Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MD2002 > PRACTICE OF MEDICINE > Flashcards

PRACTICE OF MEDICINE Flashcards

1
Q

The difference between screening and diagnostic testing?

A

Normal/negative result on screening down no equal disease-free necessarily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the term sensitivity mean regarding screening?

A

how well the test picks up having the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the term specificity mean regarding screening?

A

how well the tests detects not having the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sensitivity formula=

A

(no. of correctly identified diseases/no. of disease cases) x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Specificity formula=

A

(no of normals correctly detected/no of normals in total) x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is positive predictive value and what is it’s formula?

A

How reliable the test is at showing disease is present

(no of correct positive results/total no of positive results) x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is negative predictive value and what is the formula?

A

How reliable the test is at showing the disease is not present
(no of correct negative results/total no of negative results) x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Advantages of screening? Name 3

A
  • Reduced disease incidence
  • Reduced disease mortality
  • Overall population benefit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Disadvantages of screening? Name 3

A
  • False reassurance
  • Anxiety
  • Harm from screening test
  • Opportunity costs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gold standard way of measuring effectiveness?

A

Randomised Controlled Trial (RCT) obby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the formula for measuring coverage?

A

(screened population/ eligible population) x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the formula for measuring uptake?

A

(screened population/invited population) x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Challenges with optimising coverage? (why a population in general doesn’t go to screenings?)

A
  • Minority ethnic groups
  • Immigrants
  • Travellers
  • Prisoners
  • Students
  • Reduced uptake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Challenges with optimising uptake? (why people that are invited to be screened don’t go?)

A
  • Change of address
  • Communication
  • Health literacy
  • Deprivation
  • Accessibility
  • Vulnerable groups
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 methods of abortion?

A
  1. Medical
  2. Vacuum aspiration/suction
  3. Surgical D&E
  4. Late abortions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many weeks of gestation are the different methods of abortion specific for?

A

Medical- up to 13 weeks
Vacuum aspiration/suction- from 7 to 15 weeks
Surgical D&E- 15 weeks onwards
Late abortions- 20 weeks onwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Active euthanasia, what is it?

A

X performs an action which itself results in Y’s death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is passive euthanasia?

A

X allows Y to die. X withholds life prolonging treatment or withdraws life-prolonging treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is voluntary euthanasia?

A

Euthanasia when Y competently requests death himself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Non-voluntary euthanasia, what is it?

A

Euthanasia when Y is not competent to express a preference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Involuntary euthanasia, what is it?

A

Death is against Y’s competent wishes, although X permits or imposes death for Y’s benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is incidence?

A

Incidence: the rate at which new cases occur in a population during a specific period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is prevalence?

A

Prevalence: the proportion of a population that are cases at a point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is period rate?

A

(Number of people with outcome at a point in time)/ (number of people in group)
x100

25
Q

What is a case-control study?

A

Case-control study; the cases (have the outcome) and control (doesn’t have the outcome) are compared.
Observational –> individual –> analytic

26
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

Cohort study: prospective (looking into the future) OR retrospective (looking back in time). Follow-up populations relating information on risk factor and health states to the outcome of interest
Observational –> individual –> analytic

27
Q

What is a randomized control trial?

A

RCT- individuals are randomly allocated to two groups undergoing two different treatments and effect is followed up.
–>Experimental

28
Q

What is a case series?

A

Cases series: a series, often consecutive, of cases with the same disease
Observational –> Individual –> descriptive

29
Q

What is cross-sectional survey

A

Cross-sectional survey: study health and disease states in a population/populations at a defined place and time.
Observational –> Individual –> descriptive

30
Q

What is an ecological study/population case-series?

A 
Ecological studies (population case-series): The unit of study is a population (not an individual). Good for study of signs/symptoms and creating disease definitions and foundations for other studies. 
Observational --> populations --> descriptive
31
Q

What are the three main sources of major/minor life events?

A

Individual, family and society

32
Q

What systems are impacted by major/minor life events?

A

Physiological system: sympathetic nervous system, endocrine system, heart rate, breathing, muscles
Psychological aspect: Cognitive functioning (memory, attention) and emotion
Social aspect: Social behavior

33
Q

What is the main method of assessment of major/minor life events?

A

Social Re-adjustment Rating Scale

SRRS

34
Q

Name 3 strengths and weaknesses of the SRRS?

A 
Strengths: 
Quick and easy to complete
Wide range of events
Values assigned to events based on broad sampling
Weaknesses:
Events are vague
Causality?
Failure to distinguish between desirable/undesirable
35
Q

What are the two methods for assessing the effects of daily hassles and how do they differ?

A

Hassles Assessment Scale for Students (HASS): Score allocated to hassle associated with health status. Is a strong predictor of psychological and physical well being
Uplifts Scale: Positive events that brings satisfaction e.g. completing a task. Has little association with health status.

36
Q

What is the advised limit for men and women’s alcohol consumption?

A

14 units

37
Q

How many units are women told not exceed in a day?

A

No units

38
Q

How many ml’s of pure alcohol is a unit?

A

10ml

39
Q

What is the equation to calculate the number of units in alcohol?

A

No. of units= No. of litres x %strength

40
Q

Name 4 of the actions taken by the World Health Assembly to reduce the harmful use of alcohol

A
  1. Drink-driving policies and countermeasures
  2. Pricing policies
  3. Reducing the negative consequences of drinking and alcohol intoxication
  4. Availability of alcohol marketing of alcohol beverages
41
Q

Define coping

A

Process by which people manage the perceived demands of a situation and the resources available as they appraise a situation

42
Q

What are the two forms of coping? And how do they differ?

A

Problem focused: Reduce demands of situation or expand resources to deal with it.
Emotion focused: Focus on controlling emotional response to situation
Emotion focused is used when people feel they can do nothing to change the situation

43
Q

What are the 4 types of illness coping strategies? (Hint: DARN)

A

Denial: denies existence of symptom
Accommodation: acknowledges, deals with problem
Resignation- Becomes consumed by illness
Normalising- Interpret symptoms as normal experience

44
Q

Name 3 examples of coping resources?

A

Money
Social support
Personality

45
Q

How does the COPE method assess coping?

A

Assesses what individuals do and feel when they experience stressful situations in 13 different scales (e.g. active coping, seeking emotional support)

46
Q

How does social support influence health?

A

Buffering effect and direct effect

47
Q

What is the buffering effect? Give examples

A

A way that social support influences health.
Protects the individual against the negative effects on health when the stressor is strong.
Eg: Enhances resources, enables reappraisal

48
Q

What is the direct effect? Give examples

A

A way that social support can influence health
Is beneficial to health and well-being regardless of degree of stress
E.g.: healthier lifestyle, positive outlook

49
Q

When is social support not beneficial? (4)

A

When it is not perceived as supportive
When it encourages a damaging lifestyle
When is does not match needs
When is reduces self-esteem

50
Q

What are the 3 theories for stress?

A

Stimulus: Environment is the cause of stress, stressors
Response: Individuals reaction to stressors. The psychological and physiological response, responses are known as “strain”
Transaction: Focus is on stress as a process of stressors and strains, with continuous interactions and adjustments.

51
Q

What is stress?

A

The perceived discrepancy between demands of the situation and the resources of the person that they appraise in a stressful situation.

52
Q

What is the acute and chronic physiological system response to stress?

A

Acute: Fight or flight
Chronic: General adaptation syndrome

53
Q

What are the two responses to stress?

A 
Sympathetic activation
HPA activation (Hypothalamic-Pituitary- Adrenocortical)
54
Q

How does “sympathetic activation” respond to stress?

A

The sympathetic nervous system is activated and catecholamines (adrenaline and noradrenaline) are produced.
Quick response system

55
Q

How does HPA activation respond to stress?

A

Increased levels of corticosteroids (e.g. cortisol)
Raised levels of brain opoids, beta endorphin and enkapthalin
Slower response system

56
Q

How does stress alter CV reactivity?

A

The release of corticosteroids and catecholamines promotes atherschlerosis.
Consequently tachycardia and hypertension develop

57
Q

Name 3 benefits of increasing physical activity

A

Reduces CHD risk
Anti-depressive
Increases mental health

58
Q

What are the recommendations for exercise for 19-64yr olds?

A

30mins x 5 per week at moderate intensity

20 mins x 3 per week at vigorous intensity

59
Q

What are the exercise recommendations for 64+ yr olds?

A

Strengthening

Balance + coordination

MD2002 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions