Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RT 3110 Clinical Aspects of Radiation Therapy > Practice Questions > Flashcards

Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

True or False: In the TNM staging system, the “M” refers to the local extent of the primary tumor.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False: A metastasis refers to the appearance of a tumor at a location that is distant from the primary tumor site.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or False: The goal of palliative treatment is to cure by removal or destruction of cancer.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or False: Breast cancer is the most common cancer diagnosed in women.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or False: Cancer is a disease involving non-dividing cells.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or False: Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the size of cells.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or False: A Stage II cancer would generally have a more favorable prognosis than Stage III.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False: Adenocarcinoma is a cancer that forms in epithelial cells that produce fluids or mucus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or False: The grade of a cancer is a classification of the aggressiveness of its growth.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True or False: Carcinomas primarily spread via lymphatic channels rather than the bloodstream.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True or False: Carcinomas arise from epithelial tissue, and may be found in the respiratory or gastrointestinal systems.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or False: Cancer cells demonstrate controlled growth just like normal cells.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False: The stage of the cancer is an important indicator of prognosis.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or False: Chemotherapy is a systemic treatment aimed at killing cells of the primary tumor as well as circulating through the body.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or False: Carcinomas represent the largest group of cancers.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False: Brachytherapy is a “long-distance therapy” and employs the use of radioactive materials.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False: A tumor cell that closely resembles the cell of origin is said to be poorly differentiated.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False: A cancer workup is a series of diagnostic tests done to determine the extent of the cancer and the general health status of the patient.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or False: Pancreas cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in both men and women.

A

False (actually lung cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or False: Attentive listening requires the health care provider to notice a patient’s nonverbal cues.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or False: Differentiation is the process by which a cell matures and becomes specialized.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or False: Etiology is the study of disease incidence.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False: Higher-grade tumors are poorly differentiated and tend to metastasize early.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or False: In the TNM staging system, the designation “T0” indicated there is extensive disease spread throughout the body.

A

False (T represents size)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

True or False: A disadvantage of fine needle aspiration is that the procedure may not yield enough tissue to provide a definitive diagnosis.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

True or False: An excisional biopsy involves the removal of the entire tumor for diagnosis.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

True or False: When communicating with patients, asking open-ended questions encourages the patient’s narrative.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

True or False: Chemotherapy is also considered systemic therapy.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

True or False: Interstitial Brachytherapy may be described as radioactive sources inserted directly into the tissues.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True or False: The death of cells which occurs as a normal and controlled part of an organism’s growth or development is called necrosis.

A

False (naturally occurring is called apoptosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

True or False: Research demonstrates that patient satisfaction and compliance are reduced when patients perceive their physicians and other healthcare providers lack warmth and friendliness.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

True or False: Benign tumors do not spread or invade nearby tissues.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

True or False: Research shows that palliative care improves the quality of life of patients and family members.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

True or False: Colorectal cancer is the third cause of cancer deaths.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The spread of cancer can be accomplished through:

Both blood and lymphatics
None of these options listed
Lymphatics
Blood

A

Both blood (sarcomas) and lymphatics (carcinomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The term for normal genes that play a part in controlling normal growth and differentiation is:

Proto-oncogenes
Oncogenes
Anti-oncogenes

A

Proto-oncogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The inactivation of these genes allows the malignant process to flourish:

Proto-oncogenes
Oncogenes
Anti-oncogenes

A

Anti-oncogenes

38
Q

The genes are implicated in the abnormal proliferation of cells:

Proto-oncogenes
Oncogenes
Anti-oncogenes

A

Oncogenes

39
Q

Common biopsy methods include:

Excisional
Incisional
Fine needle aspiration
All of the options mentioned

A

All of the options mentioned

40
Q

The goal of this process is to identify cancer in its earliest stages (before symptoms appear):

Etiology
Screening
Epidemiology
None of these

A

Screening

41
Q

Which of the following is evaluated as part of a cancer workup?

Size of tumor
Lymph node involvement
Type of tumor
All of the options mentioned

A

All of the options mentioned

42
Q

Effective screening methods are available for which cancers?

Breast
Cervix
Colorectal
All of the options mentioned

A

All of the options mentioned

43
Q

The ACS recommended that the average-risk adult begin screening for colorectal cancer at:

60
30
40
50

A

50

44
Q

Cervical cancer screening should begin at what age?

25
21
18
20

A

21

45
Q

Which of the following is used for breast cancer screening?

Human papillomavirus (HPV) testing
Mammography
Colonoscopy
Sigmoidscopy

A

Mammography

46
Q

Cells are most sensitive to radiation during which phases?

M and G1
G2 and M
G1 and G2
S and M

A

G2 and M

47
Q

In which part of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

G0
S
G1
M

A

S

48
Q

Programmed cell death is termed:

necrosis
metastasis
apoptosis
anaplasia

A

apoptosis

49
Q

Good patient interactions include:

-Greeting patients
-Explaining procedures
-Communicating with the patient before you touch them in any way
-All of the options mentioned

A

All of the options mentioned

50
Q

Where is the spinous process on an x-ray?

A

The bony part that sticks out and you can feel.

The spinous process projects posteriorly and often inferiorly from the vertebral arch and may overlap the inferior vertebrae to various degrees, depending on the region of the spine.

51
Q

Depending on your type of cancer and how advanced it is, surgery can be used to:

Ease cancer symptoms
Remove the entire tumor
Debulk tumor
All of the mentioned options

A

All of the mentioned options

52
Q

Compare malignant and benign tumors using 3 different characteristics

A

Benign- encapsulated, will not distantly spread or invade other tissues, slow growing

Malignant- not encapsulated, fast growing, metastasize

53
Q

Differentiate between staging and grading.

