Practice Questions

Question 1

True or False: In the TNM staging system, the “M” refers to the local extent of the primary tumor.

Answer 1

False

Question 2

True or False: A metastasis refers to the appearance of a tumor at a location that is distant from the primary tumor site.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

True or False: The goal of palliative treatment is to cure by removal or destruction of cancer.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

True or False: Breast cancer is the most common cancer diagnosed in women.

Answer 4

True

Question 5

True or False: Cancer is a disease involving non-dividing cells.

Answer 5

False

Question 6

True or False: Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the size of cells.

Answer 6

False

Question 7

True or False: A Stage II cancer would generally have a more favorable prognosis than Stage III.

Answer 7

True

Question 8

True or False: Adenocarcinoma is a cancer that forms in epithelial cells that produce fluids or mucus.

Answer 8

True

Question 9

True or False: The grade of a cancer is a classification of the aggressiveness of its growth.

Answer 9

True

Question 10

True or False: Carcinomas primarily spread via lymphatic channels rather than the bloodstream.

Answer 10

True

Question 11

True or False: Carcinomas arise from epithelial tissue, and may be found in the respiratory or gastrointestinal systems.

Answer 11

True

Question 12

True or False: Cancer cells demonstrate controlled growth just like normal cells.

Answer 12

False

Question 13

True or False: The stage of the cancer is an important indicator of prognosis.

Answer 13

True

Question 14

True or False: Chemotherapy is a systemic treatment aimed at killing cells of the primary tumor as well as circulating through the body.

Answer 14

True

Question 15

True or False: Carcinomas represent the largest group of cancers.

Answer 15

True

Question 16

True or False: Brachytherapy is a “long-distance therapy” and employs the use of radioactive materials.

Answer 16

False

Question 17

True or False: A tumor cell that closely resembles the cell of origin is said to be poorly differentiated.

Answer 17

False

Question 18

True or False: A cancer workup is a series of diagnostic tests done to determine the extent of the cancer and the general health status of the patient.

Answer 18

True

Question 19

True or False: Pancreas cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in both men and women.

Answer 19

False (actually lung cancer)

Question 20

True or False: Attentive listening requires the health care provider to notice a patient’s nonverbal cues.

Answer 20

True

Question 21

True or False: Differentiation is the process by which a cell matures and becomes specialized.

Answer 21

True

Question 22

True or False: Etiology is the study of disease incidence.

Answer 22

False

Question 23

True or False: Higher-grade tumors are poorly differentiated and tend to metastasize early.

Answer 23

True

Question 24

True or False: In the TNM staging system, the designation “T0” indicated there is extensive disease spread throughout the body.

Answer 24

False (T represents size)

Question 25

True or False: A disadvantage of fine needle aspiration is that the procedure may not yield enough tissue to provide a definitive diagnosis.

Answer 25

True

Question 26

True or False: An excisional biopsy involves the removal of the entire tumor for diagnosis.

Answer 26

True

Question 27

True or False: When communicating with patients, asking open-ended questions encourages the patient's narrative.

Answer 27

True

Question 28

True or False: Chemotherapy is also considered systemic therapy.

Answer 28

True

Question 29

True or False: Interstitial Brachytherapy may be described as radioactive sources inserted directly into the tissues.

Answer 29

True

Question 30

True or False: The death of cells which occurs as a normal and controlled part of an organism's growth or development is called necrosis.

Answer 30

False (naturally occurring is called apoptosis)

Question 31

True or False: Research demonstrates that patient satisfaction and compliance are reduced when patients perceive their physicians and other healthcare providers lack warmth and friendliness.

Answer 31

True

Question 32

True or False: Benign tumors do not spread or invade nearby tissues.

Answer 32

True

Question 33

True or False: Research shows that palliative care improves the quality of life of patients and family members.

Answer 33

True

Question 34

True or False: Colorectal cancer is the third cause of cancer deaths.

Answer 34

True

Question 35

The spread of cancer can be accomplished through: Both blood and lymphatics None of these options listed Lymphatics Blood

Answer 35

Both blood (sarcomas) and lymphatics (carcinomas)

Question 36

The term for normal genes that play a part in controlling normal growth and differentiation is: Proto-oncogenes Oncogenes Anti-oncogenes

Answer 36

Proto-oncogenes

Question 37

The inactivation of these genes allows the malignant process to flourish: Proto-oncogenes Oncogenes Anti-oncogenes

Answer 37

Anti-oncogenes

Question 38

The genes are implicated in the abnormal proliferation of cells: Proto-oncogenes Oncogenes Anti-oncogenes

Answer 38

Oncogenes

Question 39

Common biopsy methods include: Excisional Incisional Fine needle aspiration All of the options mentioned

Answer 39

All of the options mentioned

Question 40

The goal of this process is to identify cancer in its earliest stages (before symptoms appear): Etiology Screening Epidemiology None of these

Answer 40

Screening

Question 41

Which of the following is evaluated as part of a cancer workup? Size of tumor Lymph node involvement Type of tumor All of the options mentioned

Answer 41

All of the options mentioned

Question 42

Effective screening methods are available for which cancers? Breast Cervix Colorectal All of the options mentioned

Answer 42

All of the options mentioned

Question 43

The ACS recommended that the average-risk adult begin screening for colorectal cancer at: 60 30 40 50

Answer 43

50

Question 44

Cervical cancer screening should begin at what age? 25 21 18 20

Answer 44

21

Question 45

Which of the following is used for breast cancer screening? Human papillomavirus (HPV) testing Mammography Colonoscopy Sigmoidscopy

Answer 45

Mammography

Question 46

Cells are most sensitive to radiation during which phases? M and G1 G2 and M G1 and G2 S and M

Answer 46

G2 and M

Question 47

In which part of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur? G0 S G1 M

Answer 47

S

Question 48

Programmed cell death is termed: necrosis metastasis apoptosis anaplasia

Answer 48

apoptosis

Question 49

Good patient interactions include: -Greeting patients -Explaining procedures -Communicating with the patient before you touch them in any way -All of the options mentioned

Answer 49

All of the options mentioned

Question 50

Where is the spinous process on an x-ray?

Answer 50

The bony part that sticks out and you can feel. The spinous process projects posteriorly and often inferiorly from the vertebral arch and may overlap the inferior vertebrae to various degrees, depending on the region of the spine.

Question 51

Depending on your type of cancer and how advanced it is, surgery can be used to: Ease cancer symptoms Remove the entire tumor Debulk tumor All of the mentioned options

Answer 51

All of the mentioned options

Question 52

Compare malignant and benign tumors using 3 different characteristics

Answer 52

Benign- encapsulated, will not distantly spread or invade other tissues, slow growing Malignant- not encapsulated, fast growing, metastasize

Question 53

Differentiate between staging and grading.

Answer 53

Staging refers to the size of the tumor, nodal involvement, and metastasis status Grading- looks under the microscope how differentiated they are compared to the site of origin

Question 54

Differentiate between curative and palliative treatment goals.

Answer 54

Curative- giving treatment in order to rid the patient of their disease Palliative- management of symptoms

Question 55

List three different screening tests

Answer 55

Mammogram Pap smear Digital rectal exam Colonoscopy Skin checks

Question 56

What are the components of the sternum?

Answer 56

The sternum is a partially T-shaped vertical bone that forms the anterior portion of the chest wall centrally. The sternum is divided anatomically into three segments: manubrium, body, and xiphoid process.

Question 57

When the distance between the radiation source and the therapist increases, the effective dose to the therapist will: increase no chance decrease

Answer 57

decrease

Question 58

Which of the following is NOT a measurement of radiation in tissues? Equivalent dose Exposure Effective dose Absorbed dose

Answer 58

Exposure

Question 59

Which of the following are used to quantify the risks of long-term effects of radiation injuries, such as cancer? Effective dose Equivalent dose Absorbed dose Exposure

Answer 59

Effective dose

Question 60

The direct action of DNA is the result of: DNA molecule interaction with a free radical DNA molecule interaction with a photon DNA molecule interaction with a charged ion

Answer 60

DNA molecule interaction with a photon

Question 61

The cells of the human body are mostly comprised of: Free radicals DNA Organelles Water Protein

Answer 61

Water

Question 62

What is the most common effect of DNA molecule damage from exposure to ionizing radiation? Double strand breaks Single strand breaks Large chromosomal aberrations Small base pair lesions

Answer 62

Small base pair lesions

Question 63

The most common means of DNA damage is due to: Indirect action Direct action

Answer 63

Indirect action

Question 64

Cell DNA comprises what percentage of the total cell? 20% 10% 1% 80%

Answer 64

1%

Question 65

*Inverse square law The intensity of scattered radiation from a patient is measured as 0.1 mSv/min at a distance of 2 meters. What is the intensity at a distance of 1 meter?

Answer 65

Do this problem

Question 66

What are the 3 principles of ALARA?

Answer 66

Time, Distance, Shielding

Question 67

What is the dose received at 100 cm if the dose is 120 cGy at 120 cm?

Answer 67

172.8 cGy

Question 68

What is the dose at 80 cm if the dose is 70 cGy at 115 cm?

Answer 68

144.65 cGy

Question 69

The intensity of the radiation beam at 1.5 m was 200 mR/hr. What would the exposure be at 2 m?

Answer 69

112.5 mR/hr

Question 70

A general wasting away of the body is termed: kwashiorkor cachexia anorexia marasmus

Answer 70

cachexia (anorexia is a lack of appetite, marasmus is a severe calorie deficiency, kwashiorkor is a protein deficiency)

Question 71

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of skin cancer? skin lesion that stays the same size over time skin lesion with asymmetry skin lesion with irregular pigmentation sore that does not heal

Answer 71

skin lesion that stays the same size over time

Question 72

Which histology of skin cancer is most common? Squamous cell carcinoma Basal cell carcinoma Merkel cell carcinoma Melanoma

Answer 72

Basal cell carcinoma

Question 73

The most prevalent cancer in males is: kidney cancer testicular cancer prostate cancer bladder cancer

Answer 73

prostate cancer

Question 74

The prostate is ______ to the rectum and ________ to the bladder. superior, posterior anterior, posterior superior, inferior anterior, inferior

Answer 74

anterior, inferior

Question 75

A patient was to have received 2 Gy daily in 20 fractions at 80 cm SSD. What is this patient's total if all treatments were received at 70 cm SSD?

Answer 75

52 Gy

Question 76

What vertebrae are in the brackets? What are the different vertebrae? *look at an x-ray of the vertebrae and practice identifying

Answer 76

L3 and L4 (in the image she provided) Cervical (C1- C7) Thoracic (T1-T12) Lumbar (L1-L5) Sacrum (4 fused) Coccyx (5 fused)

Question 77

Thrombocytopenia characterizes a decreased number of: Formed elements of blood (RBCs, WBCs, and Platelets) Red blood cells White blood cells Platelets

Answer 77

Platelets

Question 78

Neoplasia is: Decrease in size and function of a cell Abnormal, rapid growth of benign or malignant cells Increase in size of cell Change in the number of cells in the tissue

Answer 78

Abnormal, rapid growth of benign or malignant cells

Question 79

What bone am I pointing at?

Answer 79

Hyoid

Question 80

In which phase of the mammalian cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur? M G1 G2 S

Answer 80

S

Question 81

What is the most common tumor staging system? UICC TNM FIGO AJCC

Answer 81

TNM

Question 82

A T1N0Mx tumor has how many positive lymph nodes? 1 unknown 0 2

Answer 82

0

Question 83

Moist desquamation occurs at _______ Gy. 50-60 Gy 20-30 Gy 10-20 Gy

Answer 83

50-60 Gy

Question 84

Reflective listening involves listening with ________. Empathy Prayer Sympathy Praise

Answer 84

Empathy

Question 85

What is a reason we would not want to have sheets or clothes bunched up under the patient?

Answer 85

It may move the patient out of the position they were in for simulation, which would result in an inaccurate location the dose is delivered.

Question 86

carina (bifurcation on trachea)

Answer 86

T4, T5

Question 87

Axis

Answer 87

C2

Question 88

Atlas

Answer 88

C1

Question 89

Vertebra Prominence

Answer 89

C7

Question 90

Xiphoid

Answer 90

T10

Question 91

Kidneys

Answer 91

L2, L3