Practice Questions Flashcards
True or False: In the TNM staging system, the “M” refers to the local extent of the primary tumor.
False
True or False: A metastasis refers to the appearance of a tumor at a location that is distant from the primary tumor site.
True
True or False: The goal of palliative treatment is to cure by removal or destruction of cancer.
False
True or False: Breast cancer is the most common cancer diagnosed in women.
True
True or False: Cancer is a disease involving non-dividing cells.
False
True or False: Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the size of cells.
False
True or False: A Stage II cancer would generally have a more favorable prognosis than Stage III.
True
True or False: Adenocarcinoma is a cancer that forms in epithelial cells that produce fluids or mucus.
True
True or False: The grade of a cancer is a classification of the aggressiveness of its growth.
True
True or False: Carcinomas primarily spread via lymphatic channels rather than the bloodstream.
True
True or False: Carcinomas arise from epithelial tissue, and may be found in the respiratory or gastrointestinal systems.
True
True or False: Cancer cells demonstrate controlled growth just like normal cells.
False
True or False: The stage of the cancer is an important indicator of prognosis.
True
True or False: Chemotherapy is a systemic treatment aimed at killing cells of the primary tumor as well as circulating through the body.
True
True or False: Carcinomas represent the largest group of cancers.
True
True or False: Brachytherapy is a “long-distance therapy” and employs the use of radioactive materials.
False
True or False: A tumor cell that closely resembles the cell of origin is said to be poorly differentiated.
False
True or False: A cancer workup is a series of diagnostic tests done to determine the extent of the cancer and the general health status of the patient.
True
True or False: Pancreas cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in both men and women.
False (actually lung cancer)
True or False: Attentive listening requires the health care provider to notice a patient’s nonverbal cues.
True
True or False: Differentiation is the process by which a cell matures and becomes specialized.
True
True or False: Etiology is the study of disease incidence.
False
True or False: Higher-grade tumors are poorly differentiated and tend to metastasize early.
True
True or False: In the TNM staging system, the designation “T0” indicated there is extensive disease spread throughout the body.
False (T represents size)
True or False: A disadvantage of fine needle aspiration is that the procedure may not yield enough tissue to provide a definitive diagnosis.
True
True or False: An excisional biopsy involves the removal of the entire tumor for diagnosis.
True
True or False: When communicating with patients, asking open-ended questions encourages the patient’s narrative.
True
True or False: Chemotherapy is also considered systemic therapy.
True
True or False: Interstitial Brachytherapy may be described as radioactive sources inserted directly into the tissues.
True
True or False: The death of cells which occurs as a normal and controlled part of an organism’s growth or development is called necrosis.
False (naturally occurring is called apoptosis)
True or False: Research demonstrates that patient satisfaction and compliance are reduced when patients perceive their physicians and other healthcare providers lack warmth and friendliness.
True
True or False: Benign tumors do not spread or invade nearby tissues.
True
True or False: Research shows that palliative care improves the quality of life of patients and family members.
True
True or False: Colorectal cancer is the third cause of cancer deaths.
True
The spread of cancer can be accomplished through:
Both blood and lymphatics
None of these options listed
Lymphatics
Blood
Both blood (sarcomas) and lymphatics (carcinomas)
The term for normal genes that play a part in controlling normal growth and differentiation is:
Proto-oncogenes
Oncogenes
Anti-oncogenes
Proto-oncogenes
The inactivation of these genes allows the malignant process to flourish:
Proto-oncogenes
Oncogenes
Anti-oncogenes
Anti-oncogenes
The genes are implicated in the abnormal proliferation of cells:
Proto-oncogenes
Oncogenes
Anti-oncogenes
Oncogenes
Common biopsy methods include:
Excisional
Incisional
Fine needle aspiration
All of the options mentioned
All of the options mentioned
The goal of this process is to identify cancer in its earliest stages (before symptoms appear):
Etiology
Screening
Epidemiology
None of these
Screening
Which of the following is evaluated as part of a cancer workup?
Size of tumor
Lymph node involvement
Type of tumor
All of the options mentioned
All of the options mentioned
Effective screening methods are available for which cancers?
Breast
Cervix
Colorectal
All of the options mentioned
All of the options mentioned
The ACS recommended that the average-risk adult begin screening for colorectal cancer at:
60
30
40
50
50
Cervical cancer screening should begin at what age?
25
21
18
20
21
Which of the following is used for breast cancer screening?
Human papillomavirus (HPV) testing
Mammography
Colonoscopy
Sigmoidscopy
Mammography
Cells are most sensitive to radiation during which phases?
M and G1
G2 and M
G1 and G2
S and M
G2 and M
In which part of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
G0
S
G1
M
S
Programmed cell death is termed:
necrosis
metastasis
apoptosis
anaplasia
apoptosis
Good patient interactions include:
-Greeting patients
-Explaining procedures
-Communicating with the patient before you touch them in any way
-All of the options mentioned
All of the options mentioned
Where is the spinous process on an x-ray?
The bony part that sticks out and you can feel.
The spinous process projects posteriorly and often inferiorly from the vertebral arch and may overlap the inferior vertebrae to various degrees, depending on the region of the spine.
