulation of which triggers the involuntary spasms of the perivaginal and levator ani muscles. This can in turn lead to painful intercourse and dyspareunia.

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17
Q

A 46-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department after a car crash. An MRI examination reveals a hematoma of the perineum spreading to his adbomen wall beneath the superficial fascia. Where should the initial extravasation be located?

A. Between the superior aspect of the urogenital diaphragm and the pelvic diaphragm
B. Between the perineal membrane and the fascia of Galaudet
C. Between Camper’s fascia and Scarpa’s fascia
D. Between Colles’ fascia and Gallaudet’s fascia
E. Between Buck’s fascia and the tunica albuginea

A

B. This is a classic example of extravasation of blood and urine from the superificial perineal pouch. This usually is a reuly of rupture of hte spongy urethra. The extravasation of fluid will begin between Buck’s fascia and the dartos layer.

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18
Q

A 15-year-old is admitted to the emergency department 2 days after crashing his bicycle. MRI examination reveals severe edema of a boy’s scrotum and abdominal wall and extravasated urine. Which of the following structures is most likely ruptured?

A. Spongy urethra
B. Preprostatic urethra
C. Prostatic urethra
D. Urinary bladder
E. Ureter
A

A. Rupture of the spongy urethra leads to accumulation of fluid (edema) in the superficial perineal cleft. The continuity of Colle’s fascia (superficial membranous later of the superficial perineal fascia) with Scarpa’s fascia of the abdominal wall allows for fluid to spread upward upon the body wall.

19
Q

A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with low blood pressure and intense pelvic pain. Physical examination reveals heavey blood loss during this menstrual period. Speculum examination reveals irritation of the cervix of the uterus. Which of the following nerves conveys sensory fibers from the cervix to the uterus?

A. Pudendal
B. Superior hypogastric
C. Pelvic splanchnic
D. Sacral splanchnic
E. Lesser splanchnic
A

C. Pain from the cervix is transmitted via the pelvic splanchnic nerves because the cervix is below the pelvic pain line. Pain above the pelvic pain line is carried via nerves that are primarily sympathetic in function.

20
Q

A 38-year-old woman visits her gynecologist for a routine Pap smear examination. During the collection of cells from her uterine cervix she feels a mild pain. Which of the following areas is most likely to experience “referral of pain” during this procedure?

A. Perineum and lateral portion of the thigh
B. Suprapubic region
C. Umbilical region
D. Inguinal region
E. Epigastric region
A

A. Pain from this area is mediated via parasympathetic responses and would thus travel to the S2 to S4 levels. The S2, S3, and S4 spinal cord levels also provide sensory innervation of the perineum and posterior thigh.

21
Q

A 37-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with pelvic pain. Radiographic examination reveals a benign tumor on the left ovary. An ovariectomy is performed and the ovarian vessel is ligated. Which of the following structures is most at risk of injury when the ovarian vessels are ligated?

A. Uterine Artery
B. Vaginal Artery
C. Ureter
D. Internal pudendal artery
E. Pudendal nerve
A

C. The ovarian vessels like anterior to the ureter just proximal to the bifurcation of the arota (“Water under the Bridge”).

22
Q

By which mechanism do LH and FSH return to baseline levels?

A. LH surge
B. Negative feedback on GnRH by progesterone
C. Negative feedback on GnRH by estradiol
D. Negative feedback on GnRH from testosterone

A

C. Just before the LH surge, estradiol levels increase, which causes negative feedback on GnRH to stop producing LH and FSH, resulting in the decrease in their levels.

23
Q

For male differentiation to occur during embryonic development, testosterone must be secreted from the testes. What stimulates the secretion of testosterone during embryonic development?

A. LH from the maternal pituitary gland
B. hCG
C. Inhibin from the corpus luteum
D. GnRH from the embryo’s hypothalamus

A

B. hCG also binds to LH receptors on the interstitial cells of the testes of the male fetus, resulting in the production of testosterone in male fetuses up to the time of birth. This small secretion of testosterone is what causes the fetus to develop male sec organs instead of female sex organs.

24
Q

What is the nongenomic effect of testosterone one vascular smooth muscle?

A. Vasodilation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Increase in Prostaglandins
D. Increase in estrogen receptors

A

A. Testosterone causes vasodilation by inhibiting L-type calcium channels to inhibit calcium influx into the cells, thus causing vasodilation.

25
Q

A professional athlete in her mid-20s has not had a menstrual cycle for 5 years, although a bone density scan revealed normal skeletal minerlization. which fact may explain these observations?

