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Dutch Risk > Practice Exam Question 4 > Flashcards

Practice Exam Question 4 Flashcards

1
Q

These diagrams show complete security subsystems, including all the devices and how they are connected in a building or campus. They are called:

A. Details diagrams
B. Plan drawings
C. Elevation drawings
D. Riser diagrams

A

D

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2
Q

Undesirable activity thrives in spaces that residents and management fail to claim and therefore mainly remain abandoned. A crime hotspot might be eliminated if police or security establish a presence there or residents, employees or the public occupy the space, providing what is known in CPTED as:

A. Legitimate activity support
B. Management and maintenance support
C. Natural measures
D. Mechanical measures

A

A

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3
Q

Which of the following terms best meets this description? ‘This process corrects faults and returns the system to operation after a hardware or software component fails’.

A. Remedial maintenance
B. Preventive maintenance
C. Emergency maintenance
D. Commissioned maintenance

A

A

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4
Q

‘This means that no matter how an adversary attempts to accomplish the goal, effective elements of the PPS will be encountered’. This is best referred to as which of the following?

A. Conceptual design criteria
B. Performance based design
C. Balanced protection
D. Design criteria

A

C

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5
Q

‘This statement includes the specific details that all involved parties can understand what needs to be done, highlighting specific goals the organization wants units to achieve’. This best describes:

A. Mission Statements
B. Vision Statements
C. Strategic Plans
D. Organizational Objectives

A

D

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6
Q

This organization prepares safety standards primarily as a guide to security device manufacturers, and then certifies whether devices submitted to the laboratories for approval meet those standards. This organization is called:

A. Underwriters Laboratories (UL)
B. International Standards Association (ISO)
C. American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
D. American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM)

A

A

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7
Q

A device used to detect deception through stress recorded by voice modulations is also known as a:

A. Polygraph
B. Lie detector
C. Psychological stress analyzer
D. Truth serum

A

C

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8
Q

The following theory asserts that managers should avoid quick fixes. Manipulating hygiene factors may alleviate dissatisfaction but will not result in a state of satisfaction. Allowing an individual to reach a state of satisfaction requires changes in the work content itself, such as increased autonomy or responsibility. This is best described as part of which of the following theories?

A. Maslow’s Theory
B. McGregor’s Theory
C. Hertzberg’s Theory
D. Hertzberg’s Theory

A

C

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9
Q

SWOT is often used as an assessment tool for developing an organizational strategy.
What does the acronym SWOT stand for?

A. Strategy, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
B. Strategy, Weaknesses, Operations, Threats
C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
D. Strengths, Weaknesses, Operations, Threats

A

C

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10
Q

‘Employment of services, equipment and techniques designed to locate, identify and neutralize the effectiveness of covert technical surveillance devices’ is the definition for which of the following?

A. Technical surveillance countermeasures
B. Contracted investigation services
C. Technical Security Services
D. Contracted counter-surveillance

A

A

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11
Q

A key element in the information asset protection (IAP) risk assessment process is a thorough study of existing and projected threats. What are the categories?

A. Historical, current and future threats
B. Man-made, natural and intentional
C. Intentional, natural and inadvertent threats
D. Internal, external and government

A

C

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12
Q

Information warranting protection must be appropriately identified and marked. Various levels are used to distinguish the degree of sensitivity or the degree of protection warranted: confidential, restricted, limited, non-public, etc. Who is best suited to define the security level?

A. The Security Manager
B. The IT Manager
C. The IT Security Manager
D. The originator of the information

A

D

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13
Q

This defines why the business exists, is essential for developing organization-specific management practices and how it will maintain itself as a profitable, viable entity not only in the moment but also three to five years out. This is called a:

A. Organizational strategy
B. PEST plan
C. STEP strategy
D. SWOT plan

A

A

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14
Q

Which of the following statements concerning interviewing and deception is TRUE?

A. A single word or behavior characteristic automatically means a person is lying or telling the truth.
B. The assessment of a subject’s truthfulness is based on a single behavior pattern.
C. Some behavioral characteristics that suggest deception may also be displayed by a truthful subject.
D. Deceptive persons answer questions in a direct, straightforward, spontaneous, and sincere manner.

A

C

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15
Q

These need not be registered with any outside agency, so the owner can maintain a greater degree of control over the asset. The owner must be able to prove that the information added value or benefit to the owner, was specifically identified, and the owner provided a reasonable level of protection. This is called which of the following:

A. Patent
B. Copyright
C. Trade Secret
D. Trademark

A

C

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16
Q

In addition to the five (5) functions of management, managers should be guided by two (2) other principles, which are:

A. ‘Continuous improvement’ and ‘Customer service’
B. ‘Quality’ and ‘Who is the customer’?
C. ‘Continuous improvement’ and ‘Performance metrics’
D. Quality’ and ‘Performance metrics’

A

B

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17
Q

Network devices typically communicate using a worldwide internet standard for communication, also called:

A. TCP/IP
B. DNS Servers
C. WIN Servers
D. Web Proxies

A

A

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18
Q

Which of the following statements concerning security industry standards is not true?

A. Standards address a product, service or process.
B. Standards are mandatory and require compliance.
C. Regulation may require compliance with a standard.
D. Customers more easily judge product quality if it conforms with standards.

A

B

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19
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning employee dishonesty?

A. Most employees who steal from their employers consider themselves dishonest.
B. Employees involved in theft have usually been involved in other prior misconduct at the company.
C. Most employees would steal from their employer if given the opportunity.
D. Employers have no control over factors that contribute toward employee theft and fraud.

A

B

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20
Q

Which of the following is not one of the six steps in performance-based analysis?

A. Create an adversary sequence diagram
B. Conduct a path analysis
C. Perform a cost benefit analysis
D. Perform a scenario analysis

A

C

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21
Q

Information systems countermeasures are divided into three broad classifications. ‘Management policies, standards, procedures, guidelines, personnel screening and awareness training’ fall into which category of controls?

A. Administrative controls
B. Technical controls
C. Physical controls
D. Infrastructure controls

A

A

22
Q

The four (4) elements of emergency management are which of the following?

A. Planning, policies, preparedness, and response
B. Mitigation, policies, response, and recovery
C. Mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery
D. Planning, preparedness, countermeasures, and recovery

A

C

23
Q

‘Non-deliberate adverse actions and events, such as hazardous material spills and telecommunications and computer outages’ are considered which of the following?

A. Natural threats
B. Human threats
C. Accidental threats
D. Organizational threats

A

C

24
Q

Which of the following best describes the document that tells how much money an organization generates (revenue), how much it spends (expenses) and the difference between those figures (net income)?

A. Balance sheet
B. Income statement
C. Expense sheet
D. Cash flow statement

A

B

25
Q

The process of assessing security-related risks from internal and external threats to an entity, its assets and personnel, called a:

A. Vulnerability Assessment
B. Risk Assessment
C. Security Survey
D. Loss Event Profile

A

B

26
Q

What type of evidence is considered among the least accurate forms of investigative information?

A. Direct physical evidence
B. Documented physical evidence
C. Eyewitness evidence
D. Corroborated statements

A

C

27
Q

In incident command management, when an incident requires public safety response, who becomes the incident commander?

A. The security manager
B. The senior member of the organization’s leadership
C. The senior member of the responding agency
D. The senior member of the responding security team

A

C

28
Q

When designing objectives or goals, they must be SMART. This acronym stands for which of the following:

A. Strategic; Measurable; Attainable; Relevant; Time-bound
B. Strategic; Metric-based; Accountable; Relevant; Time-bound
C. Specific; Measurable; Accountable; Reliable; Time-bound
D. Specific; Measurable; Attainable; Relevant; Time-bound

A

D

29
Q

What is ‘interoperability’?

A. The ability of private security and the public sector to work together.
B. The ability for the emergency responders to work seamlessly with proprietary security forces.
C. The ability for security forces to communicate with internal departments in an emergency.
D. The ability for different jurisdictions and responding agencies to communicate with each other wirelessly.

A

D

30
Q

This margin gives insight in the in efficiency of manufacturing a product / rendering service:

A. Net profit
B. Operating profit
C. Current ratio
D. Gross profit

A

D

31
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the way an untruthful person acts during an interview or interrogation?

A. They are typically relaxed and confident, no stress.
B. They are typically showing anxiety through verbal and nonverbal behaviors.
C. They are typically very skilled at deceit and disguising clues through verbal and nonverbal behaviors.
D. They are typically stressed and will not reveal anxiety through verbal and nonverbal behaviors.

A

B

32
Q

In a bomb threat assessment, the threat evaluation team (TET) is an important asset. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A large team is better than a smaller team.
B. The TET can manage several different sites.
C. The team’s final decisions are made by several members.
D. A record keeper is an important part of the team.

A

D

33
Q

‘A specific description of where the business will be in the long-term, that conveys a general understanding of the business, its culture and its future goals’. This concept is best referred to as:

A. A Mission Statement
B. A Vision Statement
C. A Strategic Plan
D. An Organizational Strategy

A

B

34
Q

In most cultures this is closest thing to a universal guideline or Golden Rule: to treat others the way one would want to be treated. This guiding principle works for both individuals and organizations. This best describes which of the following?

Business ethics
Government regulations
Corporate law
Civil law

A

A

35
Q

Who is best suited to conduct a preliminary search for suspicious packages in the event of a bomb threat?

People who work in that area
The responding fire department
The responding police
Responding security officers

A

A

36
Q

Badges are an important security tool for:

Layered defense
Identification
Defense in-depth
Security awareness building

A

B

37
Q

Which of the following is a plan that helps maintain the continuity of essential operations/functions during potential emergency scenarios?

ERM
BCP
RFP
COOP

A

D

38
Q

Which of the following may be used to list all the potential threats?

Event probability matrix
Event sheets
Event profiles
Tabletop exercise

A

C

39
Q

What refer to any means one uses to control the flow of access to an area and have the objective to deter or delay the intruder?

Access control
Gates
Fences
Barriers

A

D

40
Q

This is a nongovernmental organization bringing together stakeholders from the public, private, and not-for-profit sectors. It serves as a central point where standards bodies from around the world – and the organizations that participate in them – can gather to develop standards jointly. It is called:

ASIS International
American National Standards Institute
International Standards Organization
National Fire Prevention Association

A

C

41
Q

According to the Routine Activity Theory, crime is often the result of a triangle composing of three components. The likelihood of a target becoming a victim depends upon a combination of factors. Which of the following is not an element of this theory?

Rationalization
Offender
The lack of a capable guardian
Victim

A

A

42
Q

Access to internal company information should be restricted. Which of the following besrt describes who can access sensitive information?

Personnel authorized by the original owner or IT Manager.
Company personnel who have attended an information security workshop.
Company personnel or others who have signed a nondisclosure agreement.
Access is granted based on their position or management level.

A

C

43
Q

Electronic data and material can begin to deteriorate at:

100°F
150°F
200°F
300°F

A

B

44
Q

Under the defensible space concept, which of the following are areas created as a buffer between public and private zones and have design features for establishing definite and clear transitional boundaries?

Semi-private zones
Clear zones
Buffer zones
Controlled zones

A

A

45
Q

The main principle of tendering is that:

Bidders must be able to offer low prices
Bidders must be able to offer the best quality
There should be open and fair treatment of suppliers
Bidders must be able to offer the best value for money

A

C

46
Q

Which of the following statements is true with regard to a felony?

A felony is seldom punishable by imprisonment
The maximum punishment for a felony is usually not more than 1-year imprisonment
A felony is punishable by death or imprisonment
The maximum punishment for a felony is usually a monetary fine or incarceration in a local jail

A

C

47
Q

Which of the following is a contractual obligation imposed by law for preventing unjust enrichment?

Act of God
Aleatory contract
Quasi contract
Express contract

A

C

48
Q

The timing of the removal of the undercover operative is one of the most frequently debated subjects among undercover supervisors. How long should the operative be kept in place?

Removed as soon as possible to save costs
Should be kept in place as long as possible.
Should be removed as soon as possible when evidence is gained
Removed upon direction from the senior management.

A

B

49
Q

The Equal Pay Act disallows paying wages based on:

Age
Race
Gender
All of the above

A

C

50
Q

What type of material would be better for a storefront in terms of resistance to breakage and resistance to overall deterioration?

Laminated glass
Wired glass
Bullet-resistant glass
Acrylic material

A

D

Dutch Risk (9 decks)

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