A

Staging refers to the size of the tumor, nodal involvement, and metastasis status

Grading- looks under the microscope how differentiated they are compared to the site of origin

54
Q

Differentiate between curative and palliative treatment goals.

A

Curative- giving treatment in order to rid the patient of their disease

Palliative- management of symptoms

55
Q

List three different screening tests

A

Mammogram
Pap smear
Digital rectal exam
Colonoscopy
Skin checks

56
Q

What are the components of the sternum?

A

The sternum is a partially T-shaped vertical bone that forms the anterior portion of the chest wall centrally. The sternum is divided anatomically into three segments: manubrium, body, and xiphoid process.

57
Q

When the distance between the radiation source and the therapist increases, the effective dose to the therapist will:

increase
no chance
decrease

A

decrease

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT a measurement of radiation in tissues?

Equivalent dose
Exposure
Effective dose
Absorbed dose

A

Exposure

59
Q

Which of the following are used to quantify the risks of long-term effects of radiation injuries, such as cancer?

Effective dose
Equivalent dose
Absorbed dose
Exposure

A

Effective dose

60
Q

The direct action of DNA is the result of:

DNA molecule interaction with a free radical
DNA molecule interaction with a photon
DNA molecule interaction with a charged ion

A

DNA molecule interaction with a photon

61
Q

The cells of the human body are mostly comprised of:

Free radicals
DNA
Organelles
Water
Protein

A

Water

62
Q

What is the most common effect of DNA molecule damage from exposure to ionizing radiation?

Double strand breaks
Single strand breaks
Large chromosomal aberrations
Small base pair lesions

A

Small base pair lesions

63
Q

The most common means of DNA damage is due to:

Indirect action
Direct action

A

Indirect action

64
Q

Cell DNA comprises what percentage of the total cell?

20%
10%
1%
80%

A

1%

65
Q

*Inverse square law
The intensity of scattered radiation from a patient is measured as 0.1 mSv/min at a distance of 2 meters. What is the intensity at a distance of 1 meter?

A

Do this problem

66
Q

What are the 3 principles of ALARA?

A

Time, Distance, Shielding

67
Q

What is the dose received at 100 cm if the dose is 120 cGy at 120 cm?

A

172.8 cGy

68
Q

What is the dose at 80 cm if the dose is 70 cGy at 115 cm?

A

144.65 cGy

69
Q

The intensity of the radiation beam at 1.5 m was 200 mR/hr. What would the exposure be at 2 m?

A

112.5 mR/hr

70
Q

A general wasting away of the body is termed:

kwashiorkor
cachexia
anorexia
marasmus

A

cachexia

(anorexia is a lack of appetite, marasmus is a severe calorie deficiency, kwashiorkor is a protein deficiency)

71
Q

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of skin cancer?

skin lesion that stays the same size over time

skin lesion with asymmetry

skin lesion with irregular pigmentation

sore that does not heal

A

skin lesion that stays the same size over time

72
Q

Which histology of skin cancer is most common?

Squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Merkel cell carcinoma
Melanoma

A

Basal cell carcinoma

73
Q

The most prevalent cancer in males is:

kidney cancer
testicular cancer
prostate cancer
bladder cancer

A

prostate cancer

74
Q

The prostate is ______ to the rectum and ________ to the bladder.

superior, posterior
anterior, posterior
superior, inferior
anterior, inferior

A

anterior, inferior

75
Q

A patient was to have received 2 Gy daily in 20 fractions at 80 cm SSD. What is this patient’s total if all treatments were received at 70 cm SSD?

A

52 Gy

76
Q

What vertebrae are in the brackets?

What are the different vertebrae?

*look at an x-ray of the vertebrae and practice identifying

A

L3 and L4 (in the image she provided)

Cervical (C1- C7)
Thoracic (T1-T12)
Lumbar (L1-L5)
Sacrum (4 fused)
Coccyx (5 fused)

77
Q

Thrombocytopenia characterizes a decreased number of:

Formed elements of blood (RBCs, WBCs, and Platelets)

Red blood cells

White blood cells

Platelets

A

Platelets

78
Q

Neoplasia is:

Decrease in size and function of a cell

Abnormal, rapid growth of benign or malignant cells

Increase in size of cell

Change in the number of cells in the tissue

A

Abnormal, rapid growth of benign or malignant cells

79
Q

What bone am I pointing at?

A

Hyoid

80
Q

In which phase of the mammalian cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur?

M
G1
G2
S

A

S

81
Q

What is the most common tumor staging system?

UICC
TNM
FIGO
AJCC

A

TNM

82
Q

A T1N0Mx tumor has how many positive lymph nodes?

1
unknown
0
2

A

0

83
Q

Moist desquamation occurs at _______ Gy.

50-60 Gy
20-30 Gy
10-20 Gy

A

50-60 Gy

84
Q

Reflective listening involves listening with ________.

Empathy
Prayer
Sympathy
Praise

A

Empathy

85
Q

What is a reason we would not want to have sheets or clothes bunched up under the patient?

A

It may move the patient out of the position they were in for simulation, which would result in an inaccurate location the dose is delivered.

86
Q

carina (bifurcation on trachea)

A

T4, T5

87
Q

Axis

A

C2

88
Q

Atlas

A

C1

89
Q

Vertebra Prominence

A

C7

90
Q

Xiphoid

A

T10

91
Q

Kidneys

A

L2, L3

RT 3110 Clinical Aspects of Radiation Therapy (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions