Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which drug would be most the useful in the treating a 70 year-old hypercalcemic male?

A

torsemide (Demadex)

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2
Q

Potentially serious hyperkalemia would be expected with the simultaneous use of eplerenone (Inspra) and:

A

enlapril (Vasotec)

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3
Q

When treating a hypertensive female, which combination of drugs will elevate the patient’s LDL concentration the most?

A

metoprolol (Lopressor) – hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix)

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4
Q
  1. When treating a 66-year-old male with hypertension and CHF, which of the following drugs would reduce edema and possibly elevate blood pressure due to increased renin secretion?
A

torsemide (Demedex)

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5
Q
  1. Which drug is contraindicated in patients with severe CHF?
A

mannitol (Osmitrol)

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6
Q

When treating a patient with CHF that has a history of sulfonamide hypersensitivity, which of the following drugs would be your first choice?

A

ethacrynic acid (Edecrine)

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7
Q

At which of the following sites will metolazone (Mykrex) inhibit sodium reabsorption?

A

distal convoluted tubule

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8
Q

In Figure X, at what site is the 1 sodium 1 potassium 2 chloride transporter inhibited?

A

NKCC2 is blocked by Loop Diuretics in the thick ascending limb.

Causes hypokalemic, hypochloemic alkalosis

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9
Q

When treating a patient with hypertension, which of the following drugs would be most likely to cause angioneurotic edema?

A

enlapril (Vasotec)

An ACE-Inhibitor (not positive inotropic)

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10
Q

When treating edema, which of the following is the correct order from most effective to least effective?

A

furosamide (Lasix) > hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix) > amiloride

Loop > thiazides > CA > K sparing

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11
Q

When treating a patient who has essential hypertension and CHF, which drug would lower blood pressure without causing reflex tachycardia?

A

carvedilol (Coreg)

an alpha and beta blocker

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12
Q

What is the beneficial effect of dobutamine in the treatment of end-stage CHF?

A

inotropic effect

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13
Q

Which of the following adverse effects is most likely with the use of quinidine (Quinora)?

A

diarrhea

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14
Q

When treating elderly patients with Digoxin (Lanoxin), which of the following is an early sign of digoxin toxicity?

A

vomiting

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15
Q

Which of the following is true regarding digoxin (Lanoxin)?

A

is mostly eliminated by the kidneys

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16
Q

Which of the following drugs has not been proven to reduce mortality in chronic CHF patients?

A

digoxin (Lanoxin)

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17
Q

A patient with CHF, ankle edema and shortness of breath at rest is treated with digoxin (Lanoxin) and a diuretic drug. Which of the diuretic drugs will most likely to provoke cardiac arrhythmias in this patient?

A

furosemide (Lasix)

loop diuretic loss of K+ increases digoxin toxicity

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18
Q

Which of the following cations will decrease a mild to moderate digitalis-induced arrhythmia?

A

potassium

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19
Q

What is the drug of choice in treating a suicidal overdose of digitoxin?

A

digoxin antibodies (Digibind)

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20
Q

Which drug can convert atrial fibrillation into a normal sinus rhythm, and also has adverse effects including ataxia, parasthesias, pulmonary fibrosis, corneal deposits and tremors?

A

amiodarone (Cordarone)

a class III K+ channel blocker for arrhythmia

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21
Q

You are treating a patient that has high blood pressure and episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). Which of the following drugs could be used as an outpatient prophylaxis?

A

metoprolol (Lopressor)

22
Q

Which of the following CANNOT be used for chronic oral therapy of arrhythmias?

A

esmolol (Brevibloc)

very short acting

23
Q

Which drug causes hyperpolarization and prevents conduction of impulses at the AV node?

A

adenosine (Adenocard)

24
Q

What is the antiarrhythmic drug of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia (PSVT)?

A

adenosine (Adenocard)

25
Q

Which of the following is an adverse effect of quinidine (Quinora)?

A

cinchonism

26
Q

Lab results from a CHF and hypertensive patient taking furosemide (Lasix) shows a below normal serum potassium levels. Which drug would you add to his drug regimen?

A

spironolactone (Aldactone)

27
Q

Which of the following drug combinations may produce systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in patients?

A

hydralazine (Apresoline) – procainamide (Pronestyl)

28
Q

Which drug has its primary action on the L-type calcium channels and slows conduction through the AV node?

A

verapamil (Calan)

29
Q

An African American man with essential hypertension has pounding headaches, BP = 185/98 mm Hg, heart rate = 92 BPM, and mild arterial narrowing without hemorrhages on funduscopic examination. Which of the following monotherapy would be the most appropriate treatment?

A

hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix)

most used diuretic (thiazide)

30
Q

In a hypertensive patient showing signs of ophthalmic and cardiac damage. Which adverse effect is the patient most likely to complain of following prolonged treatment with trandolapril (Mavik)?

A

coughing

an ACE inhibitor that causes dry cough

31
Q

Which drug-adverse effect is correctly paired?
A. quinidine (Quinora) – constipation
B. verapamil (Calan) – vasoconstriction
C. lidocaine (Xylocaine) – hypercalcemia
D. methyldopa (Aldomet) – hemolytic anemia
E. indapamide (Lozol) – sodium and water retention

A

methyldopa (Aldomet) – hemolytic anemia

a2 agonist that prevents NE release and is hepato-toxic, coombs test

32
Q

Which drug-effect is correctly paired?
A. magnesium sulfate – effective treatment in PSVT
B. enalapril (Vasotec) – decrease in renin secretion
C. hydralazine (Apresoline) – relaxation of large veins
D. minoxidil (Loniten) – opening of potassium channels
E. sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress) – inhibiting sodium channels

A

minoxidil (Loniten) – opening of potassium channels

33
Q

What is true about both terazosin (Hytrin) and metoprolol (Lopressor)?
A. both increase cardiac output
B. both decrease rennin secretion
C. both increase heart rate
D. both increase sympathetic outflow from the CNS
E. both produce severe orthostatic hypotension

A

both increase sympathetic outflow from the CNS

34
Q
Which of the following drugs is least likely to produce fluid and salt retention?
A.  nifedipine (Procardia)
B.  minoxidil (Loniten)
C.  prazosin (Minipress)
D.  fosinopril (Monopril)
E.  hydralazine (Apresoline)
A

fosinopril (Monopril)

an ACE inhibitor

35
Q
What adverse effect is similar in nitroglycerine, prazosin (Minipress), and ganglion blockers?
A.  impaired sexual function
B.  bradycardia
C.  lupus erythematosus syndrome
D.  orthostatic hypotension
E.  throbbing headache
A

orthostatic hypotension

36
Q
Nitroglycerin works well for acute angina attacks, but which drug works best for prophylactic treatment of frequent effort induced angina attacks?
A.  amyl nitrate (Aspirols)
B.  diltiazem (Cardizem)
C.  esmolol (Brevibloc)
D.  sublingual isosorbide dinitrate
E.  sublingual nitroglycerin
A

diltiazem (Cardizem)

class IV CCB like verapamil

37
Q

A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with familial combined hyperlipidemia. Her total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and triglyceride are elevated while her HDL cholesterol is somewhat reduced. Which drug should be avoided if this patient is pregnant?

A

rosuvastatin (Crestor)

38
Q
Which of the following will NOT precipitate an angina attack?            
A.  hydralazine (Apresoline)
B.  nifedipine (Procardia)
C.  dobutamine (Dobutrex)
D.  metoprolol (Lopressor)
E.  amphetamine
A

metoprolol (Lopressor)

39
Q
What is the primary mechanism by which sublingual nitroglycerin relieves chest pain and diminishes cardiac workload?
A.  arterial dilation
B.  arterial constriction
C.  dilation of the large veins
D.  epicardial arterial constriction
E.  constriction of the large veins
A

dilation of the large veins

40
Q
Which of the following drugs is most likely to exacerbate problems in a patient gout?
A.  enalapril (Vasotec)
B.  exetimibe (Zetia)
C.  colesvelam (WelChol)
D.  hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix)
E.  simvastatin (Zocor)
A

hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix)

41
Q

Select the correct statement:
A. stimulation of presynaptic Beta-2 receptors will increase transmitter release
B. ACE inhibitors inhibit the release of bradykinin
C. Beta-blockers are strong vasodilators
D. loop diuretics increase plasma magnesium concentrations
E. hypokalemia depolarizes the cell membrane in Purkinje fibers

A

stimulation of presynaptic Beta-2 receptors will increase transmitter release

42
Q
Which of the following drugs would promote gallstone formation in a woman with hypertriglyceridemia?
A.  cholestyramine (Questran)
B.  niacin (nicotinic acid)
C.  ezetimibe (Zetia)
D.  gemfibrozil (Lopid)
E.  lovastatin (Mevacor)
A

gemfibrozil (Lopid)

43
Q

Which of the following must be routinely monitored during treatment with atorvastatin (Lipitor)?
A. blood urea nitrogen
B. alanine and aspartate aminotransferase
C. platelets
D. uric acid

A

alanine and aspartate aminotransferase

44
Q
Which of the following drugs would be useful in treating respiratory alkalosis?
A.  amiloride (Midamor)
B.  furosemide (Lasix)
C.  hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix)
D.  acetazolamide (Diamox)
E.  eplerenone (Inspra)
A

acetazolamide (Diamox)

CA inhibito

45
Q

Which disease – drug treatment is correctly paired?
A. ventricular arrhythmias – verapamil (Calan)
B. vasospastic (Prinzmetal’s) angina – metoprolol (Lopressor)
C. digitalis induced ventricular arrhythmia – adenosine (Adenocard)
D. paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) – lidocaine (Xylocaine)
E. CHF – enalapril (Vasotec)

A

CHF – enalapril (Vasotec)

46
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of lidocaine (Xylocaine) as an antiarhythmic drug?
A. increases action potential duration
B. preferentially binds to resting sodium channels
C. increases the effective refractory period
D. is effective only paraenterally
E. increases the QT interval

A

is effective only paraenterally

47
Q

A 75-year-old man with a history of heart failure and an acute left ventricular myocardial infarction has severe pulmonary edema and is treated with I.V. furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is beneficial in the acute management of pulmonary edema because it:
A. decreases the filling pressure of the heart
B. produces profound diuresis
C. decreases heart rate
D. has positive inotropic action
E. dilates the bronchi

A

decreases the filling pressure of the heart

48
Q

Which of the following may be attributed to the antianginal effects of propanolol (Inderal)?
A. increased resting heart rate
B. dilation of constricted coronary vessels
C. increased cardiac contractility
D. decreased end-diastolic ventricular volume
E. block of exercise-induced tachycardia

A

block of exercise-induced tachycardia

49
Q
A 60-year-old woman has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with high-calcium renal stones.  Which of the following may decrease the formation of renal calculi?
A.  mannitol (Osmitrol)
B.  furosemide (Lasix)
C.  hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix)
D.  spironolactone (Aldactone)
E.  digoxin (Lanoxin)
A

hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix)

50
Q

What is the advantage of using tadalafil (Cialis) over sildenafil (Viagra)?
A. has a longer lasting effect
B. is less specific for PDE 5
C. does not increase the effect of organic nitrates
D. does not increase the effect of alpha blockers
E. is not dependent on the presence of nitric oxide

A

has a longer lasting effect