Depending on your type of cancer and how advanced it is, surgery can be used to:
Ease cancer symptoms
Remove the entire tumor
Debulk tumor
All of the mentioned options
All of the mentioned options
Compare malignant and benign tumors using 3 different characteristics
Benign- encapsulated, will not distantly spread or invade other tissues, slow growing
Malignant- not encapsulated, fast growing, metastasize
Differentiate between staging and grading.
Staging refers to the size of the tumor, nodal involvement, and metastasis status
Grading- looks under the microscope how differentiated they are compared to the site of origin
Differentiate between curative and palliative treatment goals.
Curative- giving treatment in order to rid the patient of their disease
Palliative- management of symptoms
List three different screening tests
Mammogram
Pap smear
Digital rectal exam
Colonoscopy
Skin checks
What are the components of the sternum?
The sternum is a partially T-shaped vertical bone that forms the anterior portion of the chest wall centrally. The sternum is divided anatomically into three segments: manubrium, body, and xiphoid process.
When the distance between the radiation source and the therapist increases, the effective dose to the therapist will:
increase
no chance
decrease
decrease
Which of the following is NOT a measurement of radiation in tissues?
Equivalent dose
Exposure
Effective dose
Absorbed dose
Exposure
Which of the following are used to quantify the risks of long-term effects of radiation injuries, such as cancer?
Effective dose
Equivalent dose
Absorbed dose
Exposure
Effective dose
The direct action of DNA is the result of:
DNA molecule interaction with a free radical
DNA molecule interaction with a photon
DNA molecule interaction with a charged ion
DNA molecule interaction with a photon
The cells of the human body are mostly comprised of:
Free radicals
DNA
Organelles
Water
Protein
Water
What is the most common effect of DNA molecule damage from exposure to ionizing radiation?
Double strand breaks
Single strand breaks
Large chromosomal aberrations
Small base pair lesions
Small base pair lesions
The most common means of DNA damage is due to:
Indirect action
Direct action
Indirect action
Cell DNA comprises what percentage of the total cell?
20%
10%
1%
80%
1%
*Inverse square law
The intensity of scattered radiation from a patient is measured as 0.1 mSv/min at a distance of 2 meters. What is the intensity at a distance of 1 meter?
Do this problem
What are the 3 principles of ALARA?
Time, Distance, Shielding
What is the dose received at 100 cm if the dose is 120 cGy at 120 cm?
172.8 cGy
What is the dose at 80 cm if the dose is 70 cGy at 115 cm?
144.65 cGy
The intensity of the radiation beam at 1.5 m was 200 mR/hr. What would the exposure be at 2 m?
112.5 mR/hr
A general wasting away of the body is termed:
kwashiorkor
cachexia
anorexia
marasmus
cachexia
(anorexia is a lack of appetite, marasmus is a severe calorie deficiency, kwashiorkor is a protein deficiency)
Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of skin cancer?
skin lesion that stays the same size over time
skin lesion with asymmetry
skin lesion with irregular pigmentation
sore that does not heal
skin lesion that stays the same size over time
Which histology of skin cancer is most common?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Merkel cell carcinoma
Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
The most prevalent cancer in males is:
kidney cancer
testicular cancer
prostate cancer
bladder cancer
prostate cancer
The prostate is ______ to the rectum and ________ to the bladder.
superior, posterior
anterior, posterior
superior, inferior
anterior, inferior
anterior, inferior
A patient was to have received 2 Gy daily in 20 fractions at 80 cm SSD. What is this patient’s total if all treatments were received at 70 cm SSD?
52 Gy
What vertebrae are in the brackets?
What are the different vertebrae?
*look at an x-ray of the vertebrae and practice identifying
L3 and L4 (in the image she provided)
Cervical (C1- C7)
Thoracic (T1-T12)
Lumbar (L1-L5)
Sacrum (4 fused)
Coccyx (5 fused)
Thrombocytopenia characterizes a decreased number of:
Formed elements of blood (RBCs, WBCs, and Platelets)
Red blood cells
White blood cells
Platelets
Platelets
Neoplasia is:
Decrease in size and function of a cell
Abnormal, rapid growth of benign or malignant cells
Increase in size of cell
Change in the number of cells in the tissue
Abnormal, rapid growth of benign or malignant cells
What bone am I pointing at?
Hyoid
In which phase of the mammalian cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur?
M
G1
G2
S
S
What is the most common tumor staging system?
UICC
TNM
FIGO
AJCC
TNM
A T1N0Mx tumor has how many positive lymph nodes?
1
unknown
0
2
0
Moist desquamation occurs at _______ Gy.
50-60 Gy
20-30 Gy
10-20 Gy
50-60 Gy
Reflective listening involves listening with ________.
Empathy
Prayer
Sympathy
Praise
Empathy
What is a reason we would not want to have sheets or clothes bunched up under the patient?
It may move the patient out of the position they were in for simulation, which would result in an inaccurate location the dose is delivered.
carina (bifurcation on trachea)
T4, T5
Axis
C2
Atlas
C1
Vertebra Prominence
C7
Xiphoid
T10
Kidneys
L2, L3