A. She consumes a high-carbohydrate diet
B. Her grandmother sustained a hip fracture at age 79 years
C. Her blood pressure is higher than normal
D. Her plasma estrogen concentration is very low
E. She has been taking anabolic steroid supplements for 5 years

A

E. Anabolic steroids bind to testosterone receptors in the hypothalamus, providing feedback inhibition of normal ovarian cycling and preventing menstrual cycling as well as stimulation of osteoblastic activity in bones.

26
Q

Some cells secrete chemicals into the extracellular fluid that act on cells in the same tissue. Which of the following refers to this type of regulation?

A. Neural
B. Endocrine
C. Neuroendocrine
D. Paracrine
E. Autocrine
A

D. Paracrine communication refers to cell secretions that diffuse into the extracellular fluid to affect neighboring cells.

27
Q

What is a frequent cause of delayed breathing at birth?

A. Fetal hypoxia during the birth process
B. Maternal hypoxia during the birth process
C. Fetal hypercapnia
D. Maternal hypercapnia

A

A. Prolonged Fetal hypoxia during delivery can cause serious depression of the respiratory center. Hypoxia may occur during delivery because of compression of the umbilical cord, premature separation of the placenta, excessive contraction of the uterus, or excessive anesthesia of the mother.

28
Q

A 20-year-old woman is not having menstrual cycles. Her plasma progesterone concentration is found to be minimal. What is the explanation for the low level of progesterone?

A. LH secretion rate is elevated
B. LH secretion rate is suppressed
C. FSH secretion rate is suppressed
D. No corpus luetum is present
E. High inhibin concentration in the plasma has suppressed progesterone synthesis
A

D. The corpus luteum is the only source of progesterone. If she is not having menstrual cycles, no corpus luteum is present.

29
Q

What is the consequence of sporadic nursing of the neonate mother?

A. An increase in prolactin-releasing hormone
B. An increase in oxytocin
C. Lack of birth control
D. Lack of prolactin surge

A

D. Sporadic nursing of the mother results in a lack of prolactin surge because mechanosensors in the nipple cause prolactin release. Without prolactin release, there is a lack of milk production, and the mother eventually will not be able to provide milk for the baby.

30
Q

Before intercourse, a woman irrigates her vagina with a solution that lowers the pH of the vaginal fluid to 4.5. What will be the effect on sperm cells in the vagina?

A. The metabolic rate will increase
B. The rate of movement will decrease
C. The formation of PGE2 will increase
D. The rate of oxygen consumption will increase

A

B. Sperm cell motility decreases as pH is reduced below 6.8. At a pH of 4.5, sperm cell motility is significantly reduced. However, the buffering effect of sodium bicarbonate in the prostatic fluid raises the pH somewhat, allowing the sperm cells to regain some mobility.

31
Q

If a male is born without a penis and testis, a defect is likely in which gene on the Y chromosome?

A. ERE - estrogen response element
B. ARE - androgen response element
C. SRY - affecting Sertoli Cells
D. ERG - early response genes

A

C. SRY is the region on the Y chromosome that encodes a transcription factor that causes differentiation of Sertoli Cells from precursors in testis. If SRY is not present, granulosa cells in the ovary are produced.

32
Q

Two days before the onset of menstruation, secretions of FSH and LH reach their lowest levels. What is the cause of this low level of secretion?

A. The anterior pituitary gland becomes unresponsive to the stimulatory effect of GnRH
B. Estrogen from the developing follicles exerts a feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus
C. The rise in body temperature inhibits hypothalamic release of GnRH
D. Secretion of estrogen, progesterone, and inhibin by the corpus luteum suppresses hypothalamic secretion of GnRH and pituitary secretion of FSH

A

D. Estrogen and, to a lesser extent, progesterone secreted by the corpus luteum during the luteal phase have strong feedback effects on the anterior pituitary gland to maintain low secretory rates of both FSH and LH. In addition, the corpus luteum secretes inhibin, which inhibits the secretion of FSH.

33
Q

Which component of the reproductive system has the most far-reaching effects on physiology of the organism?

A. Y chromosomal effects
B. X Dose - one X chromosome versus two X chromosomes
C. Gonadal Steroid hormones
D. Prenatal Testosterone levels

A

C. The gonadal steroids, in addition to controlling reproductive function, also control nonreproductive organ function via their estrogen and androgen receptors. For example, estrogens control vascular function due to their ability to increase intracellular calcium in vascular smooth cells causing vasodilation. In addition, estradiol upregulates synthesis of endothelial NO synthase, leading to vasodilation.

34
Q

During the latter stages of pregnancy, many women experience an increase in body hair growth in a masculine patter. What is the explanation for this phenomenon?

A. The ovaries secrete some testosterone along with the large amounts of estrogen produced late in pregnancy
B. The fetal ovaries and testes secrete androgenic steroids
C. The maternal and fetal adrenal glands secrete large amounts of androgenic steroids that are used by the placenta to form estrogen
D. The placenta secretes large amounts of estrogen, some of which is metabolized to testosterone

A

C. Estrogen secreted by the placenta is no synthesized from basic structures in the placenta. Instead, it is formed entirely from androgenic steroid compounds that are formed in the adrenal glands of both the mother and the fetus. These androgenic compounds are transported by the blood to the placenta and converted by the trophoblast cells to estrogen compounds. Their concentration in the maternal blood may also stimulate hair growth on the body.

35
Q

A 19-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with significant weight loss and secondary amenorrhea. She has a high-intensity exercise regimen, is preoccupied with food, and seems to have an irrational fear of gaining weight. Decreased production of which of the following hormones leads to amenorrhea in anorexia nervosa?

A. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B. Estradiol
C. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
D. Progesterone
E. Prolactin
A

C. Amenorrhea in patients with anorexia nervosa is hypothalamic in origin due to decreased production of GnRH and subsequent low levels of FSH, LH, and plasma estrogen in women (and testosterone in men). The decreased production of GnRH may be due to a marked reduction in leptin associated with the decreased mass of adipose tissue. In up to 25% of patients, however, amenorrhea precedes significant weight loss.

36
Q

A 32-year-old man taking chlorpromazine for his schizophrenia presents with diminished libido and decreased beard growth. His blood prolactin level of 75 ug/L confirms the diagnosis of hyperprolactinemia. Which of the following is true regarding prolactin?

A. Prolactin causes milk ejecting during suckling
B. Prolactin inhibits GnRH secretion by the hypothalamus
C. Prolactin inhibits gonadotropin secretion by the pituitary gland
D. Prolactin inhibits growth of breast tissue
E. Serum prolactin levels are much higher in women than in men

A

B. Prolactin is a single-chain protein structurally homologous to growth hormone, which is secreted by the anterior pituitary and has the principal physiologic effects of milk production from the breast and inhibition of the effects of gonadotropins. The function of prolactin in normal males is unsettled, but excess prolactin causes impotence, decreased reproductive function, and suppressed sexual drive. Normal adult serum levels of prolactin are about the same or only slightly higher in females compared to males. Consistent with its role in lactogenesis, prolactin secretion increases during pregnancy. Suckling increases prolactin secretion, but milk ejection during suckling is due to oxytocin release. Prolactin inhibits reproductive function by inhibiting GnRH release and pituitary gonadotropin secretion. Hyperprolactinemia is the most common pituitary hormone hyper-secretion syndrome in both males and females. Pregnancy and lactation are the most important physiological causes of hyper prolactinemia. Prolactin-secreting pituitary adenomas, hypothyroidism, and drug-induced inhibition or disruption of dopaminergic receptor function are other common causes of hyperprolactinemia.

37
Q

A 22-year-old woman presents to the obstetrician-gynecologist’s office with complaints of painful menstruation accompanied by profuse menstrual flow. The doctor prescribes ibuprofen and an oral contraceptive. Biological actions of estrogens include a decrease in which of the following?

A. Duct growth in the breasts
B. Libido
C. Ovarian Follicular Growth
D. Serum Cholesterol Levels
E. Uterine smooth muscle motility
A

D. Estrogens have a significant plasma cholesterol-lowering action. Estrogens stimulate the growth and development of the female reproductive tract, including the ovarian follicles, duct growth and enlargement of the breasts, and uterine smooth muscle and its motility, as swell as its blood flow. Estrogen increases libido in humans and has a protective effect against osteoporosis.

38
Q

Administration of estrogens in women will do which of the following?

A. Cause cervical mucus to become thicker and more acidic
B. Decrease Bone Density
C. Limit the growth of ovarian follicles
D. Produce cyclic changes in the vagina and endometrium
E. Retard ductal proliferation in the breast

A

D. Estrogens cause the mucus secreted by the cervix to become thinner and more alkaline and to exhibit a fernlike pattern upon drying. Estrogens can stimulate growth of ovarian follicles even in hypophysectomized women and also stimulate growth of the glandular epithelium of the endometrium, the smooth muscle of the uterus, and the uterine vascular system. Growth of the glandular elements of the breast is stimulated by progesterone; growth of the ductal elements is stimulated by estrogen. Estrogen helps maintain bone density.

39
Q

A 55-year-old woman is experiencing the signs and symptoms of menopause. Her gynecologist discusses with her the possibility of hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Which of the following are effects of postmenopausal HRT?

A. Increases the risk of osteoporosis
B. Reduces the incidence of hot flashes
C. Reduces the risk of breast cancer
D. Reduces the risk of coronary artery disease and stroke
E. Returns the menstrual cycle pattern to normal

A

B. Because of the challenge of weighing the benefits versus risks for each individual, whether or not to use postmenopausal hormone therapy is one of the most complex health-care decisions facing women. In both observational studies and randomized trials, hormone therapy (either estrogen alone or estrogen/progestin) shows definite improvement in vasomotor symptoms (i.e hot flashes and night sweats) and vaginal dryness, and in increasing bone density and reducing the risk of fractures. However, observational studies promoting the use of hormone therapy as a strategy to delay the postmenopausal onset of cardiovascular disease have recently been refuted by randomized trials showing an increased risk of coronary artery disease in stroke with HRT. Hormone therapy also increases the risk of endometrial cancer, breast cancer (with long-term use), venous thromboembolism, and gallbladder disease. Estrogen therapy does not restore a woman’s ability to have children.

40
Q

A 32-year-old woman presents at her physician’s office complaining of nausea and vomiting. The history reveals that her symptoms have been present for over a month and that they seem to be worse in the morning. A urine sample is taken and shows that the woman is pregnant. Physiological changes that occur during pregnancy include which of the following?

A. Decreased production of cortisol and corticosterone
B. Hypercapnia
C. Increased conversion of glucose to glycogen
D. Increased hematocrit
E. Reduced circulating gonadotropin levels

A

E. During pregnancy, the maternal hypothalamic-pituitary axis is suppressed due to high circulating levels of sex hormones. This leads to reduced gonadotropin levels, and , thus, ovulation does not occur. Additionally, hyperventilation leads to decreased arterial carbon dioxide levels. Increased water retention leads to decreased hematocrit. Maternal use of glucose declines and, as a result, gluconeogenesis increases. Plasma cortisol levels increase as the result of progesterone-mediated displacement from transcortin and its subsequent binding to globulin.

41
Q

A woman who is 31 weeks’ pregnant comes to the emergency department with symptoms of preeclampsia. The presence of which of the following signs would changes this initial diagnosis?

A. Edema
B. Hyperreflexia
C. Hypertension
D. Proteinuria
E. Seizure
A

E.

42
Q

A 25-year-old woman with a history of recurrent upper respiratory infections presents to her physician with her fifth such infection in the past year. She mentions that she may be getting sick due to increased stress at home; she and her husband have been trying to conceive unsuccessfully for several years. The patient’s WBC count, immunoglobulin, and platelet levels are within normal limits. Which organizational unit represents the structure most likely to be defective in this patient?

A. Central Pair with nine peripheral pairs of microtubules
B. Collagen a chains in triplets
C. Multilobular nucleus with enzyme-filled granules
D. Numberous adjoining e-cadherin molecules with actin filaments
E. Two longer heavy chains and two shorter light chains linked by disulfide bonds

A

A.

43
Q

Following a normal pregnancy and labor, a baby is born to a young couple. The baby cries immediately and has Apgar scores of 9 at both 1 and 5 minutes. While examining the baby, the pediatrician at delivery notes that the baby has some labial scrotal fusion and a phallus-like organ. The baby is also hypotensive and hypovolemic. Genotyping reveals a karyotype of 46,XX. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s physical findings and symptoms?

A. 11a-Hydroxylase deficiency
B. 17B-Hydroxylase deficiency
C. 21a-Hydroxylase deficiency
D. Mutation in the androgen receptor gene
E. 5a-reductase deficiency
A

C. The female baby has masculinization of her external genitalia due to congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). CAH is caused by deficiencies in enzymes required for adrenocortical steroid synthesis, such as 21a-hydroxylase and 11B-hydroxylase. 21a-Hydroxylase deficiency results in a total lack of synthesis of aldosterone or cortisol, so that all intermediates generate androgen synthesis, leading to elevation of androgen levels and masculinization of tissue. The lack of aldosterone leads to salt wasting, and the infant can present with hypovolemia and hypotension. Treatment includes intravenous saline and steroid hormone replacement.